UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 8 - UPSC MCQ

The money market is that part of the financial market which is used for short- term borrowing and lending. The retail investors can participate in the money market. The money market instruments, such as Call/Notice Money; Commercial Papers etc., are traded on the electronic platforms, which are authorised by the RBI. Some of these platforms include NDS- Call; Tri Party Repo Dealing System (TREPS) etc.

The ‘Settlement’ refers to the official transfer of the shares from the seller's account to the buyer's account. Earlier, India was following the T+2 Settlement and has now adopted the T+1 Settlement. T+1 means that the trade-related settlements must be done within one day of the transaction's completion. Most large stock markets, like in the US, Europe and Japan, still follow the T+2 Settlement Cycle of trade settlement. India has now become the second country, after China, to go for the T+1 Settlement. However, as of now, adoption of the T + 1 Settlement Cycle has been made voluntary.

The Counter Cyclical Fiscal Policy is adopted to counter the adverse business cycle, i.e., ‘inflation’ or ‘recession’. During inflation, as part of the Counter Cyclical Policy, the tax rates are increased and the expenditure is reduced. During recession, as part of the Counter Cyclical Policy, the tax rates are reduced and the expenditure is increased.

• Adultery is the voluntary act of engaging in sexual relations by a married individual (man or woman) with someone other than their spouse. Before 2018, the Indian Penal Code included Section 497, which classified adultery as a criminal act punishable by imprisonment for up to five years, a fine, or both. Notably, only men could face penalties under Section 497, while women were exempt from prosecution.
• This ran counter to the broader definition of adultery encompassing both genders engaging in voluntary sexual relations outside marriage. In a landmark case, Joseph Shine vs Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court unanimously struck down Section 497.
• The ruling highlighted discrimination and constitutional violations, asserting Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Indian constitution, protecting equality, non-discrimination, and life and liberty, respectively. Hence, option C is correct

Under Employment occurs under two conditions: When the persons willing to work for full time are hired only for part-time work. Also referred to as the ‘Visible Under Employment’. When a person is compelled to do a job below his qualification. For example, an engineering graduate working in a call centre. Also referred to as the ‘Invisible Under Employment’.

• The LTRO (Long Term Repo Operations) is a tool which allows the banks to borrow funds from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a tenor of upto 1-year to 3-years at the Policy Repo Rate, against government securities. As the banks get long-term funds at lower rates, their cost of funds falls. In turn, they reduce interest rates for the borrowers. The RBI introduced this tool to inject liquidity in the system, as well as to ensure transmission of rates.
• TLTRO stands for the Targeted Long Term Repo Operations. It is same as the LTRO, with a difference that the money borrowed by the banks under this scheme has to be deployed in investment-grade corporate bonds, commercial papers and non-convertible debentures. It means that this LTRO should be targeted towards investment- grade corporate bonds, commercial papers and non-convertible debentures. Hence the name Targeted LTRO.

Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital receipts) and its total expenditure in a financial year. Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure – Total receipts (excluding borrowings). This is equal to the fresh borrowings made by the government in that financial year.
Fiscal Deficit = Revenue expenditure + Capital expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Capital receipts) = Non-debt making capital receipts.

Statement 1: Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets are the same for all the Scheduled Commercial Banks.

This statement is not correct. While all Scheduled Commercial Banks have PSL targets, the specific targets can vary based on the type of bank. For example, public sector banks, private sector banks, and foreign banks with more than 20 branches have different PSL targets. Thus, PSL targets are not necessarily the same for all Scheduled Commercial Banks.

Statement 2: The Urban Cooperative Banks do not have any mandated PSL targets.

This statement is also not correct. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) do have mandated PSL targets set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These targets require UCBs to lend a certain percentage of their adjusted net bank credit or credit equivalent amount of off-balance-sheet exposure, whichever is higher, to the priority sectors.

