UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - UPSC MCQ

The Quit India Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, called for the end of British rule in India. It is also known as the "August Revolution" because of its significance in the Indian independence movement and the timing of its launch in August. The movement began with Gandhi's famous "Do or Die" speech and saw widespread participation from various sections of society. It was a turning point in India's struggle for freedom, and the British government realized that it would have to eventually leave India.

• Viral vector-based vaccines differ from most conventional vaccines in that they don‘t actually contain antigens, but rather use the body‘s own cells to produce them.

• A viral vector vaccine uses a harmless version of a different virus, called a ―vector, to deliver information to the body that helps it protect you. For coronavirus, adenoviruses, a type of common cold virus, that attaches itself to cells and inject DNA that tells the cells to make coronavirus spike protein. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• By infecting cells and instructing them to make large amounts of antigen, which then trigger an immune response, the vaccine mimics what happens during natural infection with certain pathogens - especially viruses. This has the advantage of triggering a strong cellular immune response by T cells as well the production of antibodies by B cells.

• ADVANTAGES OF VIRAL VECTOR-BASED VACCINES:

  • Well-established technology

  • Strong immune response

  • Immune response involves B cells and T cells; Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• But Viral vector vaccines are relatively complex to manufacture and previous exposure to the vector could reduce the effectiveness of the vaccine. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• For the decision of election disputes, the Constitution provides [Art.329] that the ordinary courts of the land will have no jurisdiction and that any question relating to an election can be agitated only by an election petition, as provided for by law.

• Under the Representation of the People Act, the power to decide an election petition is vested in the High Court, with appeal to the Supreme Court.

• By Art. 323B of the Constitution, as inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, power has been conferred on the appropriate Legislature to set up a Tribunal for the adjudication of disputes relating to elections of the Legislature concerned, by making law, and to provide in such law for the exclusion of all Courts (save that of the Supreme Court under Art. 136), to entertain any such matter. In short, when any such law is made in exercise of this power, the High Court will cease to have any jurisdiction over election disputes; they will be determined only by the Administrative Tribunal set up by law, with appeal from the decision of such Tribunal to the Supreme Court by special leave under Art. 136. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• In Art. 71 of the Constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and Vice-President is the Supreme Court. There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House of the People, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art. 329(b). Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The election disputes related to Panchayats:

  • In the case of a village panchayat, the Munsiff‘s Court having jurisdiction over the place in which the headquarters of the panchayat is located; and

  • In the case of block panchayat or district panchayat the district court having jurisdiction over the place in which the headquarters of the panchayat concerned is located.

  • The Government shall, in consultation with the High Court notify the appropriate courts in the Gazette.

Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a small savings scheme backed by the government which can be purchased from any general post office in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• NSC provides guaranteed returns, tax rebates as per section 80C of the IT Act, 1961 and NSC interest rates of 8.5% and 8.8% for NSC VIII (five years) and NSC IX (10 years) respectively. The interest, under this scheme, is compounded on a half-yearly basis. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The deposits can be opened with a Minimum of Rs.1000 and in multiple of Rs.100, no maximum limit and any number of accounts can be opened under the scheme. The deposit shall mature on the completion of five years from the date of the deposit (NSC VIII issue). NSC may be pledged or transferred as security, by submitting the prescribed application form at the concerned Post Office supported with an acceptance letter from the pledgee. Transfer/pledging can be made to the following authorities.-The President of India/Governor of the State, RBI/Scheduled Bank/Co-operative Society/Co-operative Bank.-Corporation (public/private)/Govt. Company/Local Authority.-Housing finance company. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• A pledged asset is a valuable possession that is transferred to a lender to secure a debt or loan. Hence pledging means the transfer of an asset from a debtor (the pledgor) to a creditor (the pledgee) to secure repayment for some debt or obligation and to the mutual benefit of both parties.

• The Inter-State River Water Disputes are one of the most contentious issues in the Indian federalism today.

• Constitutional Provisions:

  • Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments, water storage and water power.

  • Entry 56 of Union List empowers the Union Government for the regulation and development of inter- state rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be ex pedient in the public interest.

