UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - UPSC MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct: Land revenue known as Sist, was the principal source of income of the Vijayanagar State. It had an efficient system of land revenue administration. To meet the heavy burden of the State and solve the problem of obtaining men and money to withstand its enemies, the Vijayanagar emperors including Krishan Deva gave up the traditional rate of assessments at one-sixth of the produce and increased it to some extent. Krishna Deva’s land revenue system was based on the “principle of differential taxation”, that is, levied taxes according to the relative fertility or quality of the lands. For this he conducted the survey of land in his empire and then decided the taxes according the fertility of land. Besides the land taxes, the ryots had to pay other kinds of taxes like grazing tax, marriage tax etc.

• Statement 2 is correct: Besides land-tax, many professional and industrial taxes were also imposed. These were on shopkeepers, farm-servants, shepherds, washermen, potters, shoemakers, barbers, prostitutes, musicians, Manufacturers and craftsmen, etc. There was also tax on property. Other source of income of the State were the revenue from customs duties; tolls on roads, revenue from gardening and plantations; and taxes levied on dealers in goods of common consumption. Taxes were paid both in cash and kind.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim state of the Deccan in Southern India during the medieval era in Indian History. It was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (in 1347), also known as Hasan Gangu, revolting against the Delhi Sultanate of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Hoshang Shah (1406–1435) was the first formally appointed Sultan of the Malwa Sultanate of Central India.

• Statement 2 is correct: There were constant conflicts between the Vijayanagar kingdom and the Bahmani Sultanate as their interests clashed in three separate and distinct areas:

  • Over the control of the Raichur doab

  • The Krishna–Godavari basin

  • Over the Marathwada region

• Option a is incorrect: The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an intergovernmental military alliance between 30 member states – 28 European countries and two North American countries (United States of America and Canada). NATO had deployed troops along Eastern Europe and economic sanctions on Russia to deter Russian aggression against Ukraine. The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)” is not related to these sanctions.

• Option b is correct: Recently, the US imposed sanctions against a Mumbai based petrochemical company, Tibalaji Petrochem Pvt Ltd. as it was accused of selling Iranian petroleum products. It is the first Indian entity to face the US designation under unilateral sanctions passed in 2018-19, after the US walked out of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA). The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) commonly known as the Iran nuclear deal is an agreement on the Iranian nuclear program reached in 2015, between Iran and the P5 countries (China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States) plus Germany together with the European Union. The main motive of this agreement is to prevent Iran from producing nuclear weapons. However, in 2018 the Trump administration unilaterally pulled the U.S. out of this agreement. Recently, The U.S. and Iran have also exchanged their stands indirectly via the European Union for a “final draft” on re-joining the JCPOA.

• Option c is incorrect: In 2022, the 12th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) was held in Geneva, Switzerland. This conference (and not JCPOA) agreed to setting limits on harmful fishing subsidies. Also, the conference agreed to give a temporary waiver on Covid-19 vaccines.

• Option d is incorrect: Sharm el-Sheikh Implementation Plan (and not JCPOA) adopted at Conference of Parties (COP27) is an implementation plan to achieve climate goals adopted under the Paris climate change conference. It highlights that a global transformation to a low-carbon economy is expected to require investments of at least US$ 4-6 trillion a year.

The designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for Village headmen. Mahattara refers to “representatives of towns or villages” and was a title used in the administration during the rule of the Silahara dynasty (765-1215 AD.) Paṭṭakila also refers to village headman.

Much of the history of Kashmir is deduced from the legendary and historical chronicle Rajatarangini (which means ‘the river of kings’). It was probably written in 12th century CE in Sanskrit by a Kashmiri Brahmana called Kalhana.

• Option 1 is correct: In early 7th century, the Karkota dynasty rulers established their rule in Kashmir. The dynasty marked the rise of Kashmir as a power in Central Asia and Northern India. The Karkota dynasty (c. 625−855 CE) was founded by Durlabhvardhana during the lifetime of the Pushyabhuti king, Harshavardhana. The Karkota emperors were primarily Hindu, who have been known for building spectacular Hindu temples in their capital, Parihaspur.