Given the analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because PSL targets are not uniform across all Scheduled Commercial Banks.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because Urban Cooperative Banks do have mandated PSL targets.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

1. Neither 1 nor 2

The Board for Financial Supervision (BFS) has been constituted as an autonomous body under the RBI to undertake consolidated supervision of the financial sector, comprising the Scheduled Commercial and Cooperative Banks, All India Financial Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks, Payments Banks, Credit Information Companies, Non-Banking Finance Companies and Primary Dealers.

1. Fixed Deposits: These are deposits made with the bank for a fixed period, and the bank is liable to pay back the amount after the maturity period. Hence, fixed deposits are considered time liabilities.

2. Demand Drafts: Demand drafts are a method of transferring money from one bank account to another. While they represent a liability for the bank, they are not considered a "time liability" because they are payable on demand at any time after their issue, not at a future fixed date or after a fixed period.

3. Cash Certificates: Similar to fixed deposits, cash certificates are a type of deposit that matures over a certain period, and the bank is liable to pay the amount after that period. Therefore, they are considered time liabilities.

Thus, the correct answer is: 1 and 3 only

• BIMSTEC is an economic bloc that came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It aims to accelerate economic growth and social progress among members across multiple sectors — trade, technology, energy, transport, tourism and fisheries, agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, counter-terrorism, environment, culture, people-to-people contact, and climate change. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four countries with the acronym  ̳BIST-EC‘ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With the entrance of Myanmar in 1997, the grouping was renamed  ̳BIMST-EC‘ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Finally, with the entrance of Nepal and Bhutan at the 6th Ministerial Meeting in 2004, the grouping was named Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) has passed 23 years since its inception in 1997. Being a regional cooperation initiative, BIMSTEC promotes co-operation in seven key economic areas including trade, investment, and transport and communications. In this connection, member countries are currently negotiating for establishing the BIMSTEC Free Trade Agreement to propel trade and investment among member countries. Hence statement 2 is not correct

• Gulf of Guinea (GoG): It is an inlet of the Atlantic Ocean on the western African coast, extending westward from Cape Lopez in Gabon to Cape Palmas in Liberia. Hence, statement A is not correct. It is found at the junction of the Prime Meridian and the Equator at 0°0’N and 0°0’E. Hence, statement B is correct.
• Major rivers that drain into the Gulf of Guinea include the Volta and Niger rivers. The GoG is one of the world’s most dangerous gulfs because of the widespread piracy that has severely affected many countries in West Africa along with other international countries. The GoG region accounts for more than 35% of the world’s total petroleum reserves. Hence, statement C is correct.
• Several minerals including diamonds, uranium, copper, etc., are found here. The principal economic activities of the Gulf of Guinea region are petroleum exploration, mining and gas flaring, port operations, and fishing. The 16 coastal countries that are situated along the Gulf of Guinea are Angola, Benin, Cameroon, Cote d'Ivoire, Democratic Republic of Congo, Republic of Congo, Guinea, Equatorial Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Gabon, Nigeria, Ghana, São Tomé and Principe, Togo and Sierra Leone. Hence, statement D is correct. Hence, option A is correct

The NAIRU is the lowest unemployment rate that can be sustained without causing wages growth and inflation to rise. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

When unemployment is at the NAIRU level, inflation is steady; when unemployment rises, inflation decreases; when unemployment drops, inflation increases. With no set formula to determine NAIRU, the Federal Reserve has historically used statistical models to put the NAIRU level somewhere between 5% and 6% unemployment On the downside, NAIRU does not account for the variety of factors that impact unemployment, besides inflation; also, the historical connection between inflation and unemployment can break down, rendering NAIRU less effective A key indicator of spare capacity in the economy is the difference between the NAIRU and the unemployment rate – sometimes known as the  ̳unemployment rate gap‘ (and also referred to as the ̳unemployment gap‘).

There will be spare capacity in an economy when aggregate demand for goods and services is less than the economy's capacity to produce them. As spare capacity decreases, businesses have difficulty finding enough suitable workers. As a result, businesses may offer higher wages to attract and retain workers, and they may increase the prices of their products to cover their higher labour costs.

