UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - UPSC MCQ

• Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the ―earth-observation‖ or ―remote-sensing‖ satellites with a lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth from pole to pole (at about 98 deg orbital-plane inclination). An orbit is called sun-synchronous when the angle between the line joining the center of the Earth and the satellite and the Sun is constant throughout the orbit. Due to their sun-synchronism nature, these orbits are also referred to as ―Low Earth Orbit (LEO) which enables the on-board camera to take images of the earth under the same sun-illumination conditions during each of the repeated visits, the satellite makes over the same area on the ground thus making the satellite useful for earth resources monitoring. Apart from launching the remote sensing satellites to Sun-synchronous polar orbits, the PSLV is also used to launch the satellites of lower lift-off mass of up to about 1400 Kg to the elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. It also uses strap-on motors to augment the thrust provided by the first stage, and depending on the number of these strap-on boosters, the PSLV is classified into various versions like core-alone version (PSLV-CA), PSLV-G, or PSLV-XL variants. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 36000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The satellite in GTO is further raised to its final destination, viz., Geosynchronous Earth orbit (GEO) of about 36000 Km altitude (and zero deg inclination on the equatorial plane) by firing its in-built on-board engines. Due to their geosynchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth, thus avoiding the need for a tracking ground antenna and hence are useful for the communication applications. GSLV Mk-II has the capability to launch satellites of lift-off mass of up to 2,500 kg to the GTO and satellites of up to 5,000 kg lift-off mass to the LEO. GSLV MK-II is a three-stage vehicle with the first stage using a solid rocket motor, second stage using Liquid fuel, and the third stage, called Cryogenic Upper Stage, using a cryogenic engine. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• What Is the Metaverse?

  • The metaverse is a digital reality that combines aspects of social media, online gaming, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and cryptocurrencies (blockchain) to allow users to interact virtually.

• AR/VR Technologies:

  • At its heart, the Metaverse is defined by its immersive experience for users, and this would not be possible without AR and VR. The Metaverse and VR are terms often used interchangeably, but there are some differences. The Metaverse is all about connected VR experiences. A single-player game in VR is not part of the Metaverse, but a shared meeting in VR is. In the future, the Metaverse may expand beyond VR to much more futuristic technologies.

• 3D Modeling:

  • To be a truly immersive platform, the Metaverse needs three-dimensional environments. There are hundreds of 3D modeling tools that will be foundational for businesses looking to create a Metaverse or VR-related product or service.

• Edge Computing:

  • Popular in commercial spaces, edge computing enables faster transfer of data with fewer delays which is necessary for high-quality immersive experiences in virtual spaces. When millions of people are having virtual experiences around the world, the cloud simply can‘t handle all of the processing power necessary to maintain the system. Instead, distributed computing can bring that processing closer to each user, making the entire experience much more fluid.

• 5G:

  • The Metaverse is all about connecting virtual experiences, but networking with VR can use enormous amounts of data. 5G technology, which is one of the latest mobile trends, has been improving over recent years, providing the power necessary for real-time data transfers. More importantly, 5G will enable people to connect to these AR/VR experiences from anywhere, not just in their homes.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this “good” ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.

• Statement 2 is correct: Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere. The layer closest to the Earth’s surface is the troposphere. Here, groundlevel or “bad” ozone is an air pollutant that is harmful to breathe and it damages crops, trees and other vegetation.

Near Field Communication Technology:

• Recently, Google Pay has launched the Tap to pay for UPI‘ feature in India, in collaboration with Pine Labs. The feature makes use of Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.

• NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two devices. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimeters from each other for data transfer to occur. To work, both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance.

• Applications of NFC - NFC tech has a wide range of applications besides driving payment services like Google Wallet and Apple Pay.

• It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-less tickets for public transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Contactless cards and readers use NFC to secure networks and buildings, monitor inventory and sales, prevent auto theft, keep tabs on library books, and run unmanned toll booths.

• What is ―CRISPR?