• Option 2 is correct: Yashaskara dynasty belogs to the kingdom of Kashmir. It was established after the Utpala dynasty. It was ruled by Queen Didda (c.958 – 1003 CE).

• Option 3 is incorrect: The Haryanka dynasty was the third ruling dynasty of Magadha, an empire of ancient India, which succeeded the Pradyota dynasty and Barhadratha dynasty.

• Option 4 is correct: From the 8th to 10th century CE, the Kashmir region was ruled over by the Hindu Utpala dynasty. The kingdom was established by Avanti Varman, ending the rule of the Karkota dynasty in 855 CE.

The state of Chedi was situated between the Narmada and Godavari rivers, and was ruled by the Kalachuri dynasty. Like the Chandellas, the Kalachuris of Chedi (also known as the Kalachuris of Tripuri) were formerly subordinate to the Pratiharas, but around the middle of the 10th century CE, they asserted their independence. They ruled the historical Chedi region (also known as Dahala-mandala) with their capital at Tripuri, near modern Jabalpur, MP.

• Option a is incorrect: King Bhoja was an important ruler from the Paramara dynasty.

• Option b is incorrect: Nannuka (831-845 CE) was the founder of the Chandela dynasty, which ruled in the Jejakabhukti region (Bundelkhand in Madhya Pradesh).

• Option c is incorrect: Nagabhata I (730 – 760 CE) was the founder of the imperial Gurjara Pratihara dynasty.

• Option d is correct: Gangeya-deva (1015–41 CE) was one of the most important rulers of the Kalachuri dynasty, who, due to his military genius, made the Chedis one of the greatest political powers in India at the time. As a token of his great victory, he assumed the proud title of Trikalingadhipati (the Lord of Trikalinga). He also assumed the title of Vikramaditya. Some historians believe that an important factor in his success was the fact that his kingdom escaped the devastating raids of Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, which affected most of the other great powers to its north and north-west. Hence, option d is correct.

Recently, Indian Antarctic Act, 2022 has been passed. Its key objectives include having India’s own national measures for protecting Antarctic environment, ensuring de-militarization of the region, getting rid of mining or illegal activities, management of growing Antarctic tourism and sustainable development of fisheries.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Antarctic Act, 2022 is applicable on Indian citizens, citizens of foreign countries and a vessel or aircraft registered in India or outside India. It is also applicable on a company, body corporate, corporation, partnership firm, joint venture, an association of persons or any other entity incorporated, established or registered as such under any law in force in India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: In general, drilling, dredging, excavating, collecting samples etc. of mineral resources is not allowed. However, permission can be granted for these activities for the purposes of scientific research or construction, repair and maintenance of an Indian station or any other structure. Hence, permit is required.

• Statement 3 is correct: Any person who intends to go to Antarctica for the purpose of commercial fishing shall apply for a permit to the appropriate authority.

Knowledge Base:

Other important provisions of the Act:

• Background: To give effect to the provisions of Antarctic Treaty, the Protocol on Environment Protection (Madrid Protocol) to the Antarctic Treaty and to the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources. India acceded to Antarctic Treaty system in 1983.

• Central Government shall establish a Committee on Antarctic Governance and Environmental Protection. This committee shall be chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Earth Sciences.

• This committee shall establish a waste classification system and waste management plans.

Important Facts about Antarctica:

• It is the southernmost continent, fifth largest in area and contains the geographic South Pole.

• It is mostly uninhabited, except approximately 40 permanent stations established by several countries. Maitri and Bharti are India’s research stations on the continent.

• Native species of animals include mites, nematodes, penguins, seals and tardigrades etc. Vegetation occurs, mostly, in the form of lichens and moss.

The Solanki Rajputs are also known as the Chalukya family of Gujarat, which was different from the earlier Chalukyan dynasty of Badami. It ruled parts of Gujarat and Kathiawar between 10th century AD and 13th century AD.

• Option 1 is incorrect: Qutab-ud-din Aibak (1150 – 1210 CE) was the contemporary of Bhima II (1178–1240 CE). He was not the contemporary of Bhima I (1022–1064 CE).

