UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 4 - UPSC MCQ

Reserve money, also known as central bank money, base money or high-powered money, plays a crucial role in determining monetary aggregates. Reserve money has two major components such as currency in circulation and reserves. Currency in circulation comprises currency with the public and cash in hand with banks. The public's demand for currency is determined by a number of factors such as real income, price level, the opportunity cost of holding currency (i.e., the interest rate on interest-bearing assets) and the availability of alternative instruments of transactions, e.g., credit/debit cards, ATMs, cheque payments. The demand for reserves by banks depends on the requirements for the maintenance of CRR and to meet payment obligations. M0 = Currency in Circulation + Bankers Deposits with the RBI + Other deposits with the RBI. Other deposits with RBI comprise mainly,

• Deposits of quasi-government and other financial institutions, including primary dealers.
• Balances in the accounts of foreign central banks and governments.
• Accounts of international agencies such as the IMF
• Provident, gratuity and guarantee funds for the RBI staff. High-powered money is money that is directly used to make transactions in an economy. It includes the currency in circulation and reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank. Term deposits of households with banks are not included as high-powered money because they are not directly available as a medium of exchange. They are funds that households have deposited with banks for a specific term or period. While banks can use these deposits to make loans, they cannot be directly used as a medium of exchange like cash or reserves.

So, Option (d) is correct.

• The Karman Line is indeed an imaginary boundary located at 100 km above sea level that separates Earth's atmosphere from space.Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Karman Line was established by the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI), not NASA.Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The Karman Line was established to regulate airspace and marks the altitude beyond which a traditional aircraft can't fly. Any aircraft flying beyond it needs a propulsion system to pull away from the earth's tug. It also acts as a legal reference that separates airspace that a country can claim to own from space itself, which is governed like international waters.

Collegium System : The SC collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the court. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

A High Court collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other senior most judges of that court. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct

• Temperature is the most ecologically relevant environmental factor. You are aware that the average temperature on land varies seasonally, decreases progressively from the equator towards the poles and from plains to the mountain tops. It ranges from subzero levels in polar areas and high altitudes to > 500 °C in tropical deserts in summer.
• There are, however, unique habitats such as thermal springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents where average temperatures exceed 1000 C. It is general knowledge that mango trees do not and cannot grow in temperate countries like Canada and Germany, snow leopards are not found in Kerala forests and tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical latitudes in the ocean. You can readily appreciate the significance of temperature to living organisms when you realise that it affects the kinetics of enzymes and through it the basal metabolism, activity and other physiological functions of the organism.
• A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures (they are called eurythermal), Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• But, a vast majority of them are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures (such organisms are called stenothermal). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine to a large extent their geographical distribution. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

 Cruise Missile:

• An unmanned self-propelled (till the time of impact) guided vehicle that sustains flight through aerodynamic lift for most of its flight path.
• They fly within the earth’s atmosphere and use jet engine technology. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  Example: BrahMos, Harpoon (USA), Exocet (France)
• Classification: 9 Subsonic (around 0.8 Mach speed), Supersonic (around 2-3 Mach speed), Hypersonic (More than 5 Mach speed) x Ballistic Missile:
• Has a ballistic trajectory over most of its flight path, regardless of whether it is a weapon-delivery vehicle.
• Powered by rockets initially but then they follow an unpowered, free-falling trajectory toward their targets. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Example: Prithvi I, Prithvi II, Agni I, Agni II and Dhanush ballistic missiles .
• Classification: Based on launch mode, range, propulsion system. 

1. Arunachal Pradesh – Mismi is correct as the Mishmi tribe is native to Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Assam – Khasis is incorrect because the Khasis are from Meghalaya, not Assam.

3. Nagaland – Zeliang is correct as the Zeliang tribe is found in Nagaland.

Correctly matched pairs: 1 and 3 only. The answer is b) 1 and 3 only.

