UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 10 - UPSC MCQ

• The State government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once every five years. So, statement 1 is not correct.

• This Commission would examine the financial position of the local government bodies in the State. It would also review the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other. This innovation ensures that allocating funds to the rural and urban local bodies will not be a political matter. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Union List: Union Legislature alone can make laws on these matters. It includes subjects like:

• Defense

• Atomic Energy

• Foreign Affairs

• War and Peace

• Banking

• Railways

• Post and Telegraph

• Airways

• Ports

• Foreign Trade

• Currency & Coinage

State List: Normally only the State Legislature can make laws on these matters. It includes subjects like:

• Agriculture

• Police

• Prison

• Local Government

• Public Heath

• Land

• Liquor

• Trade and Commerce

• Livestock and Animal Husbandry

• State Public Services

Concurrent List: Both the Union and State Legislature alone can make laws on these matters. It includes subjects like:

• Education

• Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land

• Forests

• Trade Unions

• Adulteration

• Adoption and Succession

Residuary Powers: Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters. It includes all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. Example: Cyber Laws

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

Powers of High Court:

• Can hear appeals from lower courts.

• Can issue writs for restoring Fundamental Rights. So, statement 1 is not correct.

• Can deal with cases within the jurisdiction of the State.

• Exercises superintendence and control over courts below it.

The Supreme Court of India possesses advisory jurisdiction. This means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of the Constitution to the Supreme Court for advice. However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters, and the President is not bound to accept such advice. High Courts do not have advisory jurisdiction. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is b.

This ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways:

• It has set specific limits to the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution;

• It allows the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution (within this limitation); and

• It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure.

• Kesavananda Bharti's case implied that the Parliament could only amend the Constitution and not rewrite it.

• The power to amend is not a power to destroy. Hence, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• The Supreme Court upholds the harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in the Minerva Mills case. So, the Basic structure doctrine also applies to the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, statement (2) is also not correct.

Therefore, the answer is d.

• Article 30 (1): All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• Recently in the VlA Pai Foundation case, the Supreme Court held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the "national interest" to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to "achieve excellence in education."

• It said Article 30(1) (right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice) was neither absolute nor above the law. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is d.

• Based on various unitary features of the Indian constitution, some political scholars have called Indian federalism 'Quasi-federal' that is a federal arrangement with strong unitary bias. Replying to critics of the Constitution, Ivor Jennings has described it as a "federation with a strong centralizing tendency," and Granville Austin called the Indian federalism a "cooperative federalism."

• Similarly, Supreme Court has reinstated the federal character of the Indian Constitution in SR Bommai case judgment by declaring federalism as part of the 'Basic Structure.' The fact that under the scheme of our Constitution, greater power is conferred upon the Centre vis-a-vis the States does not mean that the States are mere appendages of the Centre. The States have an independent constitutional existence.

• The fact that during an emergency and in certain other eventualities, their powers are overridden is not destructive of the essential federal feature of the Constitution. They are exceptions, and the exceptions are not a rule. So, statement (1) is correct.

According to Pratap Bhanu Mehta, the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit:

• Territorial disputes between States, for example, between Maharashtra and Karnataka over Belgaum; " Disputes between States over sharing of river water, for example, between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over Cauvery Water;

• The emergence of regional parties and their coming to power in States like Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc. So, statement (2) is correct;

• The creation of new States to fulfill the regional aspirations, for example, Mizorarn or recently Jharkhand, etc. So, statement (3) is correct;

• The demand of the States for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs;

• Federalism is a system of Government in which States or Provinces share power with a national government. Cooperative federalism refers to a concept where various States cooperate amongst themselves and with the Centre to achieve growth, development of the States and the nation. Article 1 defines the Indian federation as a 'union of States' where no State has the right to secede and the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the States. So, statement d is correct.

• In India, there is an unequal division of power between the Centre and the States as provided under the Seventh Schedule, Emergency Provisions, etc. So, statement a is not correct.