• Option 2 is correct: Bhima I built the Sun temple of Modhera (Mehsana, Gujarat). Modhera Sun Temple was built in 1026-27 CE. This historical complex contains a huge kund known as the Ramakund, built in rectangular shape containing 108 shrines to various gods and demi-gods.

• Option 3 is incorrect: Bhima-I’s wife Udaymati built the Rani-ki vav (Queen’s step well) in his memory, which is on the list of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. This stepwell situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat, India. It is located on the banks of the Saraswati River.

Muhammad Ghori (c.1173–1206 CE) was the Real founder of the Islamic empire in India. The battles of Tarain and Chandwar laid the foundations of Turkish rule in Northern India.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad Ghori was defeated by Prithivaraja Chauhan, a Rajput ruler in the areas surrounding Delhi, in the first battle fought at Tarain (c.1191 CE). Ghori’s army was defeated badly and he narrowly escaped death. Prithviraj conquered Bhatinda. However, in 1192 CE, Muhammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the Second Battle of Tarain, and subsequently executed him.

• Statement 2 is correct: In the Battle of Chandwar (c.1194 CE), Ghori defeated Jaichandra- the ruler of Kannauj (Gahadavalas Dynasty). After this invasion, Qutab- ud-din Aibak was made the viceroy of Muhammad Ghori.

Davos summit 2022 was convened by the World Economic Forum (WEF). The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss non-profit foundation established in 1971, based in Geneva, Switzerland.

• Statement 1 is correct: World Economic Forum in its 2022 summit at Davos announced a new initiative called Defining and Building the Metaverse. This initiative brings together key stakeholders to build an economically viable, interoperable, safe, and inclusive of metaverse. Different research suggests that the metaverse is expected to grow into an $800 billion market by 2024.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian launched a Mission LiFE at the COP26 summit in Glasgow in 2021. In the Davos summit Indian Prime Minister urged that Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) is useful for fighting climate challenges and he also urged the world to launch a people's movement with "3 Ps" — "Pro Planet People" to bring behavioural change among people to fight climate change.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The World Health Organisation formed a One Health Initiative to integrate work on human, animal and environmental health across the Organization. The Indian Prime Minister highlighted India’s role as pharma producer during Covid times and he asserted that India followed a vision of One Earth, One Health which saved crores of lives by giving essential medicines and vaccines to many countries. Thus, one health Initiative was not proposed by India.

Option b is correct: The Fanam coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam.

The Lodhis (1451-1526) were the last ruling family of the Sultanate period. Three rulers of Lodhi dynasty were Bahlul Lodhi(founder), Sikander Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi. In 1526, Babur marched against Delhi and defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodhi in the first Battle of Panipat.

• Statement 1 is correct: Lodhis were the first Afghan rulers of Delhi sultanate. They were earlier ruling over Sirhind at the time of sayyids.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Sikander Lodhi re-imposed Jaziya on non-Muslims. He showed little tolerance towards the non-Muslims. He destroyed many Hindu temples and imposed many restrictions on the Hindus.

• Statement 3 is correct: Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517) was the greatest of the three Lodi sovereigns. He was a good administrator. Roads were laid and many irrigational facilities were provided for the benefit of the peasantry.

• Statement 4 is correct: Sultan Sikandar Lodi of the Delhi Sultanate, founded Agra in the year 1504.

Explantion: Option c is the correct answer.

The Delhi Sultanate rule was significant in India as it resulted in far-reaching changes in the Indian society, administration and cultural life.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Persian language was introduced in India during the period of Ghaznavi rule in the Punjab in 11th century. Persian literature written in India before the establishment of the Delhi sultanate adopted literary forms and imagery which were prevalent in Iran. It was after the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate that Indian influence began to exert itself on Persian works written in India. Amir Khusrau created a new style of Persian which came to be known as sabaq-i Hindi or the Indian style.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: During Delhi sultanate period, there was no quantitative decline in the production of Sanskrit literary work. Sanskrit lost the patronage of the new Persian speaking ruling class but the Sultanate did not interfere with the independent production of Sanskrit literary works. The introduction of paper during the Sultanate period gave impetus to the literary activity of reproduction and dissemination of already existing Sanskrit texts such as the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

• Statement 3 is correct: New musical instruments such as the sarangi and the rabab were introduced during Delhi Sultanate period. Amir Khusrau also introduced many new ragas such as Ghora and Sanam. He evolved a new style of light music known as qawwalis by blending the Hindu and Iranian systems.