  • According to Article 262, in case of disputes relating to waters: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley. Parliament may, by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as mentioned above. River Board Act, 1956: This empowered the GOI to establish Boards for Interstate Rivers and river valleys in consultation with State Governments. Till date, no river board has been created. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The resolution of water dispute is governed by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.

  • According to its provisions, if a State Government makes a request regarding any water dispute and the Central Government is of opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, then a Water Disputes Tribunal is constituted for the adjudication of the water dispute. States can not directly approach the Tribunal in any case. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • The Chairman and members of the Water Dispute Tribunals are nominated by Chief Justice of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The tribunal has to be constituted within one year of the request.

  • The tribunal should give the award within 3 years and in some exceptional cases, within 5 years.

  • If the award is not immediately implemented, the concerned parties can seek clarification within three months.

  • The tribunal award will have the same force as an order or decree of the Supreme Court. The award is final and above the SC‘s jurisdiction.

• However, the states could still approach SC through Article 136 (Special Leave Petition). Private persons could approach the SC under violation of Article 21 (Right to Life).

• In News: Chilly weather in Asia is due to the Polar vortex that brought extreme cold to the US last month.

• Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.

  • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.

  • It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.

  • The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.

    • When those variations in temperatures grow, the polar vortex can shift south.

    • This happens naturally, but scientists think that as the planet warms, shifts in the polar vortex are likely to become more frequent and pronounced.

• Kabir was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet, Sufi and saint born in Varanasi. There is a controversy regarding the birth year of the saint. Some people hold that it is 1398 when other says that it is 1440.

  • Kabir is also a proponent of Nirguna, the Supreme Being without form and properties. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Kabir‘s strong opposition to idolatry stems from this philosophy. He says, ―If worshipping a stone idol gets Hari then I will worship a mountain. Better is the grinding stone, which grinds and feeds the world. Kabir was Influenced and initiated to bhakti by Ramananda, saint of Vaishnava bhakti tradition. Kabir‘s spiritual teaching verses can be classified into three categories:

  • Ramaini: In the Ramaini, Kabir described the creation of the world and the wandering of the soul in it, he used doha and pada verses to express these.

  • Sakhi: In Sakhi (witness of truth), he analyzed events perceived through senses but grasped through the intellect;

  • Sabad: The Sabad collets the word of the Master. The greatest work of Kabir is known as Bijak, seeds of his teaching. In this collection of poems Kabir showed a new universal spiritual path, focused on the oneness of God without distinctions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• He considered neither asceticism nor book knowledge important for the true knowledge of God. The mission of Kabir was to preach a religion of love which would unite all caste and creeds. He rejected those features of Hinduism and Islam which were against this spirit and which were of no importance for the real spiritual welfare of the individual. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Kabir strongly denounced the caste system, especially the practice of untouchability and emphasised the fundamental unity of man. He was opposed to all kinds of discrimination between human beings, whether on the basis of castes, or religion, race, family or wealth. He breathed his last at Maghar located in Purvanchal (Near Gorakhpur). It has a distinction of having both, a mausoleum and a temple dedicated to Sant Kabir.

• Scientists have found the first clues to understand violent short duration flares from a compact star of rare category called magnetar located thirteen million light years away. A magnetar is an exotic type of neutron star, its defining feature that it has an ultra-powerful magnetic field. The field is about 1,000 times stronger than a normal neutron star and about a trillion times stronger than the Earth‘s. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• These compact stars with the most intense magnetic field known, of which only thirty have been spotted so far in our galaxy, suffer violent eruptions that are still little known due to their unexpected nature and their short duration. It is believed that eruptions in magnetars may be due to instabilities in their magnetosphere or to a kind of "earthquakes" (‖starquakes‖) produced in their crust, a rigid and elastic layer about a kilometer thick. ―Regardless of the trigger, in the magnetosphere of the star a type of waves will be created. These waves which are well known in the Sun, are called Alfvén waves and while bouncing back and forth between the points at the base of its lines of magnetic field, they interact with each other dissipating energy. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier, even prior to the independence. Setting up of National Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938, The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944, Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post-war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union), Sarvodaya Plan in 1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan stepped in this direction. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. In layman's terms, Sarvodaya means 'welfare for all.