Pink Bollworm: The PBW is a destructive pest that primarily affects cotton crops. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

It is native to Asia and was first reported in India in 1842. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Genetically modified Bt cotton seeds, initially effective against certain pests, have lost their efficacy in combating PBW due to the insect's resistance.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Deficit financing means generating funds to finance the deficit resulting from excess expenditure over revenue. The gap is being covered by borrowing from the public through the sale of bonds or by printing new money. The below mechanisms do the Government finance its deficit:
• The Reserve Bank of India issues dated Government securities to the public on behalf of the Government, which are long-term debt instruments that mature in 5-40 years. These securities are typically used to finance the long-term requirements of the Government.
• The Government issues Treasury Bills to the public, which are short-term debt instruments that mature in less than one year. These bills are used to finance the short-term requirements of the Government.
• The Government can also avail of the Ways and Means Advance facility from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to meet its temporary mismatches in cash flow. This facility is essentially an overdraft facility extended by the RBI to the Government. So, Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• Dated Government securities are long-term securities or government bonds that carry a fixed or floating coupon (interest rate). Securities are issued by the government (center or state) for mobilizing funds. Financing the fiscal deficit is the most important purpose for issuing dated securities. On behalf of the government, only the RBI issues the securities, pays interest and gives back money at the maturity period.The government does not issue them to the RBI.
• RBI’s public debt office manages all these activities. The RBI sells securities through auction through the Negotiated Dealing System (NDS). They are bought by institutions known as primary dealers (Primarily dealers are mostly commercial banks, insurance companies etc.) So, Statement 4 is not correct. 

Explanation:

• Statement 1: This statement is correct. Effective Revenue Deficit is indeed the difference between total expenditure and revenue receipts after removing grants allocated for asset creation.
• Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The difference between Revenue Deficit and Effective Revenue Deficit being very less does not necessarily indicate that a high amount of grants is allocated for asset creation. It indicates that a significant portion of revenue expenditure is being used for asset creation, not the amount of grants.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1. 1 only.

The Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW) is a non-profit organization, not an intergovernmental organization which includes companies from across North and South America, Europe, Asia, Southeast Asia, Africa as well as the Middle East are part of the Alliance. The aim is to develop solutions to mitigate plastic pollution and promote a circular economy by utilizing used plastics. The global companies’ alliance will develop and bring to scale solutions that will minimise and manage plastic waste and promote solutions for used plastics by helping to enable a circular economy. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW) and Deutsche Gesellschaft für Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ) launch the Aviral – Reducing Plastic Waste in the Ganga pilot project. This initiative aims to reduce the amount of plastic waste entering the environment in the northern Indian cities of Haridwar and Rishikesh. The pilot project, in cooperation with Saahas NGO and Waste Warriors Society, is supporting the Municipal Corporations of Haridwar and Rishikesh in developing approaches for sustainable and replicable plastic waste management solutions. The initiative is building on the existing flagship programs of the National Mission for Clean Ganga (Namami Gange) and the Clean India Mission (Swachh Bharat Mission). So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW), comprising about 30 companies, pledged over $1 billion to eliminate plastic waste across the world. They aim to invest $1.5 billion over the next five years for the same, but it has not pledged to eliminate plastic waste by 2030. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 

Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve About: // The very name 'Nilgiris’ with literary meaning ‘blue mountains’ has originated from the appearance of blue flower clad mountains (Neelakurinji flowers) of the Nilgiris plateau within the State of Tamil Nadu. The reserve spans across three Indian states: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala. It was the first biosphere reserve in India established in 1986. It is India's first biosphere reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme. Home to several tribal groups such as the Adiyan, Aranadan , Kader , Kurichian , Kuruman , and Kurumbas. It portray the confluence of Afro-tropical and Indo-Malayan biotic zones of the world. Protected Areas in NBR: The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve. Hence, option D is correct. 

