UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - UPSC MCQ

• Participation in politics and public offices was largely dominated by men during the course of Indian history. Yet, several women created a direct space for themselves in the political affairs. The most direct and well-known role in this sphere was exercised by Razia Sultan.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled Delhi from 1236 to 1240. Iltutmish nominated Razia as his successor, not the Turkish nobility. Most of the Muslim theologians approved her ascension and many of the Turkish nobility, army and people of Delhi accepted her on the throne. At the same time, many could not reconcile with the idea of a woman ruler. It was due to the prevalent attitude towards gender roles and the resentment against a woman ruler as affairs of sovereignty were thought to be an exclusive male prerogative. In addition to that, the provincial governors, did not have a voice in Razia’s selection and they felt ignored and thus, objected her rule.

• Statement 2 is correct: Owing to the hostilities towards her, in April 1240 CE. Razia had to face the revolt of Altunia, the governor of Tabarhinda (Bathinda). Raziya married Altunia later. It was a purely political move to retrieve her throne and therefore she agreed to the proposal. Thus, it could be said that she entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Battle of Chanderi took place in 1528 CE. This battle was fought between Babur and Medini Rai who was the Rajput ruler of Malwa. There is no role of Razia sultan in the Battle of Chanderi.

• Statement a is incorrect: United Nation population fund is the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. Its mission is to deliver a world where every pregnancy is wanted, every child birth is safe and every young person's potential is fulfilled.

• Statement b is incorrect: United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations that promotes industrial development for poverty reduction, inclusive globalization and environmental sustainability.

  • The mission of the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), as described in the Lima Declaration adopted at the fifteenth session of the UNIDO General Conference in 2013, as well as the Abu Dhabi Declaration adopted at the eighteenth session of the UNIDO General Conference in 2019, is to promote and accelerate inclusive and sustainable industrial development (ISID) in Member States.

• Statement c is correct: The UN Capital Development Fund makes public and private finance work for the poor in the world’s 46 least developed countries (LDCs). UN Capital Development Fund offers “last mile” finance models that unlock public and private resources, especially at the domestic level, to reduce poverty and support local economic development.

  • UNCDF’s financing models work through three channels:

    • Inclusive digital economies, which connects individuals, households, and small businesses with financial eco-systems that catalyze participation in the local economy, and provide tools to climb out of poverty and manage financial lives;

    • Local development finance, which capacitates localities through fiscal decentralization, innovative municipal finance, and structured project finance to drive local economic expansion and sustainable development;

    • Investment finance, which provides catalytic financial structuring, de-risking, and capital deployment to drive SDG impact and domestic resource mobilization.

• Statement d is incorrect: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) works to achieve sustainable growth and prosperity for all of its 190 member countries. It does so by supporting economic policies that promote financial stability and monetary cooperation, which are essential to increase productivity, job creation, and economic well-being. The IMF is governed by and accountable to its member countries.

• Ramakrishna Mission is a Hindu religious and spiritual organisation which forms the core of a worldwide spiritual movement known as the Ramakrishna Movement or the Vedanta Movement. The mission is named after and inspired by the Indian spiritual Guru Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded by Ramakrishna's chief disciple Swami Vivekananda on 1897.

• Statement 1 is correct: The ideology and objectives of the Ramakrishna Mission is to impart and promote the study of the Vedanta and its principles. Vedanta is a Hindu philosophy which teaches that there is Oneness of all Truth. It also aims to impart and promote the study of the arts, science and industries.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Ramakrishna Mission stresses the ideal of salvation through social service and selfless action. The organisation mainly propagates the Hindu philosophy of Vedanta–Advaita Vedanta and four yogic ideals– Jnana, Bhakti, Karma, and Raja yoga. The mission bases its work on the principles of karma yoga, the principle of selfless work done with a dedication to God.

• The Rig Veda mentions Romasa, Lopamudra, Apala, Kadru, Visvavara, Ghosha, Juhu, Vagambhrini, Paulomi, Yami, Indrani, Savitri, and Devajami. The Sama Veda adds Nodha, Akrishtabhasha, Sikatanivavari and Gaupayana. They were significant female figures and women rishis of the Vedic period.