• Mahatma Gandhi coined the term 'Sarvodaya' from John Ruskin's book 'Unto the Last'. In 1954, Narayan left electoral politics, to focus on the Sarvodaya movement based on the Gandhian principle and the Bhoodan Yajna Movement, founded by Vinoba Bhave, which demanded that land be distributed among the landless. The plan emphasised small and cotton industries alongside agriculture and suggested freedom from foreign technology. It also stressed land reforms. Based on Gandhian techniques of constructive work by the community and trusteeship as well as the Sarvodaya concept of Acharya Vinoba Bhave, the plan also included foresight on self-dependent villages and decentralised participatory form of planning and economic progress. Some of the accepted ideas of the plan got their due importance when the Government of India, helmed by Jawaharlal Nehru, promoted the five-year plans.

• A person shall not be deemed to be ordinarily resident in a constituency on the ground only that he owns, or is in possession of, a dwelling house therein. Mere ownership or possession of a building or other immovable property will not bestow upon the owner, the residential qualification. On the other hand, even persons living in sheds and persons living on pavements without any roof are eligible for enrolment provided they are ordinarily resident in the sheds or on pavements in a particular area, do not change the place of residence, and are otherwise identifiable.

• Temporary periods of absence from this ordinary place of stay can be ignored. It is not necessary that the period of stay should be continuous for any particular length of time and should be without any break. Temporary absence on account of duty or employment or even for pleasure should not be considered to interrupt the concept of ordinary residence.

• A member of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State shall not during the term of his office cease to be ordinarily resident in the constituency in the electoral roll of which he is registered as an elector at the time of his election as such member, by reason of his absence from that constituency in connection with his duties as such member. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• Inmates of jails, other legal custody, hospitals, beggar homes, asylums, etc. should not be included in the electoral rolls of the constituency in which such institutions are located.

• Service Voters: Normally, the serving members of the armed forces of the Union or the central para- military forces, State Armed Police personnel posted outside the state, and the government servants posted outside India in Indian Missions/High Commissions are enrolled in their native places and not at their places of postings. They are called ̳Service Voters‘. Thus electors having a service qualification are entitled to get registered at their native places which maybe different from their ordinary residence. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Any person having a service qualification shall be deemed to be ordinarily resident on any date in the constituency in which, but for his having such service qualification, he would have been ordinarily resident on that date.

• ASSOCHAM suggested adoption of trench farming‘ to grow herbs, vegetables in Ladakh. Since farming season is very small in Ladakh, the farmers should be informed about alternatives to greenhouses, such as low tunnel technology or trench farming, to help them cultivate herbs and vegetables.

• Statement 1 is correct: Trench is a simple structure for growing vegetables during extreme winters.

• Statement 2 is correct: Trench cultivation harnesses soil and solar heat to create suitable climatic conditions for growth of leafy vegetables like spinach, fenugreek, coriander, lai etc. A suitable size of 30‘ x 10‘ x 3‘ with transparent UV stabilized 200 micron polythene sheets are used as the technology is low-cost and portable. The farmers can relocate the trench tunnel to whatever location they want. Significance The commercial cultivation of Indian and exotic vegetables and flowers can be taken up in large greenhouses to meet local demand in such hostile areas. The produce could be supplied to the rest of the country at a premium since India imports some of these vegetables from other countries.

• The current operational criteria used by IMD for declaring the withdrawal from extreme north-western parts of the country was adopted in 2006 and consist of the following major synoptic features which will be considered only after 1st September.

  • Cessation of rainfall activity over the area for continuous 5 days.

  • Establishment of anticyclone in the lower troposphere (850 hPa and below).

  • Considerable reduction in moisture content as inferred from satellite water vapour imageries and tephigrams.

Hence option (b) is correct answer.

• The froth is a sign of a polluted river. The release of untreated or poorly treated effluents, including sewage from those parts of the city that are not connected to the sewerage network and industrial waste, could lead to frothing.