Iron Catastrophe and Planetary differentiation:

• When Earth was formed about 4.5 billion years ago, it was a uniform ball of hot rock. Radioactive decay and leftover heat from planetary formation (the collision, accretion, and compression of space rocks) caused the ball to get even hotter. Eventually, after about 500 million years, our young planet’s temperature heated to the melting point of iron — about 1,538° Celsius. This pivotal moment in Earth’s history is called the iron catastrophe. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The iron catastrophe allowed greater, more rapid movement of Earth’s molten, rocky material. Relatively buoyant material, such as silicates, water, and even air, stayed close to the planet’s exterior. These materials became the early mantle and crust. Droplets of iron, nickel, and other heavy metals gravitated to the centre of Earth, becoming the early core. This important process is called planetary differentiation.

• Hail stones are a frozen form of precipitation that occurs when thunderstorm updrafts lift rain above the freezing level in the atmosphere. When hail stones become too heavy to be lifted by the updraft, they fall to the ground.
• While most thunderstorms form hail, hail does not always make it all the way to the ground as hail. If the hail stone is small enough, the stone melts in the warmest portions of the atmosphere which are near the ground. For hail to become large enough to reach the surface, the stone must grow large enough in the thunderstorm before falling through the warm lower atmosphere.
• Hail forms when a thunderstorm updraft lifts a water droplet above the freezing level in the atmosphere. The frozen water droplet then accretes super-cooled water or water vapor, which freezes once it comes in contact with the frozen droplet. This process causes a hailstone to grow.
  • Supercooled water is something unique–it’s water that is below its normal freezing point of 0°C (32°F) and yet remains a liquid.
• Hail is often confused with other types of freezing precipitation such as sleet. Sleet is found mainly during the cold season and does not occur in thunderstorms. Hail, in comparison, is only found in thunderstorms where updrafts in the thunderstorm forces raindrops further up in the atmosphere to freeze.
• In many cases, hailstones have a ringed appearance. The rings represent the different environments the hailstone experiences while moving through the updraft. When the hailstone is in an environment where mainly water vapor is present, a white or opaque layer forms. This occurs because small air pockets are trapped between the vapor particles as they freeze. When the hailstone is in an environment of mainly super-cooled water, a clear layer forms as the super-cooled water freezes instantaneously to the hailstone.
• Hailstones can also grow by sticking to each other in a process called wet growth. Larger hailstones will ascend through the updraft at a slower speed than smaller hailstones. If the outer coating of these hailstones is not completely frozen, they can collide with each other and stick. If this process happens over and over again, a hailstone can grow very quickly. When these aggregated hailstones hit the ground, they often have a bumpy or spiky appearance (right), as the smaller hailstones that make up the larger hailstone maintain their individual shapes.
• Hail sizes can differ greatly from one storm to another depending on the strength of the storm’s updraft. Stronger updrafts can create larger hailstones, which in turn causes more damage.
• Favourable Conditions For Hail Formation:
  • Strong, upward motion of air (strong updraft) within the parent thunderstorm
  • High liquid water content
  • Great vertical extent of the cumulonimbus cloud
  • Good portion of the cloud layer is below freezing (^oC or below)
  • High surface temperatures (hail growth is greatly inhibited during cold surface temperatures) ^o
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

In addition to making of the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:

• It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
• It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. Hence statement 1 is not correct
• It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 3 is correct
• It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 4 is correct 

Tsunamis are characterized as shallow-water waves. Shallow-water waves are different from wind- generated waves, the waves many of us have observed at the beach. Wind-generated waves usually have period (time between two successional waves) of five to twenty seconds and a wavelength (distance between two successional waves) of about 100 to 200 meters. A tsunami can have a period in the range of ten minutes to two hours and a wavelength in excess of 300 miles (500 km). It is because of their long wavelengths that tsunamis behave as shallow-water waves.