If the unemployment rate is higher than the NAIRU, the economy would not be at full employment and there would be downward pressure on inflation If the unemployment rate is lower than the NAIRU, the economy is operating above its full capacity, and there is upward pressure on inflation.

• Scientists from CSIR-Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute (CMERI), Durgapur in West Bengal have developed a retractable-roof polyhouse that will enable farmers to open or shut the roof of the polyhouse as per the requirement. A polyhouse is a specially constructed structure like a building where specialised polythene sheet is used as a covering material under which crops can be grown in partially or fully controlled climatic conditions. It is covered with a transparent material as to permit the entry of natural light. Polyhouses are also helpful in reducing threats such as extreme heat and pest attacks in crops. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A retractable roof will help farmers control the temperature and growing environment of the crops. The retractable roof can be used to manipulate sunlight quantity, quality & duration, water stress, humidity, carbon dioxide levels as well as crop and soil temperatures. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• There are two kinds of retractable-roof polyhouses. One, where the roof can be opened and closed manually by the farmer, and the other where it is automatic. The technology used in the retractable-roof polyhouses will enable the farmers to get the updates on the weather conditions, what the crops need in terms of humidity, temperature, moisture, etc. This way it will help the farmer cultivate both seasonal and non-seasonal crops. Retractable Roof Polyhouse Technology will have an automatic retractable roof which will be operated based on weather conditions and crop requirements from the conditional database using PLC software. Conventional greenhouses have a stationary roof to reduce the effect of weather anomalies and pests. However, there are still disadvantages due to roof covering which sometimes lead to excessive heat and insufficient light (early morning). Besides this, they are also prone to insufficient levels of carbon dioxide, transpiration and water stress.

• Dhauli: It is a hillside lying on the banks of the River Daya, is situated in Orissa. This is the area that is believed to the land for the Kalinga War in the 3rd century B.C. between the Mauryan Empire led by Great Ashoka and Kalinga kingdom. His responses to this war were recorded in form of Ashoka edicts, which are essentially rock structures with inscriptions on them. Dhauli has several major Ashoka edicts and it is now an important center for Buddhism in India. Ashoka built several Stupas, Chaityas, Pillars around the town and did his best to create a peaceful society by helping others post-war. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Nasik Inscription: Some scholars believe that the Satavahanas originated in western Deccan (present-day Maharashtra). All four extant inscriptions from the early Satavahana period (c. 1st century BCE) have been found in and around this region. The achievements of Gutamiputra Satkarni were mentioned in Nasik's Inscription that was composed by his mother Gautami Balasri. The Nasik Prasasti describes Gautamiputra as the ruler of the Aparanta, Anupa, Saurashtra, Kukura, Akara, and Avanti and defeated the Saka King Nahapana and restored the prestige of his dynasty by reconquering a large part of the former dominions of the Satavahanas. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Mandasor inscription: The Mandasor Pillar Inscriptions of Yashodharman are a set of Sanskrit inscriptions from the early 6th-century discovered in northwestern Madhya Pradesh, India. These record the victory of Aulikara king Yasodharman over the Hun king Mihirakula.The Mandasur inscription praises Yasodharman describes him as having rescued the earth from "rude and cruel kings of the Kali age, who delight in viciousness". The inscription also mentions the victories of local ruler Yasodharman over Northern and eastern kingdoms. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

• The ASEAN Regional Plan of Action on Adaptation to Drought (ARPA-AD) 2021-2025 is guided by the ASEAN Declaration on the Strengthening of Adaptation to Drought, which was adopted at the 37th ASEAN Summit on 12 November 2020, and informed by the assessment on the drought situation and its implications in each ASEAN Member State in the 1st and 2nd edition of the study on Ready for the Dry Years: Building Resilience to Drought in South-East Asia. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The ARPA-AD provides a comprehensive regional plan of action to achieve the sustainable management of drought through comprehensively preventing and mitigating its impact on the livelihood of people, natural resources, ecosystem, agriculture, energy, and socio-economic development. It consists of nine actions and 26 sub-actions which are structured based on the drought management cycle, coordination, communication, partnership and capacity building at the regional and national level. The document was developed with the support of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP). Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Mt. Stromboli (Italy) is known as the ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’.
• Mt. Krakatau is a volcanic island in the Sunda Straits, midway between Java and Sumatra.
• Mt. Etna is located in the Sicily Island. Mt. Pelee is located in the West Indies.