• In the early Vedic age women enjoyed an honoured place in the society. The wife was the mistress of the household and authority over the slaves. In all religious ceremonies she participated with her husband. Prada system was not prevalent in the society. Sati system was also not prevalent in the Vedic society. The education of girls was not neglected. The Rig-Veda mentions the names of some learned ladies like Viswavara, Apala and Ghosa who composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis.

• As the rulers of the Mahajanpadas were building huge forts and maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Bali was a tax imposed based on the area of cultivable land and not upon the rich traders. Bhaga was obtained as a share of the produce. Kara and Shulka were some of the other taxes collected during this period.

• Statement 2 is correct: An official called bhagadugha collected bhaga i.e., a share of the agricultural produce. Survey of the agricultural land was done by an official called Rajjugahaka. Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share

• Statement 3 is incorrect: There were taxes on crafts persons during Mahajan padas period. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king. Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce. Hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.

• Magnetic particles can interfere with the migratory patterns of birds by disrupting their magnetic navigation system. Birds have the ability to sense the Earth's magnetic field and use it as a guide to navigate during their migrations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Researchers at Lancaster University in the UK found abundant magnetite nanoparticles in the brain tissue from individuals.

• This strongly magnetic mineral is toxic and has been implicated in the production of reactive oxygen species (free radicals) in the human brain, which are associated with neurodegenerative diseases including Alzheimer’s disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Ashoka Maurya, succeeded to the Mauryan throne around 269 B.C. Many historians consider him as one of the greatest kings of the ancient world. The word Dhamma is the Prakrit form of the Sanskrit word Dharma. Dhamma has been variously translated as piety, moral life, righteousness and so on, but the best way to understand what Ashoka means by Dhamma is to read his edicts. The edicts were written primarily to explain to the people throughout the empire the principles of Dhamma. This is why most of the edicts have something or the other to say about Dhamma, about how keen Ashoka was that his subjects should practise Dhamma and how keen he was that the affairs of the state too were carried out according to the principles of Dhamma. To make the principles of Dhamma accessible and understandable to all, he put up edicts or inscriptions at the important points throughout the empire and sent messengers of Dhamma outside the empire.

• The principles of Dhamma were so formulated as to be acceptable to the people belonging to different communities and following any religious sect. Dhamma was not given any formal definition or a structure. It emphasised on toleration and general behaviour. Dhamma stressed on dual toleration, it emphasised on toleration of the people themselves also on toleration of their various beliefs and ideas. There is a stress on the notion of showing consideration towards the slaves and the servants; there is a stress also on obedience to the elders; generosity towards the needy Brahmanas and the Sramanas etc.

• Ashoka also pleaded for tolerance of different religious sects in an attempt to create a sense of harmony. Major Rock Edict VII is a plea for toleration amongst all the sects. The policy of Dhamma also included certain welfare measures, like planting of trees, digging of wells etc. Ashoka attacked ceremonies and sacrifices practiced regularly on various occasions, as meaningless. A group of officers, known as the Dhammamahamattas, were instituted to implement and publicize the various aspects of Dhamma. Ashoka thrust a very heavy responsibility on them to carry his message to the various sections of the society. Major Rock Edicts IX attack the ceremonies performed after birth, illness, marriage and before setting out for a journey. A censure is passed against the ceremony observed by wives and mothers. Ashoka instead lay stress on the practice of Dhamma and uselessness of the ceremonies.

• The H5N1 avian influenza virus was first detected in 1996 on a goose farm in China. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• To date, over 800 cases of human H5N1 infections have been reported, with a high fatality of 53%. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Domestic ducks are recognized as an important reservoir for H5N1. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Intra-mammal transmission of H5N1 in captivity in mink farms has been recorded, posing a bigger concern concerning zoonotic potential. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• A conflict with Ibrahim Lodi, the ruler of Delhi, was inevitable, and Babur prepared for it by marching towards Delhi. Ibrahim Lodi met Babur at Panipat on 20th April, 1956, with a force estimated at 1,00,000 men and 1,000 elephants. Since the Indian armies generally contained large hordes of servants, the fighting men on Ibrahim Lodi’s side must have been far less than this figure. Babur had crossed the Indus with a force of 12,000, but this had been swelled by his army in India, and the large number of Hindustani nobles and soldiers who joined Babur in the Punjab. Even then, Babur’s army was numerically inferior.