  • Phosphates and surfactants in untreated sewages from Delhi, Haryana and UP is another reason behind frothing in the river.

  • Phosphates are an ingredient used in many detergents. These compounds make cleaning a lot easier. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • While phosphates and surfactants in the Yamuna river comprise 1%, the remaining 99% is air and water.

• When the water gets disturbed by waves, natural waterfalls or artificial falls from river barrages, the fatty layer gets beaten into a froth. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• During the winter season when the river is in a lean phase and the water flow is less frothing may occur as the Pollutants are not diluted. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Industrial effluents, organic matter from decomposing vegetation and the presence of filamentous bacteria can also cause foam. Hence statement 4 is correct.

• From 1905 onwards the Government of India followed a policy of cordial co-operation towards the Indian states. The growth of political unrest in British India put the Government of India on the defensive and the Government thought it expedient and prudent to utilise the support of Indian princes to counter progressive and revolutionary developments.

• The authors of Montague-Chelmsford Reforms favoured the formation of a Council of Princes and made definite suggestions in the matter. These recommendations formed the nucleus for the formation of the Chamber of Princes, formally inaugurated in February 1921.

• It was by a royal proclamation that the Chamber of Princes was instituted on 8 February 1921. The inauguration ceremony was performed by His Royal Highness the Duke of Connaught in the Diwan-i-am of Red Fort on behalf of His Majesty the King Emperor. Hence statement 1 is correct. For purposes of representation in the Chamber of Princes, the Indian states were divided into three categories:

  • 109 states which enjoyed full legislative and jurisdictional powers were represented directly. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • 127 states which enjoyed limited legislative and jurisdictional powers were represented by 12 members chosen from among themselves.

  • Remaining 326 states which could better be classed as jagirs or estates or feudal holdings.

  • The chamber of Princes was merely an advisory and consultative body. It had no concern with the internal affairs of individual states nor could it discuss matters concerning the existing rights of states or their freedom of action. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to the aliens):

• Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).

• Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).

• Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).

• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).

• Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly.

• Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the State Legislature.

• Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, the President of India, the Vice- President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, Governor of states, Attorney General of India and Advocate General of states.

They require the State:

• To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

• To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).

• To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

• To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a Fundamental Right under Article 21 A. The amended Directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children, until they complete the age of 6 years.

• Under Article 352, the President can declare a National Emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

• It may be noted that the President can declare a National Emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.

• The President can also issue different Proclamations on the grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a Proclamation already issued by him and such Proclamation is in operation. This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975. When a National Emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as ‘External Emergency’. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.

• A Proclamation of National Emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it.

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.

• Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance’ as the third ground for the Proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague and had a wider connotation.

• The President, however, can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet. This means that the Emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the Cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister.

• Joint sitting is extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a Bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following 3 situations, after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:

  • If the Bill is rejected by the other House;

  • If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or

  • If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House, without the Bill being passed by it.

• In the above three situations, the President can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to the Ordinary Bills or the Financial Bills only, and not to the Money Bills or the Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money Bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting, as he is not a member of either House of the Parliament.

• As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.

• More elaborately, any dispute between:

(a) The Centre and one or more states; or

(b) The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or

(c) Between two or more states.

• In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It decides the disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice- President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

• The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs, including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto and Certiorari for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The High Courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. It means, when the Fundamental Rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High Court or the Supreme Court directly.

• The term ―Satvahana originated from the Prakrit which means driven by seven‖ which is an implication of the Sun God‘s chariot that is driven by seven horses as per Hindu mythology. The Satavahans claimed to be Brahmanas and worshipped gods like Vasudeva Krishna. The Satavahanas were also the first rulers to make land grants to Brahmanas. The Satavahana rule is accepted to exist between mid-first Century BCE and third century CE. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • They also patronized Buddhism by granting land to the monks. In their kingdom, the Mahayana form of Buddhism commanded a considerable following, especially amongst the artisan class. The Satavahana kingdom majorly comprised present Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana. At times, their rule also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh.