  • ―CRISPR (pronounced ―crisper) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats, which are the hallmark of a bacterial defense system that forms the basis for CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing technology. In the field of genome engineering, the ―CRISPR can be programmed to target specific stretches of genetic code and to edit DNA at precise locations, as well as for other purposes, such as new diagnostic tools. With these systems, researchers can permanently modify genes in living cells and organisms and, in the future, may make it possible to correct mutations at precise locations in the human genome in order to treat genetic causes of disease. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• How does the system work?

  • CRISPR ―spacer sequences are transcribed into short RNA sequences (―CRISPR RNAs or ―crRNAs) capable of guiding the system to matching sequences of DNA. When the target DNA is found, Cas9 – one of the enzymes produced by the CRISPR system – binds to the DNA and cuts it, shutting the targeted gene off. Using modified versions of Cas9, researchers can activate gene expression instead of cutting the DNA. These techniques allow researchers to study the gene‘s function. Research also suggests that CRISPR-Cas9 can be used to target and modify ―typos in the three-billion-letter sequence of the human genome in an effort to treat genetic disease.

• How does CRISPR-Cas9 compare to other genome editing tools?

  • CRISPR-Cas9 is proving to be an efficient and customizable alternative to other existing genome editing tools. Since the CRISPR-Cas9 system itself is capable of cutting DNA strands, CRISPRs do not need to be paired with separate cleaving enzymes as other tools do. They can also easily be matched with tailor-made ―guide RNA (gRNA) sequences designed to lead them to their DNA targets. Tens of thousands of such gRNA sequences have already been created and are available to the research community. CRISPR-Cas9 can also be used to target multiple genes simultaneously, which is another advantage that sets it apart from other gene-editing tools. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Dead zones are low-oxygen or hypoxic, areas in the world‘s oceans and lakes. Because most organisms need oxygen to live, few organisms can survive in hypoxic conditions. That is why these areas are called dead zones.

• Dead zones occur because of a process called eutrophication, which happens when a body of water gets too many nutrients, such as phosphorus and nitrogen. At normal levels, these nutrients feed the growth of an organism called cyanobacteria, or blue-green algae.

• Phosphorous, nitrogen, and other nutrients increase the productivity or fertility of marine ecosystems. Organisms such as phytoplankton, algae, and seaweeds will grow quickly and excessively on the water‘s surface. This rapid development of algae and phytoplankton is called an algal bloom. Algal blooms can create dead zones beneath them. Algal blooms prevent light from penetrating the water‘s surface.

• They also prevent oxygen from being absorbed by organisms beneath them Human activities are the main cause of these excess nutrients being washed into the ocean. For this reason, dead zones are often located near inhabited coastlines. Not all dead zones are caused by pollution. The largest dead zone in the world, the lower portion of the Black Sea, occurs naturally.

• Oxygenated water is only found in the upper portion of the sea, where the Black Sea's waters mix with the Mediterranean Sea that flows through the shallow Bosporus strait. As dead zones are deserts of the sea they are characterized by low biodiversity and absence of flora-fauna so coral reefs' possibility to grow is very less.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Look Out Notice:

  • A Lookout notice (LOC) is issued to make sure that an individual who is absconding or wanted by law enforcement agencies is not able to leave the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It is mostly used at immigration checkpoints at international airports and seaports by the immigration branch.

  • The police can approach a court asking for the restriction of a person‘s movement outside the country when a person is a suspect and the police apprehend that the person may not join the investigation at a later stage.

  • The subject of a LOC can challenge the circular and get relief from a court.

• Who can issue a LOC?

  • A LOC can be initiated by a large number of authorized officers, including an officer not below the rank of deputy secretary, an officer not below the rank of joint secretary in the state government, a district magistrate or superintendent of police, designated officers of various law enforcing and security agencies, a designated officer of Interpol, an officer not below the rank of additional director in the Serious Fraud Investigation Office, and the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Since 2018, an officer not below the rank of chairman/managing director/chief executive of any public sector bank can make a request.