Saint Kabir Das (1440-1518) was a very renowned saint, poet and social reformer of India who lived during the 15th century. Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was the founder and first Guru of Sikhism, was born in the year 1469, in the village of Talwandi which is located in the Punjab.

• Option a is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak were against the practise of idol worship. Guru Nanak held that instead of putting our faith in the almighty who is omnipresent we are putting our faith in some statue. Kabir worshipped the Nirguna (without form) God whom he calls by several names such as Rama, Allah, Hari, Sain, Sahib, etc.

• Option b is incorrect: The Bhakti movement promoted the growth of vernacular language and literature in different parts of the country. Kabir, Nanak and Chaitanya preached in their respective vernacular tongues– Kabir in Hindi, Nanak in Gurmukhi and Chaitanya in Bengali. So subsequent Bhakti literatures were compiled in these languages and many Muslim writers also translated Sanskrit works into regional languages.

• Option c is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak subscribed to the idea of nonviolence. However, Sikhism under its sixth Guru Hargobind began its transformation from a peaceful community to warrior community.

• Option d is correct: The Guru Granth Sahib incorporates the teachings of both Kabir and Guru Nanak. It incorporates the writings of many Bhakti poets and Sufi saints such as Ramananda, Namadeva, Kabir and Sheikh Farid. While Adi Granth is the teachings of Guru Nanak.

The Mughal Empire was an empire that controlled much of India between the 16th and 19th centuries. Its impact on Indian society is manifold.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Despite the popular Bhakti movement raising the banner of revolt against discrimination, the deprived and disadvantaged classes, who were landless peasants, were subject to forced labour. The caste system remained a dominant institution in the society. Castes at lower levels were subject to much repression.

• Statement 2 is correct: Under Mughal rule, both the Hindu women and Muslim women had only limited right of inheritance. Though they had the right to inherit property, it was not equal to the share of the male members of the family.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Mughal rule, Afghans, Indian Muslims (shaikhzadas), Rajputs and Marathas also obtained the status of nobility. It is estimated that during the reign of Akbar over 15% of the nobility consisted of Rajputs. However, most of the nobles came from Central Asia and Iran.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: Mughal administration discouraged the practice of sati that was prevalent among communities of the higher caste. For instance, Emperor Humayun took a bold step against sati and tried to eradicate it. Akbar also endeavoured to prevent forceful “Sati” in his kingdom.

The Bucharest Nine (B9) is a group of nine NATO countries in Eastern Europe that became part of the US-led military alliance after the end of the Cold War. Member countries of Bucharest Nine are Romania, Poland, Hungary, Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: All members of the Bucharest Nine are part of the European Union (EU) and North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO). The B9 countries have been critical of President Vladimir Putin’s aggression against Ukraine since 2014, when Russia annexed the Crimean Peninsula. Hence B9 are not allies of Russia.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Recently, the Bucharest Nine (B 9) rejected the Russian claim about the eastward “expansion” of North-Atlantic Treaty Alliance organisation (NATO). They underlined that NATO is not an organisation that “expanded” to the east”, rather, these countries as the independent European states have decided on their own to go west i.e., to align with United States of America and NATO.

The role of Delhi Sultanate was significant in India as it resulted in far-reaching changes in the Indian society, administration and cultural life.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Muslim nobles occupied high offices and very rarely the Hindu nobles were given high position in the government. The Hindus were considered zimmis or protected people, for which they were forced to pay a tax called Jaziya.

• Statement 2 is correct: Turkish women under the Sultanate seem to have enjoyed a relative measure of freedom than the women in many indigenous communities. It was because most of the local communities were ridden with several social injunctions for women.