• Babur strengthened his position by resting one wing of his army on the city of Panipat which had a large number of houses and protected the other by means of a ditch filled with branches of trees. In front, he lashed together a large number of carts, to act as a defending wall. Between two carts, breastworks were erected on which the soldiers could rest their guns and fire.

• Babur calls his device an Ottoman (Rumi) device, for it had been used by the Ottomans in their famous battle against Shah Ismail of Iran. Babur had also secured the services of two Ottoman master-gunners, Ustad Ali and Mustafa. The use of gun-powder had been gradually developing in India. Babur says that he used it for the first time in his attacks on the fortress of Bhira. Apparently, gun-powder was known in India, but its use for artillery became common in north India with the advent of Babur. The Battle of Panipat is regarded as one of the decisive battles of the Indian history. It broke the back of Lodi power and brought under Babur’s control the entire area upto Delhi and Agra. The treasures stored up by Ibrahim Lodi at Agra relieved Babur from his financial difficulties. The rich territory up to Jaunpur also lay open to Babur.

• However, Babur had to wage two hard- fought battles, one against Rana Sanga of Mewar and the other against the eastern Afghans, before he could consolidate his hold on this area. Viewed from this angle, the Battle of Panipat was not as decisive in the political field as has been made out. Its real importance lies in the fact that it opened a new phase in the struggle for domination in north India.

• The successor of Ali Adil Shah, Ibrahim Adil Shah II (1580–1627), ascended the throne at the age of nine. He was very solicitous to the poor and had the title of ‘Abla Baba’, or the ‘Friend of the Poor’ He was deeply interested in music, and composed a book, called Kitab-i- Nauras, in which songs were set to various musical modes or Ragas. He built a new capital, Nauraspur, in which a large number of musicians were invited to settle. In his songs, he freely invoked the Goddess of music and learning, Saraswati. Due to his broad approach, he came to be called ‘Jagat Guru’. He accorded patronage to all, including the Hindu saints and temples. This included grants to Pandharpur, the centre of the worship of Vithoba, which became the centre of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra. The broad, tolerant policy followed by Ibrahim Adil Shah II was continued under his successors.

• Golconda was the intellectual resort of literary men. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, a contemporary of Akbar, was very fond of literature and architecture. The Sultan was not only a great patron of art and literature, but was a poet of no mean order. He wrote in Dakhini Urdu, Persian and Telugu, and has left an extensive Diwan or collection. He was the first to introduce a secular note in poetry. Apart from the praise of God and the Prophet, he wrote about nature, love and the social life of his day. The growth of Urdu in its Dakhini form was a significant development during the period. The successors of Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah and many other poets and writers of the time adopted Urdu as a literary language. In addition to Persian, these writers drew on Hindi and Telugu for forms, idioms and themes, as well as vocabulary. Urdu was patronized at the Bijapuri court also. The poet laureate, Nusrati, who flourished during the middle of the 17th century, wrote a romantic tale about Prince Manohar, the ruler of Kanak Nagar, and Madhu Malati. From the Deccan, Urdu came to north India in the 18th century.

• Maratha families played an important role in the service of the Ahmadnagar state. The Qutb Shahs, too, utilised the services of both the Hindus and the Muslims for military, administrative and diplomatic purposes. Under Ibrahim Qutb Shah (d. 1580), Murahari Rao rose to the position of Peshwa in the kingdom, a position which was second only to that of Mir Jumla or Wazir. The Nayakwaris, who formed the military- cum-landed elements, remained a power in the kingdom ever since the foundation of the dynasty. From 1672 till its absorption by the Mughals in1687, the administrative and military affairs of the state were dominated by the brothers, Madanna and Akkanna.

• A seed fund is an investment fund that provides financial support to startups, usually in the form of seed capital. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Seed capital is the earliest stage of investment in a startup, typically used to finance the company's initial operations, product development, and market research.

• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has established the Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) to oversee and monitor the implementation of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Central administration in the Delhi sultanate during the period of Slave dynasty was carried out mostly by trusted slaves who had helped the sultan to acquire the throne; or by the members of the royal household and family. Loyalty was therefore a prerequisite for holding the high office and was given the highest rewards. The Sultan was the head of the administration with all military, administrative and legal powers. A number of separate departments were created to look after different aspects of administration.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq established a separate department, Diwan-i-Amir Kohi. It was responsible for bringing uncultivated land into cultivation through state support. Firoz Shah Tughlaq had a genuine concern for the slaves and established a separate government department to attend to their welfare. It was called Diwan-i-Bandagan.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Diwan-i-Arz was instituted specially to look after the military organisation of the Delhi Sultanate. It was headed by the Ariz-i-Mumalik. With the Delhi Sultanate always having a large military entourage, this ministry was very important in the empire. The Ariz, along with his office, maintained the royal contingents, recruited the soldiers, ensured the discipline and fitness of the army, examined the horses and branded them with the royal insignia.

• Statement 3 is correct: Diwan-i-Mustakhraj was set up by Alauddin Khilji to enquire into and realise arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire. The centre’s policy of revenue collection reached its highest of one-half of the produce during the reign of Alauddin Khalji, who had adopted the policy of actual measurement of land where land was measured and revenue demand determined on its anticipated yield.

• Eighteenth century India failed to make progress economically, socially or culturally, at an adequate pace. India became a land of contrasts because extreme poverty and extreme luxury existed side by side. The common populace remained impoverished, backward and oppressed and lived at the bare subsistence level; the rich and the powerful enjoyed a life of luxury and lavishness. But it is worth noting that the life of the Indian masses was, by and large, better in the 18th century than it was after 100 years of British rule.

• Statement 1 is correct: The old commercial centres of Surat, Masulipatnam and Dhaka degenerated, and colonial port cities like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta took their place. The decline of the Mughal capitals of Delhi and Agra was offset by the rise of regional capitals, including Lucknow, Hyderabad, the various Maratha cities, and Seringapatam.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match with the rapid developments in the West. The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. In fact, due to over-reliance placed on ancient learning, any original thought got discouraged. The education system could not change according to the requirements of the time. The curriculum was confined to literature, languages, law, religion, philosophy and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. There was lack of progressive ideas as theoretical framework dominated.

• Statement 3 is correct: On account of being self-sufficient in handicrafts and agricultural products, India did not import foreign goods on a large scale. On the other hand, its industrial and agricultural products were in good demand in foreign markets. Hence its exports were more than its imports; trade was balanced by import of silver and gold. India was known as a sink of precious metals.

• The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty was founded by Nagabhatta I in the region of Malwa in the eighth century C.E. He belonged to a Rajput clan. Later one of his successors, Vatsaraja extended his rule over to a large part of North India and made Kannauj in western Uttar Pradesh his capital.

• Option a is incorrect: In the Gurjara-Pratihara history, king occupied the highest position in the state and had enormous powers, kings adopted big titles such as 'Parmeshwara', 'Maharajadhiraja', 'Parambhaterak'.

• Option b is incorrect: The appointment of the samantas and singing on giants and charities were the works of the kings in Gurjara Pratihara dynasty. The samantas used to give military help to their Kings and fought for them the advice of the high officers was taken in matters of administration. However, there is no reference of mantriparishad or ministers in the inscriptions of this period.

• Option c is incorrect: Caste system was prevalent in Indian during Gurjara-Pratihara period. The Arab writer Ibda Khurdadab has referred seven castes in the time of the Pratiharas. Caste based occupations prevailed during this period. The people of Sudaria were regarded as Sudras and usually did farming or cattle rearing. Basuria class was the Vaishya class whose duty was to serve other classes. The people of Sandila class did the work of Chandals. Lahuda class constituted of low and wandering tribe.

• Option d is correct: Economy in Pratihara Empire was mainly dependent on agricultural production. Thus, the major source of government revenue at that time was the tax derived from the bulk of agricultural production. The feudal levies due from subordinates to the Gurjara king were supplemented by standing armies garrisoned on the frontiers.

• The Tropical Easterly Jet flows from east to west over Peninsular India at 6 to 9 kilometres and over the Northern African region. The formation of Tropical Eastern Jet results in reversal of upper air circulation patterns (high pressure switches to low pressure) and leads to the quick onset of the monsoon.