  • A LOC can be modified/deleted/withdrawn by the Bureau of Immigration only on the specific request of the authorized originator on whose request the LOC was issued. Does a LOC lead to arrest? -Not necessarily. LOC is of many types. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

  • They can seek to merely stop a person against whom the circular has been issued from traveling outside the country, to prevent a person from entering the country, or inform the concerned investigation agencies.

  • The proforma of the LOC also contains a request to detain the individual at the local police/investigation agency, which generally leads to arrest.

• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

• It is aimed at wildlife conservation.

• Massive animal migrations are among nature's most inspiring events. Migration is a behavioral adaptation that helps animals survive. Some animals use landmarks like rivers and streams to find their way. Other animals may navigate by the position of the sun and stars and there are some species that may use the Earth's magnetic field to navigate. Different species migrate for different reasons.

• Red Crabs:

  • One of the most incredible migrations is the seasonal movement of the red crab across Australia's Christmas Island. Tens of millions of red crabs call this remote island home, and every year they transform the island into a vast moving red carpet as they move en masse to the ocean to lay their eggs. During periods of peak migration, Christmas Island's roads often must be closed as the crabs blanket the landscape. Scientists have recently discovered that hormonal changes cue the crabs to undertake their arduous journey.

• Wildebeests:

  • The most visible animal migration is the journey of Africa's wildebeest herds, which travel annually by the millions in search of greener pastures. Millions of wildebeests suddenly start migrating at the same time each year. Africa's vast savanna could not exist without migration, and maintaining these habitat corridors is essential to the survival of this area and its creatures.

• Salmon:

  • Salmon impressively travel hundreds of miles in inland freshwaters and up to 1,000 miles in the ocean during their migration to feeding grounds. On their return to their breeding grounds, they will even ascend thousands of feet up mountain streams. They do all of that navigation primarily by using the earth's magnetic field as a compass. When they get close to spawning areas, they use their sense of smell to find their way home.

• Northern Cardinal:

  • Northern Cardinals tend to sit low in shrubs and trees or forage on or near the ground, often in pairs. They are common at bird feeders but maybe inconspicuous away from them. They inhabited areas such as backyards, parks, woodlots, and shrubby forest edges. Northern Cardinals nest in dense tangles of shrubs and vines. They do not migrate from one place to other.

• Bats:

  • Although not all bat species are migratory, the ones that travel seasonally do so in spectacular fashion. The world's most massive mammal migration is the annual journey of Zambia's straw-colored fruit bats. An astounding 10 million bats blanket the air during the migration, as they travel to feed on their favorite fruits in the mushitu swamp forest.

• Green India Mission (GIM):

  • One of the 8 missions under NAPCC, implemented by MoEFCC. The mission uses both public and private lands and includes local communities in planning, decision making, monitoring, etc.

• Aim:

  • to respond to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures, which would help:

  • enhance carbon sinks

  • adaptation of vulnerable species/ecosystems to the changing climate

  • adaptation of forest-dependent communities

• Objectives:

  • Increase forest cover on 5 mha of forest/non-forest lands

  • Improve the quality of forest cover on another 5 mha

  • Improve ecosystem services including biodiversity, hydrological services, provisioning of fuel, fodder, timber, and NTFP

  • Forest-based livelihood income of about 3 million HHs

  • Enhance annual CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million tonnes by 2020

• The world can emit approximately 400 billion tonnes more of carbon dioxide i.e. Remaining Carbon Budget before hitting the 1.5°C limits, as per the IPCC sixth assessment report.

• A carbon budget is a cumulative amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions permitted over a period of time to keep within a certain temperature threshold. It is the maximum amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) that can be emitted while still having a chance to limit warming to 1.5°C or 2°C. When expressed relative to the pre-industrial period it is referred to as the Total Carbon Budget, and when expressed from a recently specified date it is referred to as the Remaining Carbon Budget. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Carbon budgets are constructed on the premise that there is a near-linear relationship between rising global temperatures and the level of cumulative atmospheric CO2.

