UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 23 - UPSC MCQ

• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister. Hence option (a) is correct. 
• The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its proclamation by the President. Once approved by both the houses of the Parliament the emergency continues for six months. Hence option (b) is correct. 
• After completion of six months, the emergency can be extended for another six months with the approval of both the houses of Parliament. Thus the emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired. 
• Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, that is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. Impeachment resolution of the President is one case where a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the house is required for approval. Hence, option (c) is not correct. 
• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence option (d) is correct

• Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. Democracy is the most prevalent form of government in the world today and it is expanding to more countries.
•  Generally, there are two types of democracy: direct and representative. In a direct democracy, the people directly deliberate and decide on legislature. In a representative democracy, the people elect representatives to deliberate and decide on legislature, such as in parliamentary or presidential democracy. 
• Arguments for democracy 
  1. democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  2. Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. Through discussions and debates, it is possible to point out mistakes in any decision. Thus, it improves the quality of decision-making. 
  3. Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts by peaceful and participative resolution of differences of opinions and interests.
  4. Democracy is based on the principle of political equality, on recognising that the poorest and the least educated has the same status as the rich and the educated. Hence, it enhances the dignity of citizens.
  5. It allows for the correction of mistakes either by the leaders or by the people through a change of leadership. 
• Limitations of democracy
  1. Democracy leads to frequent changes in leadership. Sometimes this can set back big decisions and affect the government’s efficiency. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  2. Involving the people in decision making leads to delays in decision making. Also, it does not guarantee that participative decisions will be good. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  3. Democracy does not ensure economic equality. Despite being the largest democracy, it has not ended poverty in our country and in other parts of the world. Hence statement 4 is not correct.

• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. The Constitution provides six Fundamental Rights:
  1. Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
  2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22)
  3. Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
  4. Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
  5. Cultural and educational rights of minority groups (Articles 29–30)
  6. Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32) 
• Right to Freedom (Article 19-22) consists of: 
  1. Article 19: It provides for the protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc(1) All citizens shall have the right:
     (i) to freedom of speech and expression;
     (ii) to assemble peaceably and without arms;
     (iii) to form associations or unions;
     (iv) to move freely throughout the territory of India;
     (v) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
     (vi) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business 
  2. Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences. 
  3. Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty. 
  4. Article 21A: Right to elementary education. 
  5. Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. 
• The Supreme Court held that the trade unions have no guaranteed right to effective bargaining or right to strike or right to declare a lock-out. The right to strike can be controlled by appropriate industrial law. Hence, the option (c) is correct.

• Recent Context: Delhi is facing small but frequent shocks and this phenomenon is being compared to Palghar earthquake swarms (Maharashtra).
  1. Option (a) is not correct: The amount of energy released in an earthquake is known as seismic energy. 
  2. Option (b) is not correct: An abrupt movement of geological materials downhill in response to gravity is known as a landslide. Landslides can be triggered by an earthquake or other natural causes. 
  3. Option (c) is correct: According to the Swiss Seismological Service, swarms are numerous earthquakes that occur locally over an extended period, without a clear sequence of high intensity main quakes, preceded and succeeded by lower-intensity foreshocks and aftershocks. When seismic energy piles up inside the Earth and is released in small amounts from certain points, such a series of earthquakes can occur. Sometimes, these are also accompanied by acoustic or sound emissions.
  4. Option (d) is not correct: A more or less continuous motion in the Earth that is unrelated to an earthquake and that has a period of 1.0 to 9.0 seconds is called a microseism. It is caused by a variety of natural and artificial agents.

1. Recent Context: GI tag has been given to Black rice of Manipur also called the Chak-Hao. 
2. About Chak - Hao ( Black Rice) of Manipur: 
   • Black rice variety has a deep black colour and is higher by weight than that of other coloured rice varieties like brown rice, etc. This is mainly due to the anthocyanin agent. 
3. Related Information about Geographical Indication Tags: 
   • A GI or Geographical Indication is a name or a sign given to certain products that relate to a specific geographical location or origins like a region, town or country. 
   • Using Geographical Indications may be regarded as a certification that the particular product is produced as per traditional methods, has certain specific qualities, or has a particular reputation because of its geographical origin. 
   • Geographical Indications are covered as a component of intellectual property rights (IPRs) under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. 
   • At the International level, GI is governed by the World Trade Organisation’s (WTO’s) Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). 
   • In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 2003.

1. Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories or cede own territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation 
2. Article 2
   • It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. 
3. Article 3 
   • It relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, it deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India. 
   • The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. 
4. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act (2015) was enacted to give effect to the acquiring of certain territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh in pursuance of the agreement and its protocol entered into between the Governments of India and Bangladesh.
5. Under this deal, India transferred III enclaves to Bangladesh, while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves to India.
6. The settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. It was ruled by the Supreme Court in 1969

1. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity. 
2. There was no unanimity in the Constituent Assembly with regard to the name of the country. Some members suggested the traditional name (Bharat) while other advocated the modern name (India). Hence, the Constituent Assembly had to adopt a mix of both (‘India, that is, Bharat’). Secondly, the country is described as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure. 
3. According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: 
   • The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
   • The states have no right to secede from the federation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
4. The federation is a Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration

1. CBI is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body and enjoys the status of an attached office to the Ministry of Personnel. 
2. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (DSPE), 1946. 
3. With the passage of time, requests were made by various quarters for CBI to take up investigation even in conventional crimes like assassinations, kidnappings, hijackings, crimes committed by extremists, violation of Official Secrets Act, large scale Banks and Insurance Frauds etc. and others specific cases like Bhagalpur Blindings, Bhopal Gas Tragedy etc. Since early 1980's, constitutional courts also started referring cases to CBI for enquiry/investigation on the basis of petitions filed by the aggrieved persons in cases of murders, dowry deaths, rape etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
4. Thus, CBI has grown into a multidisciplinary investigation agency over a period of time. Today it has the following three divisions for investigation of crime:
   • Anti-Corruption Division - for investigation of cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 against Public officials and the employees of Central Government, Public Sector Undertakings, Corporations or Bodies owned or controlled by the Government of India - it is the largest division having presence almost in all the States of India. 
   • Economic Offences Division - for investigation of major financial scams and serious economic frauds, including crimes relating to Fake Indian Currency Notes, Bank Frauds and Cyber Crime. 
   • Special Crimes Division - for investigation of serious, sensational and organized crime under the Indian Penal Code and other laws on the requests of State Governments or on the orders of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
5.  The laws under which CBI can investigate Crime are notified by the Central Government under section 3 of the DSPE Act, 1946. 
6. CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences notified in DSPE act, only in the Union Territories. 
7. Taking up investigation by CBI in the boundaries of a State requires the prior consent of that State as per Section 6 of the DSPE Act.
8. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. 
9. The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate such a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State. 
10. CVC shall exercise superintendence over the functioning of the CBI insofar as it relates to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Hence statement 2 is correct.

1. Recent Context: In a bid to financially empower tribals during the COVID-19 crisis, the Centre has increased the minimum support price (MSP) of minor forest produce (MFP) by 16-30%. The list of products will include 20 new items such as cardamom, turmeric and ginger, ban tulsi, ban jeera and raw bamboo brooms. Forest products collected by tribals in northeastern states will also be included. 
2. Section 2(4) of the Indian Forest Act 1927 defines only "forest-produce" and this term connotes to those products whether found in, or brought from a forest such as timber, charcoal, caoutchouc, catechu, wood-oil, resin, natural varnish, bark, lac, mahua flowers, mahua seeds, kuth and myrobalans, trees and leaves, flowers and fruits, and all other parts or produce of trees, plants not being trees (including grass, creepers, reeds, and moss), and all parts or produce of such plants, wild animals and skins, tusks, horns, bones, silk, cocoons, honey and wax, and all other parts or produce of animals, and peat, surface soil, rock and minerals (including limestone, laterite, mineral oils), and all products of mines or quarries; 
3. Statement 1 is not correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted. Section 2(i) of the said Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like. Thus, the definition of “minor forest produce” includes bamboo and cane, thereby changing the categorization of bamboo and cane as “trees” under the Indian Forest Act 1927.