A Fringing Reef is a coralline platform, lying close to the shore, extending outwards from the mainland. It is sometimes separated from the shore by a shallow lagoon. A Barrier Reef is separated from the coast by a much wider and deeper channel or lagoon. The Reef is partially submerged. Atolls are similar to the Barrier Reefs, except that they are circular in shape, enclosing a shallow lagoon without any land in the centre.

The Eurasian Steppe is the vast steppe ecoregion of Eurasia in the temperate grasslands, savannas and shrublands biome. It is also simply called the Great Steppe or the Steppes. It stretches through Hungary, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, Ukraine, Western Russia, Siberia, Kazakhstan, Xinjiang, Mongolia and Manchuria.

The highest level of decision makers or policy makers performs quinary activities. These are subtly different from the knowledge-based industries that the quinary sector in general deals with. Quinary activities are the services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas, data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. Often referred to as the ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another sub-division of the tertiary sector, representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.

• Certiorari: In the literal sense, it means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court, or tribunal, either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case. It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike Prohibition, which is only preventive, Certiorari is both preventive, as well as curative. Previously, the Writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the Writ of Certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of the individuals. Like Prohibition, Certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
• Quo-Warranto: In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The Writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in the cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four Writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

The executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled Areas therein. But, the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the President regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the President. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area, or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. He can also make regulations for the peace and good government of a Scheduled Area after consulting the Tribes Advisory Council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among the members of the Scheduled Tribes, regulate the allotment of land to the members of the Scheduled Tribes and regulate the business of money-lending in relation to the Scheduled Tribes. Also, a regulation may repeal or amend any Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature, which is applicable to a Scheduled Area. But, all such regulations require the assent of the President.

Gram Sabha: The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act (1992) provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a body consisting of the persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village, comprised within the area of the Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a Panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of the state determines.

The Constitution states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India, except under appropriation made by law’. Accordingly, an Appropriation Bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated Fund of India, all money required to meet:
(a) The grants voted by the Lok Sabha.
(b) The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

No such amendment can be proposed to the Appropriation Bill in either House of the Parliament that will have the effect of varying the amount or altering the destination of any grant voted, or of varying the amount of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it is assented to by the President. This Act authorises (or legalises) the payments from the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that the government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. This takes time and usually goes on till the end of April. But the government needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31 March (the end of the financial year). To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution has authorised the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending the completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. This provision is known as the ‘Vote on Account’. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on the budget is over. It is generally granted for 2 months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation.

• The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when the Legislative Assembly (in case of a unicameral legislature) is not in session or (in case of a bi-cameral legislature), when both the Houses of the State Legislature are not in session or when either of the two Houses of the State Legislature is not in session.
• The last provision implies that an ordinance can be promulgated by the Governor when only one House (in case of a bicameral legislature) is in session, because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
• The ordinance making power of a Governor is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister.

Imposition of the President’s Rule under Article 356 DOES NOT lead to the suspension of Articles 19, 20 and 21 in the respective state. Rather, the Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency under Article 352, except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the 6 rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the grounds of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency). The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on 2 grounds–one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:

• Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the President can act either on a report of the Governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the Governor’s report).
• Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Consequences of the President’s Rule: The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:

• The President can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the Governor or any other executive authority in the state.
• The President can declare that the powers of the State Legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state. A law made so by the Parliament continues to be operative even after the President’s Rule. This means that the period for which such a law remains in force is not coterminous with the duration of the President’s Rule. But, such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the State Legislature.
• The President can take all other necessary steps, including the suspension of the Constitutional Provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state. Therefore, when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The State Governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the Chief Secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state.