• Global carbon budgets can be further divided into national emissions budgets so that countries can set specific climate mitigation goals.

• Emissions budgets are relevant to climate change mitigation because they indicate a finite amount of carbon dioxide that can be emitted over time, before resulting in dangerous levels of global warming.

• Change in global temperature is independent of the geographic location of these emissions and is largely independent of the timing of these emissions.

• Ecological fitting is "the process whereby organisms colonize and persist in novel environments, use novel resources or form novel associations with other species as a result of the suites of traits that they carry at the time they encounter the novel condition" The simplest form of the ecological fitting is resource tracking, in which an organism continues to exploit the same resources, but in a new host or environment. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Coevolution is the process of reciprocal evolutionary change that occurs between pairs of species or among groups of species as they interact with one another. The activity of each species that participates in the interaction applies selection pressure on the others. In a predator-prey interaction, for example, the emergence of faster prey may select against individuals in the predatory species who are unable to keep pace.

• Ecological succession is the process by which the mix of species and habitat in an area changes over time. Gradually, these communities replace one another until a ―climax community‖—like a mature forest—is reached, or until a disturbance, like a fire, occurs. Ecological succession is a fundamental concept in ecology. Exaptation is a term used in evolutionary biology to describe a trait that has been co-opted for a use other than the one for which natural selection has built it.

• Electoral Rolls for Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies:

  • The Representation of Peoples Act, 1950 (RPA), provides for the preparation, correction, and revision of Electoral rolls for both parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies. Besides it also has prescribed manner and comes into force immediately upon its final publication in accordance with the rules made under RPA, 1950. This electoral roll:

(a) shall, unless otherwise directed by the Election Commission, be revised in the prescribed manner by reference to the qualifying date

(i) before each general election to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of a State; and

(ii) before each bye-election to fill a casual vacancy in a seat allotted to the constituency;

(b) shall be revised in any year, if such revision has been directed by the Election Commission. If the electoral roll is not revised, the validity or continued operation of the previous electoral roll shall not be affected. Besides, the Election Commission may direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency at any time in such manner as it thinks fit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll:

  • The name of any person who becomes so disqualified after registration is struck off the electoral roll in which it is included. It is important to note that a person shall not be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency. Furthermore, no person shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for any constituency more than once. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• NOTE:

  • How many types of electoral rolls do we have in our country and why the distinction? In many states, the voters‘ list for the panchayat and municipality elections is different from the one used for Parliament and Assembly elections. The distinction stems from the fact that the supervision and conduct of elections in our country are entrusted to two constitutional authorities — the Election Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions (SECs). Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India, and to Parliament, the state assemblies, and the legislative councils. The SECs, on the other hand, supervise municipal and panchayat elections. They are free to prepare their own electoral rolls for local body elections, and this exercise does not have to be coordinated with the EC.

• So do all states have a separate voters list for their local body elections?

  • No, Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Some state laws allow the SEC to borrow and use the EC‘s voter rolls in toto for the local body elections. In others, the state commission uses the EC‘s voters list as the basis for the preparation and revision of rolls for municipality and panchayat elections. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional bodies, which are provided by the Governments of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former is of permanent nature while the latter is of temporary nature.

• They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers also act as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.

According to Article 51, the State shall endeavor to:

• Promote international peace and security;

• Maintain just and honorable relations between nations;

• Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and

• Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Hence all the statements are correct.

• Meghalaya has become the ninth state to withdraw the general consent to the CBI for investigation.

• The Central Bureau of Investigation traces its origin to the Special Police Establishment (SPE) which was set up in 1941 by the Government of India. The functions of the SPE then were to investigate cases of bribery and corruption in transactions with the War & Supply Deptt. Of India during World War II.

• The CBI derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946 which grants the CBI power to investigate a case in Delhi, without any permission, since it is part of the Centre. However, in all the states, the CBI needs the consent of the state to investigate any case relating to that state or having jurisdiction of that state since law and order is a state subject.