• When the summer temperature of air over Tibet remains high for a sufficiently long time, it helps in strengthening the easterly jet and results in heavy rainfall in India. The easterly jet does not come into existence if the snow over the Tibet Plateau does not melt because this weakens the Tibetan heating. This hampers the occurrence of rainfall in India. The formation of Easterly Jet Stream results in the reversal of upper air circulation patterns [High pressure switches to low pressure] and leads to the quick onset of monsoons.

• Statement 1 is correct: The GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 guarantees all states an annual growth rate of 14 per cent in their GST revenue, over the base year of 2015-16, for the first five years of implementation of GST beginning July 2017. The 5-year period ends in June 2022. It was introduced as a relief for states for the loss of revenues arising from the implementation of GST.

• Statement 2 is correct: If a state’s revenue grows slower than 14 per cent relative to the base year, it is supposed to be compensated by the Centre using the funds specifically collected as compensation cess. To provide these grants, a GST compensation cess is levied on certain luxury and sin goods.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The collected compensation cess flows into the CFI, and is then transferred to the Public Account of India, where a GST compensation cess account has been created. The GST Compensation cess fund is non lapsable in nature. States are compensated bi-monthly from the accumulated funds in this account.

• The State Govts and UT administrations across India celebrated World Wetlands Day (WWD) at all 75 Ramsar sites on 02nd Feb 2023. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The 2023 theme for World Wetlands Day is ‘Wetland Restoration’ highlighting the urgent need to prioritise wetland restoration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the ‘Save Wetlands Campaign’ structured on a “whole of society” approach for wetlands conservation. World Wetlands Day is celebrated all over the world to commemorate the signing of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance (1971). India has been a party to the Convention since 1982 and has so far declared 75 wetlands as Ramsar across 23 states/UTs. India has the largest network of Ramsar Sites in Asia. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Shah Alam II agreed to:

• Reside at Allahabad, to be ceded to him by the Nawab of Awadh, under the Company’s protection; Issue a Farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company, in lieu of an annual payment of Rs. 26 lakhs; and A provision of Rs. 53 lakhs to the Company in return for the Nizamat functions (military defence, police and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

• Thus, the Company acquired the Diwani functions from the emperor and the Nizamat functions from the Subahdar of Bengal.

• Clive did not want to annex Awadh, because it would have placed the Company under an obligation to protect an extensive land frontier from the Afghan and the Maratha invasions. The Treaty made the Nawab a firm friend of the Company and turned Awadh into a buffer state. Similarly, Clive’s arrangement with Shah Alam II was inspired by practical considerations. It made the emperor a useful ‘rubber stamp’ of the Company. Besides, the emperor’s Farman legalised the political gains of the Company in Bengal.

Main highlights of the CR Plan:

• The Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.

• The League to co-operate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.

• After the end of the war, the entire population of the Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.

• In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc.

• The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India.

• Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept the two-nation theory. He wanted only the Muslims of North- West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire population. He also opposed the idea of a common centre. While the Congress was ready to co-operate with the League for the independence of the Indian Union, the League did not care for independence of the Union. It was only interested in a separate nation. Hindu leaders, led by Vir Savarkar, condemned the CR Plan.

The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore Session:

• The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted.

• Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.

• Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of the legislatures were asked to resign their seats.

• January 26, 1930, was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajya) Day, to be celebrated everywhere.

• Both sides (The No Changers and the Swarajists) however, wanted to avoid a 1907-type split and kept in touch with Gandhi who was in jail. Both sides also realised the significance of putting up a united front to get a mass movement to force the government to introduce reforms, and both sides accepted the necessity of Gandhi’s leadership of a united nationalist front. Keeping these factors in mind, a compromise was reached at a meeting in Delhi in September, 1923. The Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within the Congress. The Swarajists accepted the Congress programme with only one difference—that they would join the Legislative Councils. The elections to the newly constituted Central Legislative Assembly and to the Provincial Assemblies were to be held in November, 1923.

• Gradually, the Swarajists’ position had weakened because of widespread communal riots, and a split among the Swarajists themselves on communal and ‘Responsivist-Non-Responsivist’ lines. The government strategy of dividing the Swarajists – the more militant from the moderates, the Hindus from the Muslims – was successful. The Responsivists among the Swarajists – Lala Lajpat Rai, Madan Mohan Malaviya and N.C. Kelkar – advocated co-operation with the government and holding of office wherever possible. Besides, they also wanted to protect the so-called Hindu interests. The communal elements accused leaders like Motilal Nehru, who did not favour joining the Council, of being anti-Hindu, even as the Muslim communalists called the Swarajists anti-Muslims.