• The rate at which a wave loses its energy is inversely related to its wavelength. Since a tsunami has a very large wavelength, it will lose little energy as it propagates. Hence in very deep water, a tsunami will travel at high speeds and travel great transoceanic distances with limited energy loss. For example, when the ocean is 20,000 ft. (6100 m) deep, unnoticed tsunamis travel about 550 miles per hour (890 km/hr), the speed of a jet airplane. And they can move from one side of the Pacific Ocean to the other side in less than one day. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• As a tsunami leaves the deep water of the open sea and propagates into the more shallow waters near the coast, it undergoes a transformation. Since the speed of the tsunami is related to the water depth, as the depth of the water decreases, the speed of the tsunami diminishes. The change of total energy of the tsunami remains constant. Therefore, the speed of the tsunami decreases as it enters shallower water, and the height of the wave grows. Because of this “shoaling” effect, a tsunami that was imperceptible in deep water may grow to be several feet or more in height. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Tsunami Ready: It is a community performance-based programme initiated by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO to promote tsunami preparedness through active collaboration of public, community leaders, and national and local emergency management agencies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Babur, the founder of Mughal rule in India (1526), ruled for only four years. He was not able to contribute anything to the growth of painting. His successor, Humayun, was mostly engaged in containing his rivals until he was forced out of India by Sher Shah in 1540. It was, however, during his refuge at the court of Shah Tahmasp of Persia that Humayun acquired a love for the art of painting.
• Humayun was so influenced by the art practiced there that he commissioned Mir Sayyid Ali and Khwaja Abdus Samad, two Persian masters, to illustrate manuscripts for him. These two painters joined Humayun’s entourage on his triumphant return to India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Akbar gave liberal patronage to the growth of fine arts during his rule. The first major project undertaken during Akbar’s regime was that of illustrating the Hamza Nama. It began in 1562 for which several artists were employed at the court. The place where the painters worked was known as Tasvir Khana. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Painting under Akbar’s reign distinguishes itself as a tradition from Persian painting as well as from Indian styles, particularly by the presence of historical subject matter. It became recognizable within a span of fifteen years since the setting up of royal atelier under Akbar. By about 1590, it had acquired a distinctive form, marked by:
  • naturalism and rhythm,
  • clothing objects of daily use assuming Indian forms,
  • picture space having subsidiary scenes set in the background,
  • extraordinary vigor of action and violent movement, and
  • luxuriant depiction of foliage and brilliant blossoms.
  • It should be emphasized here that the identity of the Mughal paintings under Akbar was as much made of an original style as a fusion of the Persian and Indian traditions. The depiction of action and movement is not to be found in either the pre-Mughal art of India or the art of Persia. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The two most commonly used themes were: daily events of the court, and portraits of leading personalities.

IUCN Green Status of Species

• The decline of many species towards extinction has largely focused conservation efforts on ensuring that species remain extant.
• However, conservationists have long recognised the need to complement this by aiming to recover depleted populations throughout a species range and to restore species to ecosystems from which they have been extirpated
• The main objectives of the IUCN Green Status of Species are: to provide a standardised framework for measuring species recovery; to recognise conservation achievements; to highlight species whose current conservation status is dependent on continued conservation actions; to forecast the expected conservation impact of planned conservation action; and to elevate levels of ambition for long-term species recovery.
• These objectives together encourage conservation towards species recovery. throughout a species' range.

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO₂). The larger the GWP, the more that a given gas warms the Earth compared to CO₂ over that time period. The time period usually used for GWPs is 100 years. GWPs provide a common unit of measure, which allows analysts to add up emissions estimates of different gases (e.g., to compile a national GHG inventory), and allows policymakers to compare emissions reduction opportunities across sectors and gases.

• CO₂, by definition, has a GWP of 1 regardless of the time period used because it is the gas being used as the reference. CO₂ remains in the climate system for a very long time: CO₂ emissions cause increases in atmospheric concentrations of CO₂ that will last thousands of years.
• Methane (CH4) is estimated to have a GWP of 27-30 over 100 years. CH₄ emitted today lasts about a decade on average, which is much less time than CO₂. But CH4 also absorbs much more energy than CO₂. The net effect of the shorter lifetime and higher energy absorption is reflected in the GWP. The CH4 GWP also accounts for some indirect effects, such as the fact that CH₄ is a precursor to ozone, and ozone is itself a GHG.
• Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) has a GWP 273 times that of CO2 for a 100-year timescale. N₂O emitted today remains in the atmosphere for more than 100 years, on average.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWP gases because, for a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO₂. (The GWPs for these gases can be in the thousands or tens of thousands.) So, Option (d) is correct.

Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat. Peatlands are a type of wetland that is critical for preventing and mitigating the effects of climate change, preserving biodiversity, minimising flood risk, and ensuring safe drinking water. So, Option (a) is correct.

Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined. About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in a natural or near- natural state. In peatlands, year-round water-logged conditions slow plant decomposition to such an extent that dead plants accumulate to form peat. This stores the carbon the plants absorb from the atmosphere within peat soils, providing a net-cooling effect and helping to mitigate the climate crisis. So, Option (b) is correct.

The Global Peatlands Initiative is an international partnership formed in 2016 to save peatlands as the world's largest terrestrial organic carbon stock. Forty-six international partner organizations and four major tropical peatland countries of Indonesia, the Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Congo and Peru have come together to work to improve the conservation, restoration and sustainable management of peatlands globally. It is an attempt to conserve peatlands as the world's largest terrestrial organic carbon resource by leading experts and organisations and to avoid them from being released into the atmosphere. It is headed by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). So, Option (c) is correct.

Peatland landscapes are varied: from temperate blanket mires with open, treeless vegetation, such as the Flow Country of Scotland, to swamp forests in Southeast Asia. The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia. The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’ worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide a year. The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

So, Option (d) is not correct.

Sentinel species are those species that are highly sensitive to environmental disturbance and are sometimes used in aquatic biological assessments to provide an early warning that more severe water quality conditions are likely to occur unless mitigation measures are taken.

Sentinel species are different from the Indicator species. Sentinel species are commonly used as indicators of health threats to humans rather than the health threats in a particular ecosystem or habitat. In contrast, Indicator species are those whose presence or absence or abundance reflects a specific environmental condition.

Various species of animals-domestic, wild, and exotic —are potentially useful as animal sentinels. Several attributes of an animal contribute to its suitability as a sentinel. The canaries are the most familiar example of a sentinel species, which are animals and plants that serve as harbingers of danger to human health and the environment.

In the case of canaries, if odorless carbon monoxide were present in a high enough concentration in a coal mine, the small bird would die first and give miners time to escape. So, Option (b) is correct. 

• The coastal plains in India run parallel to the Arabian Sea & Bay of Bengal along the Peninsular Plateau. The western coastal plain is a narrow belt about 10-20km wide along the Arabian Sea. It stretches from Rann of Kachchh to Kanya Kumari. Western coastal plains comprise three sectors (i) Konkan Coast (Mumbai to Goa), (ii) Karnataka coast from Goa to Mangalore (iii) Malabar Coast (Mangalore to Kanya Kumari). The eastern coast runs along the Bay of Bengal. It is wider than the western coastal plain.
• The western coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka, once part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast, is submerged underwater.
• The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards the north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Malabar coast has certain distinguishing features in the form of 'Kayals' (backwaters), which are used for fishing, and inland navigation due to its special attraction for tourists. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and an example of an emergent coast. There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Because of its emergent nature, the eastern coastal plain has fewer ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, making it difficult to develop good ports and harbours. Whereas western coastal plains are submerged in nature, their narrow belt provides natural conditions for developing ports and harbours—Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• The Hoysala Empire was spread over the Southern Deccan Plateau region of present-day Karnataka between the 11th and 14th centuries. It developed a distinctive style of Hindu temple architecture known as Hoysala architecture. This architectural style is exemplified by numerous temples, both large and small, built during the 13th century, including the Chennakesava Temple at Belur, the Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu, and the Kesava Temple at Somanathapura mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Hoysala temples are quite unique in that their different parts are merged together to form a unified, organic whole, unlike the temples of the Tamil region where each part of a temple stands independently. Although they may appear superficially different, Hoysala temples share a similar structural design. They are renowned for their intricate and detailed sculptures, which decorate all parts of the temple, and are carved out of soft soapstone (chloritic schist), a material that is ideal for fine and detailed work. Local craftsmen were primarily responsible for executing these carvings, which display architectural features that set them apart from other temple architectures in South India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Hoysala temples are known for their unique and complex structure, featuring multiple shrines arranged around a central pillared hall in a star-shaped pattern. This stellate-plan design sets them apart from other medieval temples in South India. Also, these sport a pyramidical Vimana as its Shikhar. These distinctive architectural features and decorative elements make the Hoysala temples easily recognizable and distinguishable from other temple architectures of the time. Hence statements 3 and 4 are correct. 