• There are two types of consent for a probe by the CBI. These are: general and specific.

  • When a state gives general consent (Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act) to the CBI for probing a case, the agency is not required to seek fresh permission every time it enters that state in connection with an investigation or for every case.

  • When general consent is withdrawn, CBI needs to seek case-wise consent for investigation from the concerned state government. If specific consent is not granted, the CBI officials will not have the power of police personnel when they enter that state.

• For other matters, the CBI needs the consent of the state government in whose territorial jurisdiction, the CBI has to conduct an investigation. This is unlike other central government agencies, for example, the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which by law, enjoys an all-India jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The CBI can begin a probe under certain circumstances:

  • if a state government makes a request and the Union government agrees to it, if the Supreme Court or any High Court orders the CBI to take up such investigations, or

  • if the state government issues a notification of consent under section 6 of the DSPE Act and the Union government issues notification under section 5 of the DSPE Act for an investigation.

  • The CBI can initiate suo-moto investigations only in Union Territories, under section 2 of the DSPE Act. It will have no impact on the investigation of cases already registered with CBI as old cases were registered when general consent existed. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The Constitution of India at present has 25 parts:

• Part I The Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4)

• Part II Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11)

• Part III Fundamental Rights ( Articles 12 to 35)

• Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51)

• Part IV-A Fundamental Duties (Articles 51-A)

• Part V The Union Government (Articles 52 to 151)

• Part VI The State Governments (Articles 152 to 237)

• Part VII The States in Part B of the First Schedule (deleted) 238 (deleted)

• Part VIII The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242)

• Part IX The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243– 0)

• Part IX-A The Municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG)

• Part IX-B The Co-operative Societies (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT)

• Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244- A)

• Part XI Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263)

• Part XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264 to 300- A)

• Part XIII Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307)

• Part XIV Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323)

• Part XIV-A Tribunals (Articles 323-A to 323-B)

• Part XV Elections (Articles 324 to 329- A)

• Part XVI Special Provisions relating to Certain Classes (Articles 330 to 342- A)

• Part XVII Official Language (Articles 343 to 351- A)

• Part XVIII Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360)

• Part XIX Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367)

• Part XX Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)

• Part XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392)

• Part XXII Short title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals (Articles 393 to 395)

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.

• Fundamental Rights can be amended. Any changes to the fundamental rights require a constitutional amendment that should be passed by both the Houses of Parliament. The amendment bill should be passed by a special majority of Parliament. Hence the statement in option (b) is correct, however, it is not the correct answer.

• The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.

• They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest, and the unity of the nation. The statement in option (d) is independently correct, however, it is not the correct answer.

• They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. Hence the statement in option (a) is correct however, it is not the correct answer.

• They are fundamental‘ in the sense that they are essential for the all-around development (material, intellectual, moral, and spiritual) of individuals.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

• While recommending MSP, CACP considers various factors viz. cost of production, overall demand- supply situations of various crops in domestic and world markets, domestic and international prices, inter- crop price parity, terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture sector, likely effect of price policy on rest of economy and a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955. The CACP is required to pay due regard to the statutory factors listed in the Control Order, which are the cost of production of sugarcane; the availability of sugar to the consumers at a fair price; the price of sugar etc. States also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the SMP. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.

• The list of crops are as follows:

  • Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi

  • Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed

  • Raw cotton

  • Raw jute

  • Copra

  • De-husked coconut

  • Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price)

  • Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco

Zebrafish

• Study by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI):

  • A protein found in the backbone of zebrafish plays a positive role in disc maintenance and promotes regeneration in aged discs between vertebrae.

  • This protein of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications to promote regeneration in degenerated human discs.

• Habitat:

  • Zebrafish typically inhabit moderately flowing to stagnant clear water of quite shallow depth in streams, canals, ditches, oxbow lakes, ponds and rice paddies.

  • Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.

• Characteristics that make them significant for research:

  • Transparent Embryo:

    • Zebrafish are useful because the embryo is transparent, it develops outside of its mother, and its development from eggs to larvae happens in just three days.