• It is not a result of an agreement among the States like the US Federal system. Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919, which separated powers between the Centre and the provincial legislatures. So, statement b is not correct.

• In coming together as a Federation, independent (and not dependent) States come together to form a larger unit. Here, States enjoy more autonomy as compared to the holding together kind of federation. Example: USA, Australia, Switzerland. So, statement c is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is d.

• Secularism is defined as the principle of separation of State from religious institutions. Secularism calls for a doctrine where all religions are given equal status, recognition and support from the State. It can also be defined as a doctrine that promotes the separation of State from religion. Indian Constitution does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the State and gives equal respect to all religions or protects all religions equally. So, statement b is correct.

• Article 25 (2) allows the interference of the state in religious matters for social reforms and welfare. So, statement c is not correct.

• India's secularism is more inclusive and positive. It supports all religions and cultures. Muslims are given Haj subsidy, the State spends and helps arrange Kumbh Mela, Amarnath Yatra, etc. So, statement d is not correct.

• India's model of Secularism is based on the principle of distance model rather than the strict separation of religion and State. So, statement a is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

• The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards-Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri. It ruled that these awards do not amount to 'titles' within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of nobility. Therefore, they are not violative of Article 18 as the theory of equality does not mandate that merit should not be recognized. So, statement (2) is not correct.

• Affirmative action like reservation creates a level playing field and hence promotes equality. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• Extreme poverty goes against the ideals of economic equality. So, statement (4) is correct.

• The rule of equality is not absolute and there is a certain constitutional exception under Article 361, which includes the immunity to foreign sovereigns, ambassadors, diplomats and UNO and its agencies. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore the correct answer is c.

• In 1973, a landmark judgment ensued in the Kesavananda Bharati case, where the SC held that no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament's amending power except the "basic structure of the Constitution". Not all of the Fundamental Rights are part of the 'basic structure doctrine. Rather, on a case to case basis, the courts pronounce the features in the basic structure of the Constitution. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• The Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Constitution of India are not permanent/sacrosanct or have a transcendental position and they can be abolished by the Parliament e.g., the Forty-Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights. So, statement (2) is not correct.

• Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a national emergency under Articles 358 and 359 of the Constitution. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

• The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a State or Union Territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that State or Union Territory, or local authority or other authority within that State or Union Territory.

• The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the State can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a State may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. So, Statement (4) is not correct.

• Like the Canadian Constitution, the India Constitution has introduced the system of single citizenship, and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) to the people of India. It is to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian nation. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

To remove any such difficulty, the Constitution contains the 'Full Faith and Credit' clause, which lays down the following:

• Full faith and credit is to be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Centre and every State. So, Statement (1) is correct.

• The manner in which and the conditions under which such acts, records and proceedings are to be proved and their effect determined would be as provided by the laws of Parliament. Final judgments and orders of civil courts in any part of India can execute anywhere within India. The rule applies only to civil judgments and not to criminal judgments. in other words. it does not require the courts of a State to enforce the penal laws of another State. So, Statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• In the scheme of the parliamentary system of Government provided by the Constitution, the Governor is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive), and the Chief Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). So statement (2) is not correct.

• Article 164 only says that the Governor shall appoint the Chief Minister and the Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of the State Legislature. So statement (1) is not correct.

• The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and she holds office during the Governor's pleasure. However, this does not mean that the Governor can dismiss them at any time. So statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

• Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation Ltd (TRIFED), Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India has launched two interesting competitions, Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India and Be a 'Friend' of TRIBES INDIA Contest in association with My Gov.in, the citizen-government engagement platform.

• These competitions have been launched with the sole objective of promoting tribal craft, culture and lifestyle. Through these innovative contests, awareness about tribal heritage, arts, crafts can be enhanced among the general public. With more knowledge and awareness about tribal heritage, it is hoped that citizens will also contribute to overall tribal empowerment by purchasing more tribal products.