  • The kingdom had different capitals at different times. Two of the capitals were Amaravati and Pratishthana (Paithan). The earliest inscriptions of the Satavahans belong to the first century BCE when they defeated the Kanvas and established their power in parts of Central India. Their greatest competitors were the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India, who had established themselves in the upper Deccan and western India. The first king of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. The Satavahanas show traces of a matrilineal social structure. It was customary for their king to be named after his mother. Such names as Gautamiputra and Vashishthiputra indicate that in their society the mother enjoyed a great deal of importance. Sometimes an inscription is issued both under the authority of the king and his mother. But succession to the throne passed to the male member. So, the social structure was only partially matrilineal. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • The official language of Satavahanas was Prakrit. All inscriptions were composed in Prakrit and written in the Brahmi script. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Satavahana Coins: The coins of the Satavahanas have been excavated from Deccan, western India, Vidarbha, Western and Eastern Ghats, etc.

  • Most of the coins in the Satavahana dynasty were die-struck. Cast-coins too existed in the Satavahana empire and there were multiple combinations of techniques that were used to cast coins. Hence statement 4 is correct.

  • There were silver, copper, lead and potin coins in the Satavahana empire.

  • The portrait coins were mostly in silver and some were in lead too. Dravidian language and Brahmi script were used on portrait coins.

  • There were punch-marked coins too that were circulated alongside the Satavahana dynasty.

  • The importance of maritime trade was derived from the images of ships present on the Satavahana coins.

  • Many Satavahana coins bore the names of ̳Satakarni‘ and ̳Pulumavi.‘

  • Satavahana coins were of different shapes – round, square, rectangular, etc.

  • Many symbols have appeared on the Satavahana coins, the major ones of which are: chaitya symbol, chakra, conch shell symbol, lotus, swastik, ship, animal motifs etc.

• The Naneghat inscriptions in the Naneghat caves indicate that they are the work of Satavahana rulers who came into prominence after the fall of the Mauryan empire. It is believed that a powerful woman ruler Naganika, the wife of Satakarni (180–170 BCE) of the Satavahana family commissioned the cave, the statues, and the inscriptions. Inscriptions in the cave mention her and her family members. The central figure of the inscription is Naganika, perhaps the first woman in India‘s recorded history who has determined the political affairs of a state, even having her own coinage.

• National Forest Policy,1988: The National Forest Policy of 1988 was launched with the principal aim of ensuring environmental stability and maintenance of ecological balance, including atmospheric equilibrium which is essential for the sustenance of all life forms - plant, animal, and human.

• The basic objectives that should govern the National Forest Policy - are the following:

  • Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the country.

  • Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represent the remarkable biological diversity and genetic resources of the country.

  • Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the "interest of soil and water conservation, for mitigating floods and droughts and for the retardation of siltation of reservoirs. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation and social forestry programs, especially on all denuded, degraded, and unproductive lands.

  • Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce, and small timber of the rural and tribal populations.

  • Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs.

  • Encouraging efficient utilization of forest produce and maximizing substitution of wood. Hence option 4 is correct.

  • Creating a massive people's movement with the involvement of women, for achieving these objectives and to minimize pressure on existing forests. Hence option 3 is correct.

The third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following office bearers:

• Union Ministers of India

• Union Ministers of a State

• Parliament Election Candidates

• Members of Parliament (MPs)

• Supreme Court Judges

• Comptroller and Auditor General

• State Ministers

• State Legislature Elections‘ Candidates

• State Legislature Members

• High Court Judges

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• After independence there was a growing demand for reorganisation of the States on more rational basis in the context of not only from financial, economic and administrative management of independent India but also due to the growing importance of regional languages.

• For the first time, the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was constituted in 1953 to go into this problem and to recommend the principles and broad guidelines on which the States can be reorganised. The Commission submitted its report in September, 1955.

• The Commission was appointed by Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru. SRC was headed by S. Fazal Ali and had two members namely M. Panikkar & H. N. Kunzru To give effect to the scheme of reorganisation which emerged from the consideration of the proposals contained in the Report, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution of India.