  • Faster development:

    • The other main advantage is that they develop incredibly fast.

    • So from a single cell the day they’re born, they will have a head, and a tail, and a beating heart within 24 hours. By 72 hours their brains are working, and fins and trunk are twitching, and by five days old they are swimming around and they’re hunting and they’re fully viable organisms.

    • This is perfect essentially for both geneticists and developmental biologists.

• Gross capital formation (GCF) refers to the aggregate of gross additions to fixed assets (i.e., fixed capital formation), increase in stocks of inventories ( i.e., change in stocks during a period of account), and net acquisition of valuables.

• In simple words Gross Capital Formation is Investment. The importance of the Gross Capital formation lies in the fact that this is that part of GDP which helps in the growth of the GDP itself.

• Broadly two types of fixed assets namely construction and machinery & equipment (including transport equipment, software, breeding stock, draught animals, dairy cattle, and the like) are covered.

• Construction activity covers all new constructions, major alterations, and repairs of: buildings, highways, streets, afforestation projects; installation of wind energy systems, etc.,

• Construction for military purposes (other than construction or alteration of family dwellings for military personnel), defense equipment, durable goods in the hands of the households, and an increase in the stocks of defense materials are excluded from the scope of gross capital formation. However Capital outlays of defense enterprises on ordinance and clothing factories are included. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Factors that may undermine a company's ability to repay loans include:

• An increase in the retail prices of petrol and diesel would lead to an increase in the overall cost of manufacturing. Higher input costs for manufacturers and service providers would leave them in a tough spot as they would have to choose between passing on the price increases to consumers — thus risking the already tenuous demand — and hurting their profitability if they opt to absorb the impact. Indian banks could end up facing delays in the repayment of loans or possibly even having to write them off as ̳bad‘ if oil prices continue to rise. Hence option 3 is correct.

• With the start of the U.S. Federal Reserve's calibrated monetary tightening to rein in inflation from a 40-year high in the US, the rupee is expected to weaken against the U.S. currency. With the exchange rate impacted, importers would have to shell out more rupees for the same dollar value of imports than before. Unless demand expands, allowing them to sell more volume, a weaker local currency eats into their profits, leaving them with lesser cash available to service loans. Hence option 2 is correct.

• Rising inflation, which is already just beyond the RBI‘s 6% upper tolerance limit, may nudge the central bank into raising benchmark interest rates. This means more interest will have to be paid by companies that would likely face the prospect of lesser profit. Lowering or decreasing the benchmark interest rate may enhance the company's ability to repay loans. Hence option 1 is not correct.

• An individual may hold her wealth in the form of landed property, bullion, bonds, money etc. Typically, bonds are papers bearing the promise of a future stream of monetary returns over a certain period of time. These papers are issued by governments or firms for borrowing money from the public and they are tradable in the market. Bond prices are inversely related to interest rates. When the interest rate goes up, the price of bonds falls; conversely, when the interest rate falls, the price of bonds goes up. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Different people have different expectations regarding the future movements in the market rate of interest based on their private information regarding the economy. Thus speculations regarding future movements in interest rate and bond prices give rise to the speculative demand for money. When the interest rate is very high everyone expects it to fall in future and hence anticipates capital gains from bond-holding. Hence people convert their money into bonds. Thus, speculative demand for money is low. When interest rate comes down, more and more people expect it to rise in the future and anticipate capital loss. Thus they convert their bonds into money giving rise to a high speculative demand for money. Hence speculative demand for money is inversely related to the rate of interest. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• According to the historical relationship known as the Phillips curve, the strengthening of the economy is commonly associated with increasing inflation. The traditionally inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation as shown in the Phillips curve has flattened. With inflation having only modestly picked up in the past few years as the economy has become more robust, many believe the Phillips curve relationship has weakened, with the curve becoming flatter.