• Drawbacks:

  • The Swarajists lacked a policy to co-ordinate their militancy inside the legislatures with the mass struggle outside.

  • They relied totally on newspaper reporting to communicate with the public.

  • An obstructionist strategy had its limitations.

  • They could not carry on with their coalition partners very far, because of conflicting ideas, which further limited their effectiveness.

  • They failed to resist the perks and privileges of power and office. They failed to support the peasants’ cause in Bengal and lost support among the Muslim members, who were pro-peasants.

• About: The Paris Club is a group of mostly western creditor countries that grew from a 1956 meeting in which Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors in Paris. It describes itself as forum where official creditors meet to solve payment difficulties faced by debtor countries. Their objective is to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries that are unable to repay their bilateral loans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Members: The members are: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Israel, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Russia, South Korea, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States. All 22 are members of the group called Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

• Recent Developments: The Paris group countries dominated bilateral lending in the last century, but their importance has receded over the last two decades or so with the emergence of China as the world’s biggest bilateral lender. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Sri Lanka’s case, for instance, India, China, and Japan are the largest bilateral creditors. Sri Lanka’s debt to China is 52% of its bilateral debt, 19.5% to Japan, and 12% to India.

• Red Sanders, also known as Pterocarpus Santalinus, is an extremely rare and commercially valuable tree species found in India. It was recently re-listed as Endangered in the Red Data List of the IUCN.

• Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is a very valuable tree species as it is found only in very limited areas. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats. The most superior variety is found in Andhra Pradesh in districts of Chittoor, Kadapa, Kurnool and Nellore. In Karnataka it is found in Kolar, Tumkur and Chitradurga.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as after being classified in 2018 (for the first time since 1997) as ‘Near Threatened’, IUCN has again had to classify Red Sanders as ‘Endangered’ in 2021 due to drastic fall in numbers of specimens. The latest IUCN assessment stated: “Over the last three generations, the species has experienced a population decline of 50-80 per cent. It is assessed as Endangered”.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Illegal felling and smuggling of the tree’s wood for international trade is the biggest threat to the survival of the species. The trees have an extremely long growing span. Most trees usually take about 12 to 14 years to attain maturity. But the red sander wood needs about 100 years to reach that stage. The latest IUCN report says that although the area of distribution has been maintained over the years, the overharvesting to satisfy growing global demand has pushed the species to dangerously low levels of population. Cattle grazing and invasive species are a threat too, however they are not a primary factor.

• Statement 4 is correct: The wood of red Sanders is in high demand as it has following uses:

  • Making musical instruments like violin, etc.

  • High quality, water resistant luxury furniture

  • Making nuclear radiation shielded structures

  • High demand from SouthEast Asia (like China, Japan, Myanmar, etc) for Medicinal uses: astringent properties, treating urinary tract infections, bilious affections and skin diseases, headache, fever, boils, scorpion sting and improving sight.

• Knowledge Base:

• Other facts about Red Sanders:

  • Protected Under Schedule II of CITES, and Schedule II of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

  • It is a deciduous tree.

  • It grows in tropical deciduous forests, with red soils. Rainfall between 80 cm to 100 cm annually is required. It grows well in dry, hot climates.

  • It also yields Santaline dye, which finds use in colouring foodstuff and pharmaceutical preparations.

• The Food Processing Industry (FPI) has been touted as a sunrise sector of Indian economy. The food processing sector has been growing at an Average Annual Growth Rate of around 8.41 % between 2014-18. The sector constitutes 8.83 % and 10.66 % of gross value added in manufacturing and agriculture sector respectively. However, there are still many challenges to the realisation of its full potential. Currently it accounts for less than 10% of the total food in India.