• Statement 3 is correct: Slaves were allowed to marry and can own some personal property under Delhi sultanate. Condition of slaves was better than the domestic servant. The master of slave was obliged to provide him food and shelter, while a free person may starve to death.

Shivaji (1627–1680) was born in Shivneri near Junnar and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha clan. Shivaji began his military career at the age of nineteen. In 1646, he captured the fortress of Torna from the Sultan of Bijapur.

• Option 1 is correct: Tukaram was born in 1608 in a village near Poona, Maharashtra. He was a contemporary of Maratha King Shivaji (1627-80) and saint Ramdas. He wrote and sung devotional songs in praise of his favourite deity Lord Vithoba of Pandharpur. He rejected Vedic sacrifices, ceremonies, pilgrimages, idol worship, etc. He spread the message of equality and brotherhood. He tried to foster Hindu-Muslim Unity.

• Option 2 is correct: Saint Ramdas (AD 1608 - c. 1681), also known as Samarth Ramdas was an Indian Hindu saint, philosopher, poet, writer and spiritual master. He was a devotee of the Hindu deities Rama and Hanuman. Ramdas was regarded by Shivaji as his guru.

• Option 3 is incorrect: Chaitanya (1485–1533) is not a contemporary of Shivaji. Chaitanya was a devotee of Lord Krishna and he started a revivalist movement which tried to show Krishna as superior to all gods. He popularised the practice of group devotional singing accompanied by ecstatic dancing. His movement became popular in Bengal and Orissa.

• Option 4 is incorrect: Jana Bai belonged to 13th – 14th century (thus not contemporary of Shivaji). She was a follower of Namdev and a shudra poetess of Ganga Kheda who composed more than 350 poems (abhangas).

• Option 5 is incorrect: Eknath belonged to 1533- 1599 AD (thus not contemporary of Shivaji). Sant Eknath of Paithan on the other hand was known for his Chatuhshloki Bhagvat, Eknathi Bhagvat, Bhavarth Ramayan and Rakmini Svayamvar.

The year 2022 marks the 5th anniversary of India-UN Development Partnership Fund.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The fund was established (in 2017), supported and led by the Government of India and implemented in collaboration with the UN Systems.

  • Its key objectives are:

  • Promote multilateralism and shared prosperity in global South. (South-South Cooperation)

  • The Fund supports Southern-owned and -led, demand-driven and transformational sustainable development projects across the developing world, with a focus on least developed countries and Small Island developing States.

  • Its thematic reach spans all 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

  • The Government of India has committed USD150 million over 10 years to the India-UN Fund.

• Statement 2 is correct: One of the key objectives of the fund is to promote multilateralism and shared prosperity in the global South.

• Statement 3 is correct: UNICEF, UNESCO and WHO are among the implementing partners of the Fund.

At the G20 summit, Prime Minister Narendra Modi gifted paintings, silver bowls, and artwork to world leaders. The summit was held in Nusa Dua, Bali, Indonesia in November 2022.

• Pair 1 is correct: Patola is a double ikat woven sari, usually made from silk, made in Patan, Gujarat, India. They are very expensive, once worn only by those belonging to royal and aristocratic families. Patola-weaving is a closely guarded family tradition and it is taught only to the sons. These are highly valued in Indonesia, and became part of the local weaving tradition there.

• Pair 2 is correct: After the decline of the Mughal empire, many artists trained in the Mughal style migrated to the Kangra region in Himachal Pradesh as they got patronage by Raja Govardhan Singh in 1774. Kangra school of painting belongs to the category of Miniature painting and love scenes of Krishna was a very prominent theme of this school.

• Pair 3 is incorrect: Mata ni pacchedi is not a wood carving technique rather it is a free hand painting in the textiles. The original creators of Mata ni Pacchedi (literal meaning - behind the Mother Goddess) are the Vaghari nomads who lived along the edges of the Sabarmati River in Gujarat. These textiles are sacred, wall art pieces that are used as a backdrop for shrines. The designs are made using hand block prints and freehand painting.