• "Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India" is inviting stories featuring any tribal product (s) from customers across the country. The stories should highlight his/ her experience in using the product and provide details of the product and the place/ shop from where it was purchased. The requirement is that the stories are short videos ranging from 30 seconds to 5 minutes. So, only option c is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• To ensure national security by providing ease of investigation to Indian law enforcement agencies as they currently need to rely on Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) to obtain access to data. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• MLATs are agreements between governments that facilitate the exchange of information relevant to an investigation happening in at least one of those countries. India has signed a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT) with 45 countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) has been approved for the next four years, starting from 2021-22. It will be implemented with effect from 1st April 2021.

• It aims to provide financial assistance to startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialization. So, statement (1) is correct.

• Rs. 945 Crores corpus will be divided over the next four years for providing seed funding to eligible startups through eligible incubators across India. The scheme is expected to support about 3600 startups.

• Nodal Department: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. So, statement (2) is correct. " The SISFS will Secure seed funding, Inspire innovation, Support transformative ideas, Facilitate implementation, and Start a startup revolution.

• The Scheme will create a robust startup ecosystem, particularly in Tier 2 and Tier 3 towns of India, which are often deprived of adequate funding.

Therefore, the correct answer is d.

• Compulsory Licensing allows governments to license third parties (that is, parties other than the patent holders) to produce and market a patented product or process without the consent of patent owners.

• The demand for compulsory licenses for the manufacture of an affordable generic version of Remdesivir has been raised. Chapter XVI of the Indian Patents Act 1970 and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights discuss compulsory licensing. So, statement (1) is correct.

• Any time after three years from the date of sealing of a patent, an application for the compulsory license can be made, provided: " Reasonable requirements of the public have not been satisfied;

• The patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price.

• Recently, government has set up ‘Indian Biological Data centre’ at the Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB), Faridabad. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Indian Biological Data Centre is the first national repository for life science data in India, where the data will not only be submitted from across India but can be accessed by researchers from across India, Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The data would not be made accessible freely. It can only be accessed through prior permission through IBDC from the original data submitter. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• It will reduce the dependency of Indian researchers on American and European data banks. It will not only provide a platform to researchers to securely store their data within the country, but it will also provide access to a large database of indigenous sequences for analyses. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Quantum Technology is based on the principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and matter on the atomic and subatomic levels.

• It concerns the control and manipulation of quantum systems to achieve information processing beyond the limits of the classical world. Its principles will be used to solve extremely complex problems in computing, communications, sensing, chemistry, cryptography, imaging and mechanics.

• This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases. The mission wi!I function under the Department of Science & Technology (DST). It will address the ever- increasing technological requirements of society and take into account the international technology trends.

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

• The Bhils tribal community became bonded labour at the hands of the rulers of the princely states (Rajasthan and Gujarat) and the British. The great famine of 1899-1900 across the Deccan killed over six lakh people.

• Mobilised and trained by social activist Guru Govindgiri, also known as Govind Guru, the Bhils placed a charter of 33 demands before the British by 1910 primarily relating to forced labour, high tax imposed on Bhils and harassment of the guru’s followers by the British and rulers of princely states.

• The Bhils rejected the British’s attempt to placate them and refused to leave Mangarh Hill, vowing to declare freedom from British rule. The British then asked the Bhils to leave Mangarh Hill before 15 November 1913. But that didn’t happen and on 17 November 1913, the British Indian Army fired indiscriminately on Bhil protesters and it is said that over 1,500 people, including women and children died in the tragedy. The Mangrah hillock, situated at the Gujarat-Rajasthan border, is also known as the Adivasi Jallianwala.

Hence, option a is correct.

• The Union Minister of Education has launched Nano Sniffer, the world's first Micro sensor-based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD). It is developed by Nano Sniff Technologies and an IIT Bombay incubated startup. So, statement (1) is correct.

• Nano Sniffer is a 100% Made in india product in terms of research, development & manufacturing. It can detect explosives in less than 10 seconds and it also identifies and categorizes explosives into different classes. It detects all classes of military, conventional and homemade explosives. It gives visible & audible alerts with a sunlight-readable colour display. So, statement (2) is correct.