1. Ordinarily, all business of the legislature requires that a motion or resolution or bill should get the support of a simple majority of the members voting at that time.
   • Suppose that at the time of voting on a bill, 247 members were present in the house and all of them participated in the voting on the bill. Then, the bill would be passed if at least 124 members voted in favor of the bill. 
2. It is not so in the case of an amendment bill. Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special majorities:
   • in the first place, those voting in favor of the amendment bill should constitute at least half of the total strength of that House.
   • Secondly, the supporters of the amendment bill must also constitute two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting. 
3. In the Lok Sabha total seats are 552. However, some of the seats are vacant and there are 545 members. Therefore, any constitutional amendment must be supported by a minimum of 273 members. Even if only 300 members are present at the time of voting, the amendment bill must get the support of 273 out of them.

1. The objectives of the NITI Aayog are: 
   • To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities with the active involvement of States. 
   • To foster cooperative federalism. 
   • To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government. (Integrate villages institutionally into the development process) 
   • To focus on technology up-gradation and capacity building 
   • To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy 
   • To provide advice and encourage partnerships between key stakeholders 
   • To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and interdepartmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda. 
   • To leverage India's demographic dividend. 
2. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

1. The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. These writs are borrowed from English law where they are known as ‘prerogative writs’.
2. Mandamus: It is a command issued by a court to an authority directing it to perform a public duty imposed upon it by law. Mandamus can be issued when the Government denies to itself a jurisdiction which it undoubtedly has under the law, or where an authority vested with a power improperly refuses to exercise it. The function of mandamus is to keep the public authorities within the limits of their jurisdiction while exercising public functions. Mandamus can be issued to any kind of authority in respect of any type of function – administrative, legislative, quasi-judicial and judicial. Mandamus is used to enforce the performance of public duties by public authorities. Mandamus is not issued when the Government is under no duty under the law. When an authority fails in its legal duty to implement an order of a tribunal, mandamus can be issued directing the authority to do so. Thus, when the appellate transport tribunal accepted the applications of the petitioner for grant of permits, mandamus was issued to the concerned authority to issue the permits to the petitioner in terms of the tribunal order. Mandamus is issued to enforce a mandatory duty which may not necessarily be a statutory duty. Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• The expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 is different from the expression ‘due process of law’ contained in the American Constitution. The procedure established by law means a law that is duly enacted by the legislature is valid if it has followed the correct procedure. In this, the court would assess that whether there is a law, whether the Legislature is competent to frame the law and whether it had followed the procedure laid down to legislate and would not assess the intent of the said law. Therefore under this concept, the validity of a law that has prescribed a procedure cannot be questioned on the ground that the law is unreasonable, unfair, or unjust. If Parliament passes a law, then the life or personal liberty of a person can be taken off according to the provisions and procedures of that law. 
• On the other hand, 'due process of law' doctrine not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also see if the law made is fair, just and not arbitrary. This doctrine provides for more fair treatment of individual rights. Under due process, it is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws that state enact must conform to the laws of the land like – fairness, fundamental rights, liberty, etc. 
• In the Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21. The protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. But, in Menaka case12 (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21 and has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action. Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

1. The Constitution prescribes imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356 on two grounds—one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365: 
   • Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e, even without the governor’s report). 
   • Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. 
2. The Constitution prescribes imposition of President's Rule only on the grounds mentioned under Article 356 and 365. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. There is no mention of 'violent incident disrupting law and order' in the constitution as the ground for imposition of President's Rule. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is actively considering introducing Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) for liquidity management, based on which banks can park as much money as they want without getting collateral, and at a lower rate than the reverse repo to absorb additional liquidity with the banks. The SDF, when introduced, will become the lower bound of the corridor for the liquidity management window.