• Pair 4 is incorrect: Pithora paintings are wall murals created as offerings to Pithora, the God of food grains. They are only painted by men commonly in the Chhotaudepur area of Gujarat. These simple paintings are traditionally done to seek blessings before a special occasion such as a wedding, the birth of a child or a festival.

In 1724 Nizam ul Mulk established autonomous rule over the Deccan region and started what came to be known as the Asaf Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Nizams of Hyderabad.

• Statement 1 is correct: Nizam ul Mulk never openly declared his independence from the Mughal empire but in practice he acted like an independent ruler. He waged wars and concluded peace without any reference to the empire in Delhi.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is Murshi Quli khan, a ruler of Bengal who transformed the large amount of jagir land into Khalisa land and introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal. Nizam ul Mulk continued to offer jagirs and he tried to get rid of corruption from the revenue system.

• Statement 3 is correct: He followed a policy of religious tolerance towards Hindus. For example, a Hindu Puran Chand was his Dewan. He tried to consolidate his power by establishing an orderly administration in his state.

Option d is correct: The two major business communities in medieval India were the Banjaras (long-distance transporters) and Baniyas (village and town merchants). Banjaras during medieval period trading groups that moved from one place to another in buying and selling goods. The Banjaras combined pastoralism and the carrying trade. Their role in Indian agrarian commerce was extremely important. The basis for the trade and, indeed, for the existence of the Banjaras lay in conditions of inland transport. Goods were carried on boats and carts, and by camels and bullocks. They could travel with their herds over long

distances. They had to move in large groups for safety, and were kept together by strong clan ties and subordination to headmen.

Bihar government has sent a proposal to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to get Cyclopean wall, a more than 2,500 years old structure at Rajgir, listed in the UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Cyclopean Wall of Rajgir is a 40 km long wall of stone which encircled the ancient city of Rajgir to protect it from external enemies and invaders, built before 3rd century BC. The wall is among the oldest examples of cyclopean masonry in the world. It is believed to have been built in the pre-Mauryan era.

The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Türkiye, United Kingdom and United States) and the European Union. The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.

• Statement 1 is correct: The theme of India’s G20 Presidency - Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam or One Earth · One Family · One Future - is drawn from the Maha Upanishad. Essentially, the theme affirms the value of all life – human, animal, plant, and microorganisms and their interconnectedness.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The G20 consists of two parallel tracks: the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The Sherpa side is coordinated by the Sherpas who are personal emissaries of the Leaders. Finance Track is led by Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the member countries.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Stolen asset recovery (StAR) was launched by the World Bank and the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) (not by G20) to facilitate the return of stolen assets and put an end to safe havens for corrupt funds. G20 also works in the area of anti-corruption and Anti-Corruption Working Group (ACWG) established in 2010 and it reports to G20 Leaders on anti-corruption.

• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank whose mission is financing the Infrastructure for Tomorrow—infrastructure with sustainability at its core.

• As a multilateral development bank focused on developing Asia, but with members from all over the world, investments in infrastructure and other productive sectors seek to foster sustainable economic development, create wealth and improve infrastructure connectivity.

• AIIB was founded in 2016 with a significant capital endowment of $100 billion by 57 sovereigns. By the end of 2020, it had 103 approved Members representing approximately 79 percent of the global population and 65 percent of the global GDP. AIIB is headquartered in Beijing, China. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• All powers of the Bank are vested in our Board of Governors, which is the highest decision-making body under the Articles of Agreement. China is the largest shareholder with 26.57% voting shares in the bank, followed by India (7.59%), Russia (5.97%), and Germany (4.15%). Hence statement 2 is correct.

• AIIB is an open and inclusive multilateral financial institution. Our doors are always open to countries and regions dedicated to promoting economic and social development in Asia. Membership in AIIB shall be open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian Development Bank. Any AIIB member can submit a proposal for funding. The Bank can lend to members beyond Asia if the project delivers a clear benefit to the region. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• In 2018, AIIB was granted Permanent Observer status in the deliberations of both the United Nations General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council, the two development-focused principal organs of the global body.