• The Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs). It is a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/poor in the Industrial Sector as well as in the non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace. Hence statement 2 is correct and 4 is not correct.
• The beneficiaries for ARHCs will be urban migrants/poor from EWS/LIG categories including labor, urban poor (street vendors, rickshaw pullers, other service providers, etc.), industrial workers, migrants working with market/ trade associations, educational/ health institutions, hospitality sector, long term tourists/visitors, students or any other persons of such category. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Scheme was hence announced under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Package which compliments the "Housing for all" motto of the government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• In order to refer to a particular location on the earth, it is divided with the help of imaginary horizontal and vertical lines known as latitudes and longitudes respectively.
• The latitude denotes a geographical coordinate of a place located on the surface of the earth. It is the angular distance of any point (north or south of the equator) measured in degrees with respect to the Centre of the Earth. Its value is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the poles. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of a degree of latitude at the pole is slightly longer than that at the equator. For example at the equator (0°) it is 68.704 miles, at 45° it is 69.054 miles and at the poles, it is 69.407 miles. The average distance between two latitudes is thus taken as 69 miles (111km). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Some significant latitudes include-
  • Equator (0°).
  • North pole (90°N) and the south pole (90° S).
  • Tropic of Cancer (231⁄2° N).
  • Tropic of Capricorn (231⁄2° S).
  • Arctic circle at 661⁄2° N.
  • Antarctic circle at 661⁄2° S.
• Longitude, on the other hand, is an angular distance measured in degrees along the equator east or west of the Prime Meridian.
• In 1884, the zero meridian was chosen as the one passing through the Royal Astronomical Observatory at Greenwich, near London. This is the Prime Meridian (0°) from which all other meridians radiate eastwards and westwards up to 180°.
• The meridians of longitude converge at the poles.
• Apart from describing the location, they have one more essential function, they determine local time in relation to G.M.T. or Greenwich Mean Time.

• Agra Fort, also called Red Fort, large 16th-century fortress of red sandstone located on the Yamuna River in the historic city of Agra, west-central Uttar Pradesh, north-central India. It was established by the Mughal emperor Akbar and, in its capacity as both a military base and a royal residence, served as the seat of government when the Mughal capital was in Agra. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The walls of the roughly crescent-shaped structure have a circumference of about 1.5 miles (2.5 km), rise 70 feet (21 meters) high, and are surrounded by a moat. There are two access points in the walls: the Amar Singh Gate facing south (now the only means in or out of the fort complex) and the Delhi Gate facing west, the original entrance, which is richly decorated with intricate marble inlays. Many structures within the walls were added later by subsequent Mughal emperors, notably Shah Jahān and Jahāngīr. The complex of buildings—reminiscent of Persian- and Timurid-style architectural features—forms a city within a city.
• The structure, a contemporary of Humāyūn’s Tomb in Delhi, reflects the architectural grandeur of the Mughal reign in India.
• The Agra fort complex was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Census and Caste Census In India: Socio Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931. SECC is meant to canvas every Indian family, both in rural and urban India, and ask about their economic status etc. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The Origin of the Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881. Census has evolved and been used by the government, policymakers, academics, and others to capture the Indian population, access resources, map social change, delimitation exercise, etc. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