• Nano Sniffer provides trace detection of the nano-gram quantity of explosives & delivers results in seconds. It can accurately detect a wide range of military, commercial and homemade explosives threats. Further analysis of the algorithms also helps in the categorization of explosives into the appropriate class.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• A rare disease is a disease that affects a smaller percentage of the population compared to other diseases and its prevalence is very low. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• Delhi High Court directed the Centre to set up a Rare Diseases Committee, a Rare Diseases Fund, and finalize and notify the National Health Policy for Rare Diseases on or before 31st March 2021. Hence, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has approved the National Rare Disease Policy 2021.

Aim of the policy:

• To increase focus on indigenous research and local production of medicines.

• To lower the cost of treatment of rare diseases.

• To screen and detect rare diseases early at early stages, which will in turn help in their prevention.

The policy has categorized rare diseases into three groups:

• Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment.

• Group 2: Those requiring long-term or lifelong treatment.

• Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available, but challenges are to make an optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Centers of Excellence:

• The policy aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities to prevent and treat rare diseases by designating eight health facilities as 'Centers of Excellence.' These will also be provided one-time financial support of up to Rs. 5 crores for up-gradation of diagnostics facilities. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Following is the list of toxic metal exposure found:

• Beryllium

• Cadmium

• Chromium

• Cobalt

• Indium

• Lead

• Mercury

• Vanadium

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

• Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) is a scheme for making model residential schools for STs across India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It is being implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The aim of the scheme to build schools at par with the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas and Kendriya Vidyalayas with focus on special state-of-the-art facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development. The EMR School follows the CBSE curriculum.

• National Press Day is celebrated across India every year on 16th November to commemorate the setting up of the Press Council of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It was first set up in 1966 under the Indian Press Council Act, 1965, on the recommendations of the first Press Commission, with the two-fold objective of preserving the freedom of the press by maintaining and improving the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• As a quasi-judicial autonomous authority, it was reestablished in the year 1979 under an Act of Parliament, Press Council Act, 1978. The Press Council of India is the only body to exercise an authority even over the instruments of the State in its duty to safeguard the independence of the press.

• Quasar: A quasar is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN), in which a supermassive black hole with mass ranging from millions to billions of times the mass of the Sun is surrounded by a gaseous accretion disk. So, statement 1 is correct.

• Constellation: A constellation is a group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture like Orion the Great Hunter, Leo the Lion, or Taurus the Bull. Constellations are easily recognizable patterns that help people orient themselves using the night sky. There are 88 "official" constellations. So, statement 2 is correct.

• A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star and other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is d.

• The objective of EGoS is to provide investment support to global investors by bringing synergies and ensure timely clearances from different departments and Ministries. So, statement (2) is correct.

• Its chairperson is the Cabinet Secretary with the CEO of NITI Aayog and secretaries of other departments as the members. So, Statement (1) is correct. A 'Project Development Cell' (PDC) was also set up to develop investible projects in coordination between the Central Government and State Governments and thereby grew the pipeline of investible projects in India and, in turn, increases FDI inflows.

Its objectives are:

• To create projects with all approvals, land available for allocation, and complete Detailed Project Reports for adoption/investment by investors. So statement (3) is not correct.

• To identify issues that need to be resolved to attract and finalize the investments and put forth these before the Empowered Group.

Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• A Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency — which, in the case of India, is the rupee. The RBI allowed nine such accounts, including IndusInd Bank and Uco Bank. Vostro accounts enable domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs. Vostro account services include executing wire transfers, performing foreign exchange transactions, enabling deposits and withdrawals, and expediting international trade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed the opening of nine special Vostro accounts in two Indian Banks (UCO Bank and IndusInd Bank) for the settlement of payments in rupees for trade between India and Russia. Russia’s two largest banks — Sberbank and VTB Bank — are the first foreign lenders to have received approval from the RBI towards settling international trade transactions in rupee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.