• PM Gati Shakti Plan: Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti National Master Plan is a central government project, aimed to revolutionise infrastructure in India and to bring down logistics costs. Prime minister announced the launch of the Gati Shakti Yojana, Rs 100 lakh-crore project for developing 'holistic infrastructure' in India.

• Gati Shakti is a digital platform that will bring 16 ministries including railways and roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• PM Gati Shakti will incorporate the infrastructure schemes of various Ministries and State Governments like Bharatmala, Sagarmala, inland waterways, dry/land ports, UDAN etc. Economic Zones like textile clusters, pharmaceutical clusters, defence corridors, electronic parks, industrial corridors, fishing clusters, agri zones will be covered to improve connectivity & make Indian businesses more competitive.

• PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan has been developed as a Digital Master Planning tool by BISAG-N (Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geoinformatics) and has been prepared in dynamic Geographic Information System (GIS) platform wherein data on specific action plan of all the Ministries/Departments have been incorporated within a comprehensive database. Dynamic mapping of all infrastructure projects with real- time updation will be provided by way of a map developed by BISAG-N. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The institutional framework for rolling out, implementation, monitoring and support mechanism is designed to have a three-tier system:

  • Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGOs) - An Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) under the Chairmanship of Cabinet Secretary has been constituted for monitoring the Master Plan and for approving any changes in the Master Plan to meet any emerging requirements. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Network Planning Group (NPG): An Integrated Multimodal Network Planning Group (NPG) with heads of Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments is responsible for unified planning and integration of the proposals and assist the EGOS in respect of its mandate.

• Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market importance, and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system. They are perceived as insurers ‘too big or too important to fail’. D-SIIs are subjected to additional regulatory measures to deal with systemic risks and moral hazard issues.

• D-SIIs are identified on an annual basis by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Company Limited have been retained as D-SIIs for 2021-22.

• Requirements for D-SIIs:

  • Public sector insurers are required to raise the level of corporate governance.

  • They are mandated to identify all relevant risks as well as promote a sound risk management culture.

  • They are subjected to enhanced regulatory supervision of the IRDAI.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes without a service fee or economic reform conditions.

• The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing.

• The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche at a short notice before seeking a formal credit tranche.

• Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are 25% of their quota, but this position can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s currency. For any member country, out of the total quota, 25% should be paid in the form of foreign currency or gold. Hence this is called as reserve tranche or gold tranche. The remaining 75% can be in domestic currencies and it is called credit tranche.

• Indian horticulture sector contributes about 33% to the agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA) making very significant contribution to the Indian economy. Apart from ensuring nutritional security of the nation, it provides alternate rural employment opportunities, diversification in farm activities, and enhanced income to farmers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• India is currently producing about 320.48 million tones of horticulture produce which has surpassed the food grain production, that too from much less area (25.66 million Ha. for horticulture against 127.6 M. ha. for food grains). Productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to productivity of food grains (12.49 tones/ha against 2.23 tones/ha.). Hence statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.

• India has emerged as world leader in the production of a variety of fruits like mango, banana, guava, papaya, sapota, pomegranate, Lime & aonla and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables. Besides, India has maintained its dominance in the production of spices, coconut and cashewnut.

• Among the new crops, kiwi, gherkins, kinnow, date palm and oil palm have been successfully introduced for commercial cultivation in the country. Launch of National Horticulture Mission has spurred the production and productivity of horticultural crops.

• Productivity of horticulture crops has increased by about 38.5% between 2004-05 and 2021-22(3rd Advance Estimate). Increase in demand for horticultural produce due to greater health awareness, rising income, export demands and increasing population poses the challenge for further increasing the production and productivity of horticultural crops.

• Experts have pointed out that the Office of Registrar-General of India (RGI) follows ‘obsolete’ criteria set out by Lokur Committee to define any new community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST).

• Criteria set out by Lokur Committee are indications of primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness.

• New criteria under government consideration included:

  • Socio-economic, including educational, backwardness vis-a-vis, rest of population of State;

  • Historical geographical isolation;

  • Distinct language/dialect;

  • Presence of a core culture relating to life-cycle, marriage, songs, etc.

  • Endogamy, or in case of exogamy, marital relationship primarily with other STs.