The Justice Rohini Commission, which has been examining the question of sub-categorisation of OBCs only since 2017, submitted its report and recommendations are not yet made public. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct

The Indian Republican Army was a short-lived revolutionary army that was created by Surya Sen and the members of the Anushilan Samiti in 1930. The army was created with an aim of liberating the city of Chittagong and the Bengal Presidency from British rule. Sen led a party of revolutionaries in an attack on the Chittagong armoury police and auxiliary force arsenal. The complex strategy involved stealing weapons from the armoury and destroying the city's communications infrastructure in order to cut off Chittagong from the rest of the British Raj. They were unable to seize the munitions, though. A few days later, one of the British Indian Army units trapped a sizable portion of the rebel party in the neighbouring Jalalabad Hills. Twelve revolutionaries lost their lives in the subsequent battle. Bina Das was an Indian revolutionary and nationalist from West Bengal. She was born to social worker and educationist parents, who were deeply involved in the Brahmo Samaj and the freedom struggle. Das was a member of Chhatri Sangha, a semi-revolutionary organisation for women in Kolkata. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

After his release from the Mandalay prison, Sardar Ajit Singh attended the Surat session of the Congress and went on to form a revolutionary organisation called the Bharat Mata Society in 1907. He later launched the Bharat Mata Book Agency, which, because of its strident anti-government, propagandist publications, attracted the attention of the British government. Though the government seized many of the publications, they remained highly popular among the people. Many young revolutionaries like Sufi Amba Prasad, Zia-ul-Haq, Lal Chand Falak, Din Dayal Banke, Kishan Singh and Lala Ram Saran Das were among the members of this clandestine organisation. So, Pair (2) is correct.

Anushilan Samiti was one of the secret revolutionary organisations operating in Bengal in the first quarter of the 20th century. Pramathanath Mitra, a Barrister and a leading figure in the revolutionary movement of late 19th and early 20th century Bengal founded the Calcutta Anushilan Samiti in 1902. Jatindranath Banerjee, a young Bengali who took military training in the army of the Maharaja of Baroda and Barindrakumar ghosh, the younger brother of Aurobindo Ghosh, assisted him. So, Pair (3) is not correct.

The Abhinav Bharat Mandir (Young India Society) was founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in the year 1904, as a secret organization during the Indian War of Independence. When Vinayak Savarkar was a student of Fergusson College in Pune, it was initially established in Nashik under the name "Mitra Mela". This led to some assassinations of British officials, after which the Savarkar brothers were convicted and imprisoned. It was one of the many (revolutionary organizations) involved in Maharashtra that believed in overthrowing the armed British rule. In 1904, at a meeting attended by 200 members from various cities in Maharashtra, freedom fighter Vinayak Savarkar named Giuseppe Mazzini's Young Italy and named it Abhinav Bharat. So, Pair (4) is correct. 

The Haripura Session of 1938:

• At the Congress meeting in Haripura (Gujarat), in February, 1938, Bose was unanimously elected the President of the Session. He was firm in his belief that the Congress Ministries in the Provinces had immense revolutionary potential, as he said in his presidential address.
• Bose also talked of economic development of the country through planning and was instrumental in setting up a National Planning Committee under the Chairmanship of Jawahar Lal Nehru.
• The Session adopted a resolution that the Congress would give moral support to those who were agitating against the governance in the Princely States.
• The Congress announced its aim to attain complete independence for the whole of India, including the Princely States. They demanded a responsible government and the guarantee of civil liberties in the states.