The glaciers in the Indian Himalayas are divided in three geographical parts, commonly known as the western, central and eastern Himalayas. There are about 15,000 glaciers in the Himalayas. Some of the important glaciers include:

• The Siachen in Jammu and Kashmir (18,000ft.) near the Karakoram Pass is the longest glacier in the Indian Himalayas. It is 78km long and the source for the Nubra River that waters the Nubra Valley near Leh in the Trans Himalayas. The waters of the Nubra drain into the Shyok River and then into the Indus.
• River Yamuna has its origin in the Bandarpunch glacier just above Yamunotri. Bandarpunch is located at the western edge of the High Himalayan Range. It is part of the Sankari Range and lies within the Govind Pashu Vihar National Park and Sanctuary. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Bara-Sigri glacier which is the second-longest glacier in Himalaya after Gangotri is located in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul. The glacier feeds the Chenab River.
• Milam and Gangotri are the major glaciers in the state of Uttarakhand. Milam is situated in the Kumaon Himalayas, originating from the eastern slopes of the Trishuli. The river Gori Ganga has its source here. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• The 30-km long Gangotri glacier located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand is the primary source for the holy Ganga. Gomukh is the snout of the Gangotri glacier and it is from here that the Bhagirathi, one of the important streams of the Ganges, flows down to the temple town of Gangotri and beyond.
• The river Mandakini, which is the most important river coming down from the slopes of Kedarnath peak, joins the Alaknanda at Rudraprayag. The river actually originates from the springs fed by melting snow of Charabari glacier about one km above Kedarnath temple. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The Zemu glacier is the largest in the Eastern Himalayas in Sikkim. It is at the base of the Kanchendzonga and is one of the sources for the Teesta that joins the Brahmaputra. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

• The financial account measures transactions involving financial assets and liabilities between residents and non-residents. It includes items such as direct investment, portfolio investment, financial derivatives, and other investments. While it reflects changes in ownership of international assets, it does not solely measure current ownership. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Investment in securities and commodities indeed forms a component of the financial account under the Balance of Payments. This includes purchases and sales of stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments, as well as transactions related to commodities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Increase in foreign ownership of domestic assets, such as when a foreign entity buys shares of a domestic company or invests in real estate in the domestic market, contributes to the financial account. So, statement 3 is also correct.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making option (b) the correct choice.

• Servants of India Society was formed in 1905, by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, to unite and train Indians of different ethnicities and religions in welfare work. It was the first secular organization in that country to devote itself to the underprivileged, rural and tribal people, emergency relief work, the increase of literacy, and other social causes. During the Swadeshi movement emphasis was given on self-reliance or  ̳Atmasakti‘ as a necessary part of the struggle against the British rule.
• In the pursuit of the same many institutions for education sprang up all over the country within a short period of time. In August 1906, the National Council of Education was established. It consisted of distinguished persons of the country with a definite objective of organising education on national lines with chief medium of instruction as vernaculars. In 1907, Congress session was held in Surat at the banks of river Tapi. The President of this session was Rash Behari Bose.
• At this session the gradual widening of the differences between the extremists and the moderates which was rising during the Swadeshi Movement culminated into a split of congress between the two. In 1908, in Muzaffarpur, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage which they presumed was carrying and anti-Indian judge, Kingsford. The conspiracy at Muzaffarpur resulted into the death of two innocent English woman instead. He shot himself dead while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Under Article 351, the Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language so that it may become the lingua franca of the composite culture of India. The Centre is directed to secure the enrichment of Hindi by assimilating the forms, style, and expressions used in Hindustani and in other languages specified in the Eighth Schedule and by drawing its vocabulary, primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages. At present, the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies 22 languages (originally 14 languages). These are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967;
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and
• Bodo, Dongri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Hence statement 2 is not correct.