• Many observers have been surprised that inflation has not risen more than it has in the past few years as the economy has continued to strengthen. According to the historical relationship known as the Phillips curve, the strengthening of the economy is commonly associated with increasing inflation.

• With inflation having only modestly picked up in the past few years as the economy has become more robust, many believe the Phillips curve relationship has weakened. This seemingly reduced sensitivity of inflation to economic conditions is commonly referred to as a flattening of the Phillips curve. The Phillips curve relationship depends on many economic factors, and the flattening may have been caused by a change in any of these factors. One possibility is that the flattening may have been caused by a change in the way monetary policy responds to inflation and economic conditions. Another possibility is that something else fundamental has changed in the economy, for instance, the openness of the economy to foreign trade or the way firms set wages and prices.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

The 24 Tirthankaras during this present age are:

• Adinatha (Lord Rishabha), Ajitanath, Sambhavanath, Abhinandannath, Sumatinath, Padmaprabha, Suparshvanath, Chandraprabha, Suvidhi, Shitalnath, Shreyansa, Vasupujya, Vimala, Anantanath, Dharmanath, Shantinath, Kunthunath, Aranath, Mallinath, Muni Suvrata, Nami Natha, Neminath, Parshvanath, and Mahavira.

  • Neminath is the twenty-second Tirthankara. It is believed in Jainism that he was the cousin of Lord Krishna.

  • Parshvanath, the twenty-third Tirthankara is said to have lived two centuries before Mahavir and is believed to be born in the city of Benaras.

  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Bahubali, also called Gommateshvara, was the son of the first Tirthankara Rishabhanatha.

• Jain pilgrimage site of Shravanabelagola near Bangalore is the colossal-sized monolithic statue of the Jain God Bahubali or Gomateshwara. Every 12 years, this piece of Jain craftsmanship is visited by thousands of pilgrims from around the world for a ceremony known as the Bahubali Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsav.

  • Sthulabhadra was the founder of the Svetambara Jain order during a 12-year famine in the Maurya Empire in the third or fourth century BC. He was a disciple of Bhadrabahu and Sambhutavijaya. His father was Sakatala, a minister in the Nanda kingdom.

• The Shvetambaras wore white cloth and covered their mouth with a small white cloth to avoid the killing of the smallest germ which may enter their nose while breathing. They fasted but did not believe in extreme penance and austerity.

• Digambaras sect was led by Bhadrabahu. They did not believe in covering their body as living without clothes show detachment from worldly pleasures. They were the orthodox followers of Mahavira and kept fasts and lived an extremely austere life.

• Urea & DAP:

  • Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while DAP contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N and MOP has 60% potassium (K). Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Urea:

  • Annual consumption of this nitrogenous fertilizer has risen from 30 to 35 million tonnes (mt) in the last five years.

• DAP:

  • Di-ammonium phosphate or DAP is also seeing a similar phenomenon of over-application.

• Underpricing of other fertilizers:

  • Government has fixed maximum retail prices of Urea & DAP. It has informally-fixed MRPs for NPKS complexes and muriate of potash (MOP).

  • Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher. So farmers have little incentive to buy other fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The post-Gupta period was characterized by certain changes in the Indian economy. Although prevailing from the pre- Gupta period one of the most striking developments from the Gupta and post- Gupta periods was the practice of making land grants. There was a commercial decline of trade which was set in during the Gupta period, and it became more pronounced by the middle of the 6th century CE. The inflow of Roman coins into India stopped and the emergence of the Arabs and the Persians as competitors in trade did not augur well for Indians. Along with the decline in International trade the long-distance internal trade also suffered owing to the weakening of links between coastal towns and the interior towns and further between towns and villages. This led to the emergence of the Jajamani system. Jajmani system was a complementary relationship between the groups of dominant peasant castes on the one hand and service and artisan castes on the other. In this system, the service castes rendered services to the land-owning peasant castes as well as the high and dominant castes. Under the Jajmani system, each caste group within a village provides certain social, religious, and economic services to the other castes members. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• For illustration, the brahmin performs various religious and ceremonial rituals like marriages, death ceremonies, etc., for other castes. In return for his services, the brahmin is paid in cash and kind. Similarly, other service castes like carpenter, blacksmith, barber, washerman, cobbler, etc., perform their caste-based occupational services for the members of the other communities. One of the distinctive aspects of the Jajmani system is that service relations between the Jajman (Producer) and the Prajim (Client) are regulated on a hereditary basis, according to the law of inheritance. Thus, the relations between the producer and the client are permanently maintained to provide continuity of service. The payment for the service is based on the barter system (in terms of grain at the harvest time), and cash is seldom paid. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The artisans were entitled to traditionally fixed shares of the produce and in some cases to a small plot of land. Different categories of artisans like leather-workers, barbers, ploughmen, and various types of smiths worked for the high castes or dominant landowning groups and were paid in kind on certain occasions or in the form of a land allotment. But the relationship between the patron-client is not like the master-servant relation. The Jajman is expected to meet the needs of his dependent and look after his family. Also, such service castes always retained some freedom to sell their goods and services. Thus, the system provides security of occupation for sustenance. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Dharmapala, the second ruler of the Pala dynasty, founded the Vikramashila Vihara (or Vikramashila Mahavihara) during the late 8th or early 9th century. He was a Buddhist king who ruled the region of present-day Bihar and Bengal in India.

Vikramashila Vihara was one of the most prominent centers of learning in ancient India, along with Nalanda and Taxila. It was known for its specialized education in Tantric Buddhism and attracted students from various parts of India as well as from neighboring countries like China and Tibet. It flourished for around four centuries before being destroyed during the invasion of the region by Muslim forces in the 12th century.

Dharmapala established this institution to promote and preserve Buddhist teachings and to provide a platform for scholars to engage in intellectual discussions and debates. The high-quality education provided at Vikramashila Vihara made it famous, and it played a significant role in the development of Buddhism during that era.

• Since the time of the 6th century BCE, there had been a continuous expansion of agriculture along with the rise in urban centres. There was an immense rise in the number of towns and technologically the Mauryan economy and state were on a sound footing. With the rise in urbanism, there was a rise in trade and commerce which further led to the widespread use of metallic money for transaction purposes. Arthashastra of Kautilya also mentions about the minting of coins.

• Statement 1 is correct: The use of coinage had become prevalent in the 6th century BCE, but now due to the development of commerce, coins became a common occurrence. The salaries of the officials were paid in cash and metallic money was used for the transaction to be paid in cash.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Mauryan empire issued a lot of Punchmarked coins which were mostly silver. Karshapana or Kahapana were wild used silver coin series of this period. The coins of this period are without legends and mostly contain uniform symbols. However, the first gold coins were issued by Indo-Greeks. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman.

• Statement 3 is not correct: Though there seems to be a central authority for the issuance of coins, however, punch-marked coins of the Mauryas do not specify issuing authority. They do carry certain symbols that have been associated with Mauryan kings that including symbols like crescent-on-arches, tree in-railing, and peacock-on-arches.

  • The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent in the second century BCE.

• Air mass source regions also tend to have relatively uniform atmospheric conditions associated with them.

• It is critical that air masses have time to take on the characteristics of the underlying surface.

• If the weather is very changeable (for instance, fronts moving through the region) there will not be sufficient time for the air mass to take on the temperature and humidity characteristics of the source region. For this reason, most air mass source regions tend to be either above 60 degrees of latitude (no warm air) or below 30 degrees of latitude (no cold air).

• Air mass source regions are rarely found in the mid-latitudes (from 30 to 60 degrees N/S) because these areas tend to be "combat" zones between warm and cold air masses. In these latitudes, there is considerable cyclonic and frontal activity and due to this coming together of different air masses does not offer sufficient time for air masses to fully develop. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Conditions for the formation of Air masses:

  • Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation (slightly at high pressure).

  • Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal source regions.

  • Absence of cyclonic and frontal activities.