During the 16th century, the Portuguese introduced the Gothic style of architecture in India. Pointed towers and arches are the unique features of this style. Examples are the St. Francis Church in Kochi and the Bom Jesus Church in Goa Another style that was extensively used was the neo-Gothic, characterized by high-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decoration. While the Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches, built in northern Europe during the medieval period, the neo-Gothic or new Gothic style was revived in the mid- 19th century in England. This was the time when the colonial government in Bombay was building its infrastructure and this style was adapted for Bombay. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Coffee was introduced in India during the late 17th century not by the Portuguese but by a Sufi saint called Baba Budan. The story goes that an Indian pilgrim to Mecca known as Baba Budan smuggled seven beans back to India from Yemen in 1670 and planted them in the Chandragiri hills of Karnataka. The Dutch, who had colonies in India during the 17th century helped spread the cultivation of coffee. But it was with the arrival of the British Raj in the mid-19th century that commercial coffee cultivation flourished. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The history of printing press in India dates back to the 16th century, when Portuguese traders brought the technology to Goa. The first printing press of India was set up in 1556 at St. Paul’s College, Goa. In a letter to St. Ignatius of Loyola, dated 30 April 1556, Father Gasper Caleza spoke of a ship carrying a printing press to sail from Portugal to Abyssinia (current-day Ethiopia) to promote missionary work in Abyssinia. Due to some circumstances, this printing press was prohibited from leaving India. As a result, printing operations began in Goa in 1556, through Joao De Bustamante. Joao Gonsalves is credited with preparing the first printing of the Indian Script-Tamil. He was another Spaniard who played an important role in the growth of printing in India. The first printed Indian language was Tamil: Doctrina Chrstam, Tampiran Vanakkam in 1558 with paper imported from China, a 1539 Portuguese Catechism translation (the first Tamil book in Romanized Tamil script was printed in Lisbon in 1554.) So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Between 1755 and 1845, Serampore was under Danish rule, when it was known as Frederiksnagore after King Frederik V of Denmark. According to some reports, the Danes had arrived in Bengal much earlier, sometime in 1698. But it was in 1755 that they carved out a settlement armed with a royal order from Nawab of Bengal, Alivardi Khan, who ruled from Murshidabad, granting them free trading rights. What began as a factory with a mud fence and a straw roof under the Danish East India Company gradually developed into a well-planned town under Governor Colonel Ole Bie, after Serampore came under the Danish Crown in 1777. Start with the Serampore College, which was set up by the English Baptist missionaries in 1818. These missionaries denied permission to settle down in Bengal ruled by the then British government were welcomed to Serampore by the Danish government. Missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward were keen to introduce Christianity among the masses but also believed in the spread of education and natural sciences. Even before the college was founded, Carey not only began translating the Bible but also wrote grammar books and dictionaries in several Indian languages. They published newspapers and periodicals. A printing press was also set up to facilitate publication. So, Statement 4 is correct. 

The Constitution was drafted by the Constituent Assembly, which was formed under the British Cabinet Mission through a process of indirect elections and held its first session in December 1946. Initially, it had 207 members, including 15 women and was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who later became the first President of independent India. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Durgabai Deshmukh was an Indian freedom fighter, lawyer, social worker and politician. She was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and of the Planning Commission of India. From her early years, Durgabai had been associated with Indian politics. At age 12, she left school in protest of the imposition of English-medium education. She later started the Balika Hindi Paathshala in Rajahmundry to promote Hindi education for girls. She proposed Hindustani (Hindi+Urdu) as the national language of India but also expressed fear about the forceful campaign for Hindi in South India. She proposed a period of fifteen years of status quo to enable all non-Hindi speakers to adopt and learn Hindi. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (1889–1964) was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the United Provinces. Her most significant contribution was in ensuring extensive political participation of women. She became the first woman to hold a cabinet position in India as health minister. The All India Women’s Conference Center, the Lady Irwin College in Delhi and the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) are a few of the reputed organizations that owe their existence to her. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Hansa Jivraj Mehta served on the Constituent Assembly and was a member of the fundamental rights sub-committee, the advisory and provincial constitutional committees. On December 19, 1946, while discussing the matter of joint electorates in the Constituent Assembly, Mehta said, “The women’s organization to which I have the honor to belong has never asked for reserved seats, for quotas, or separate electorates. What we have asked for is social justice, economic justice, and political justice. So, Statement 4 is not correct.