1. Recent Context: The suspension of Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) for two years was one of the many measures that the central government has taken in preparation for a fight against coronavirus. 
2. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by the Government of India. The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores. But this amount is not disbursed directly to MP but to the District Authority of the chosen district. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
3. Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies and Elected Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the State of Election.
4. Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
5. A Member of Parliament shall give his choice of Nodal District in Annexure I of the guidelines to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation with a copy to the State Government and to the District Magistrate of the chosen District. If a Lok Sabha Constituency is spread over more than one District, the Member of Parliament can choose any one of the Districts as Nodal District in his/her constituency. The Rajya Sabha MP can choose any District in his/her State of Election as Nodal District. Nominated Members of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can choose any District in the country as Nodal District. Ministry of Statistics & Programme is the nodal ministry. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

1. Statement 1 is not correct: Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog and National Informatics Centre (NIC) in April 2020, jointly launched CollabCAD, a collaborative network, computer-enabled software system, providing a total engineering solution from 2D drafting & detailing to 3D product design. 
2. Statement 2 is correct: The aim of this initiative is to provide a great platform to students of Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) across country to create and modify 3d designs with free flow of creativity and imagination. This software would also enable students to create data across the network and concurrently access the same design data for storage and visualization. This software would also enable students to create data across the network and concurrently access the same design data for storage and visualization. As 3D printing has become a significant part of 21st-century innovations, designing through Collab CAD will help over 2.5 million students who will be able to access it.

1. Article 324 of the Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other election commissioners (ECs), if any, as the president may from time to time fix. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
2. Today, the Election Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners. 
3. The CEC and the two other ECs have equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances. (similar to that of a judge of the Supreme Court). 
4. In case of difference of opinion amongst the CEC and/or two other ECs, the matter is decided by the Commission by a majority. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
5. The CEC is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. 
6. Other ECs, cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Core features of Indian Constitution are:
  1. Constitution reinforces and reinvents forms of liberal individualism through various fundamental rights. This is an important achievement because this is done in the backdrop of a society where community values are often indifferent or hostile to individual autonomy. 
  2. Constitution upholds the principle of social justice without compromising on individual liberties. The constitutional commitment to caste-based affirmative action programme shows how much ahead India was compared to other nations. 
  3. Against the background of inter-communal strife, the Constitution upholds its commitment to group rights (the right to the expression of cultural particularity). Unlike Germany or France we have several linguistic and religious communities. It was important to ensure that no one community systematically dominates others. This made it mandatory for our Constitution to recognise community based rights.

• Till 1947, Sikkim was an Indian princely state ruled by Chogyal. 
• In 1947, after the lapse of British paramountcy, Sikkim became a ‘protectorate’ of India, whereby the Indian Government assumed responsibility for the defense, external affairs and communications of Sikkim. 
• In 1974, Sikkim expressed its desire for greater association with India. Accordingly, the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act (1974) was enacted by the parliament. This amendment introduced a new class of statehood under the constitution by conferring on Sikkim the status of an ‘associate state’ of the Indian Union. For this purpose, a new Article 2A and a new schedule (Tenth Schedule containing the terms and conditions of association) were inserted in the Constitution. 
• This experiment, however, did not last long as it could not fully satisfy the aspirations of the people of Sikkim. 
• In a referendum held in 1975, they voted for the abolition of the institution of Chogyal and Sikkim becoming an integral part of India.

• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. 
• The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review. 
• A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting. Hence, option (c) is correct.

1. The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of National Human Rights Commission and State Human Rights Commission at the state level. 
2. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution. 
3. However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case. 
4. The chairperson and members of SHRC are appointed by the Governor. Whereas, in the case of NHRC, they are appointed by the President of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
5. Although the chairperson and members of an SHRC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence statement 2 is correct.

1. Usually, interest groups seek to promote the interests of a particular section or group of society. Trade unions, business associations, and professionals (lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc.) bodies are some examples of this type. They are sectional because they represent a section of society: workers, employees, businesspersons, industrialists, followers of a religion, caste group, etc. Their principal concern is the betterment and well-being of their members, not society in general. 
2. Sometimes these organizations are not about representing the interest of one section of society. They represent some common or general interest that needs to be defended. The members of the organization may not benefit from the cause that the organization represents. These second type of groups are called promotional groups or public interest groups. They promote collective rather than selective good. They aim to help groups other than their own members. For example, a group fighting against bonded labor fights not for itself but for those who are suffering under such bondage.