• The Constitution(7th Amendment ) Act, 1956 – implemented the scheme of States reorganisation. It has added Article 350 A which is designed to implement one of the States Reorganisation Commission‘s important recommendations regarding safeguards for linguistic minorities in the States after reorganisation.

• The new States formed as a result of the reorganisation of States in 1956 are Andhra Pradesh, Bombay, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Mysore, Punjab and Rajasthan.

• SRA, 1956 also provided for the following:

  • Amendment to First & Fourth Schedule

  • Provision of High Courts for the new States

  • Zonal Council

  • Delimitation of Constituencies

  • All India Services

  • Services under State Public Service Commission

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• The Constitution has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction and vast powers on the Supreme Court.

• Original Jurisdiction:

  • As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between: the Centre and one or more states; or the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or between two or more states.

  • In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

  • Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:

• A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.

• Inter-state water disputes.

• Matters referred to the Finance Commission.

• Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states. Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states. Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.

• Appellate Jurisdiction:

  • The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgements of the lower courts. It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be divided under three heads:

• Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution-civil, criminal or otherwise. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Civil cases, irrespective of any constitutional question.

• Criminal cases, irrespective of any constitutional question.

• Appeal by Special Leave:

  • The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

    • It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

    • It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.

    • It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income- tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (of course, except a military court).

• The Constitution of India bestows privileges to the members of the Parliament and its Committees, and also to the members of the State Legislative Assembly and its Committees, respectively under Articles 105 and 194.

• The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978, did not provide for the codification of the Parliamentary Privileges.

• Constitutional Provisions – Parliamentary Privileges:

  • Parliamentary Privileges (Articles 105 and 194) are special rights, immunities, exceptions enjoyed by the members of the two Houses of the Parliament and their Committees.

  • These rights are also given to those individuals who speak and participate in any Committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of India and the Union Ministers.

  • The President, who is an integral part of the Parliament, does not enjoy these privileges.

• Article 105 (3) was amended by the Constitution 44th Amendment and now has two aspects:

  • Powers, privileges and immunities of each Houses of the Parliament, its members and Committees shall be such as may be defined by the Parliament by law in time.

  • Till such powers, privileges and immunities are defined by the Parliament, shall be the same as that was enjoyed by the House of Commons as on 26th January, 1950.

• Article 105 (3) has avoided direct reference to the House of Commons, but effectively such privileges continue till the Parliament frames a law. The Parliament has not yet codified its privileges.

• Judicial independence of the High Court is secured through the following provisions:

  • Manner of removal of the Judges of the High Court – Article 217(1)(b) – A Judge may be removed from his office by the President in the manner provided in Clause (4) of Article 124 for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

  • Article 124(4) – A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office, except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of the Parliament, supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

  • Article 221 – Salaries, etc., of the Judges – (1) There shall be paid to the Judges of each High Court such salaries as may be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.

• Every Judge shall be entitled to such allowances and to such rights in respect of leave of absence and pension as may from time to time be determined by or under law made by the Parliament and, until so determined, to such allowances and rights as are specified in the Second Schedule:

  • Provided that neither the allowances of a Judge nor his rights in respect of leave of absence or pension shall be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

  • Article 211 – Restriction on discussion in the Legislature – No discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.

• NITI Aayog does not have any financial powers to allocate funds, which the Planning Commission used to have under Article 282.

• The Panchayats receive funds from 3 sources:

  • Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.

  • Funds for the implementation of the Centrally Sponsored Schemes.

  • Funds released by the State Governments on the recommendations of the State Finance Commissions.

• Recently, the IndAusECTA Agreement, which was signed last year, has come into force after Ratification and Exchange of Written Instruments.

• Option d is correct: The Bering Strait is a strait between the Pacific and Arctic oceans, separating the Chukchi Peninsula of the Russian Far East from the Seward Peninsula of Alaska. The present Russia-United States maritime boundary is at 168° 58’ 37” W longitude, slightly south of the Arctic Circle at about 65° 40’ N latitude.

  • The Strait is named after Vitus Bering, a Danish explorer in the service of the Russian Empire.