• Statements a and d are correct: The Ministry of Food Processing Industries has identified six key challenges faced by the food processing industry:

  • gaps in supply chain infrastructure (i.e., lack of primary processing, storage and distribution facilities);

  • inadequate link between production and processing;

  • seasonality of operations and low capacity utilisations;

  • institutional gaps in supply chain, viz., dependence on APMC markets, etc.;

  • inadequate focus on quality and safety standards; and

  • lack of product development and innovation

• Statement b is correct: The Food Processing Industry in India is highly fragmented and dominated by the unorganised sector. These small players do not have many funds at their disposal. Hence they are unable to invest in machinery that can add much value beyond Primary processing. This prevents them from creating products that are in demand by the modern consumer, while making the operation cheaper due to the huge quantity of order. According to ASI date, 39,748 food processing enterprises are in the organised sector in 2016-17 while the number of unincorporated enterprises as per NSSO data stood at 24,59,929 in 2015-16.

• Statement c is incorrect: The Food Processing sector was opened to a 100% FDI under Automatic Route in 2016. Further, in 2017, 100 per cent FDI under the Government route for retail trading, including through e-commerce, is permitted in respect of food products manufactured and/or produced in India.

• Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification, is the direct manipulation of an organism's genome using biotechnology. It is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel organisms.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: During the process of gene editing, a piece or several pieces of DNA (not the RNA) are altered to change a characteristic about the organism. If DNA is inserted, it can come from another individual with the desired characteristic, it can come from a different species or it could be artificially produced. The process of genetic engineering involves splicing an area of a chromosome, a gene, that controls a certain characteristic of the body. This gene may be reprogrammed to produce an antiviral protein. The enzyme endonuclease is used to split a DNA sequence as well as split the gene from the rest of the chromosome.

• Statement 2 is correct: Gene drive is a genetic engineering technology that can permanently change the traits of a population or even an entire species. Gene drives are genetic elements that pass from parents to unusually high numbers of their offspring, thereby spreading quickly. It occur naturally but can also be engineered. In a breakthrough in the global fight for malaria, scientists have wiped out an entire population of malaria-carrying mosquitoes in lab conditions using a CRiSPR gene drive technology.

• The Indian Pangolin is a scaly anteater. It is the only mammal with keratinous scales on its skin. It is the largest of the 8 species of Pangolins existing in the world. Pangolins are the most illegally traded mammals in the world.

• Statement 1 is correct: The IUCN lists Indian Pangolins as ‘Endangered’ on its Red Data List. It must not be confused with the Chinese Pangolin which is listed under ‘Critically Endangered’ category by the IUCN.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India except higher altitudes of the Himalayas (> 2500m), the North east India and arid regions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: There are 2 species of Pangolins found in India - the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). Indian Pangolin is found throughout the country south of the Himalayas, excluding the north-eastern region while the Chinese Pangolin ranges through Assam and the eastern Himalayas.

• Statement 4 is correct: Although not proven by modern medical science, traditional Chinese medicine values the scales of the pangolin as a treatment of many ailments like - arthritis, anorexia, sores, and skin infections to treating infertility in women and promoting lactation.

• Knowledge Base:

  • Conservation Status: Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972; CITES Appendix I (since 2017).

  • Habitat preferred by the species is tropical forests, open grasslands, etc.

  • Other than India, it is also found in Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

  • A terminal scale is also present on the ventral side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the Chinese Pangolin.

  • Threats: hunting and poaching for local consumptive use (e.g. as a protein source and traditional medicine) and international trade, for its meat and scales in East and South East Asian countries, particularly China and Vietnam.

  • Inadequate information on population and distribution further accentuates the threats arising from hunting and poaching.

• The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up in the year 2015-16. The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) has been established to support adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism, disaster management, human health, marine system, habitat sector and other rural livelihood sectors are eligible for funding under NAFCC.

• Statement 2 is correct: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE) for implementation of adaptation projects under NAFCC.

• Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France, aimed at improving interoperability and enhancing defense cooperation between the two nations. Hence, option B is correct.

• It typically involves a range of naval activities, including training in anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue operations, and surface warfare tactics. The exercise takes place annually and alternates between Indian and French naval bases.

Andhra Pradesh
Notes: The number of mines which reported mineral production {excluding minor minerals, petroleum (crude), natural gas and atomic minerals} in India was 3108 in 2012-13. Out of 3108 reporting mines, maximum number of mines were located in Andhra Pradesh (583) followed by Rajasthan (374), Gujarat (350).