The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation: 

1. By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship. 
2. By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. 
3. By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if: 
   • the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud: 
   • the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India: 
   • the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war; 
   • the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and 
   • the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

1. The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains many features of a federation, viz: 
   • two government 
   • division of powers 
   • written Constitution
   • supremacy of Constitution
   • rigidity of Constitution 
   • independent judiciary
   • bicameralism. 
2. However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features, viz. 
   • a strong Centre
   • single Constitution 
   • single citizenship 
   • flexibility of Constitution 
   • integrated judiciary 
   • appointment of state governor by the Centre 
   • all-India services
   • emergency provisions, and so on.

1. NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence it is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In other words, it is an extra-constitutional non-statutory body. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
2. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. 
3. While designing strategic and long-term policies and programs for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
4. Unlike the Planning Commission era, NITI Aayog provides a collaborative setting and a "bottom-up" approach. Hence statement 3 is correct.

1. Integration of Princely States 
2. At the time of independence, India comprised two categories of political units, namely, the British provinces (under the direct rule of British government) and the princely states (under the rule of native princes but subject to the paramountcy of the British Crown). 
3. The Indian Independence Act (1947) created two independent and separate dominions of India and Pakistan and gave three options to the princely states viz., joining India, joining Pakistan, or remaining independent. 
4. Of the 552 princely states situated within the geographical boundaries of India, 549 joined India and the remaining 3 (Hyderabad, Junagarh, and Kashmir) refused to join India.

1. Ambubachi Mela o It is a festival marking the annual menstruation of the presiding Goddess at Guwahati’s Kamakhya temple. It is also called ‘Mahakumbh of the East’.
   • It is closely associated with Tantric Shakti cult prevalent in eastern parts of India and also known as Ameti or Tantric fertility festival. 
   • The Kamakhya temple is atop the Nilachal Hills, facing Brahmaputra River. 
   • A similar custom is followed at the Chengannur Mahadeva Temple (also called Bhagavathy Temple) in the Alleppey district of Kerala. 
2. Chaitra Jatra o It is celebrated at the Tara Tarini hill shrine in Odisha. The shrine is located at a hilltop on the banks of Rushikulya river. Rishkulya is the biggest breeding ground of Olive Ridley Turtles. 
3. Vishu 
   • It is celebrated in Kerala. This festival involves worship of Lord Vishnu and Lord Krishna by the devotees. 
4. Rongali Bihu 
   • It is celebrated in Assam. It is also called Bohag Bihu.
   • It marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year. 
   • Assamese celebrate Bihu thrice a year, which signifies the distinct cycles of farming - Bhogali/Magh Bihu (January), Bohag/Rongali Bihu (April), and Kongali Bihu (October).

• The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the parliament and the Constitution are: 
  1. audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. 
  2. He audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India and of each state. 
  3. He audits all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues, Government companies, etc. 
  4. He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. E.g.: the audit of local bodies.
  5. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to President (to the governor), who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of the Parliament (state legislature). 
  6. He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. 
  7. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments. In 1976, he was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Central Government. Hence option (c) is the answer.

1. In the Mandal case judgment (1992), the Supreme Court directed the central government to constitute a permanent statutory body to examine the complaints of under inclusion, overinclusion, or non-inclusion of any class of citizens in the list of backward classes. Accordingly, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was established in 1993. 
2. The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred a constitutional status on the Commission and inserted a new Article 338-B specific for NCBC. 
3. The Commission consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and three other members. 
4. They are appointed by the President. 
5. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President. 
6. NCBC presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. 
7. The main function of the commission is to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the socially and educationally backward classes (OBCs). 
8. National Commission for SCs (NCSC) has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upon their working. 
9. Till 2018, the NCSC was also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs). It was relieved from this responsibility by the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.