UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 29 - UPSC MCQ

• The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

The Justice S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (September 2018) case, where the apex court unanimously recognised the fundamental right to privacy of every individual guaranteed by the Constitution.

• The term "Lokpal" was coined by Dr. L.M.Singhvi in 1963. 

• The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till attaining age of 70 years.

• The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of chairperson are equivalent to Chief Justice of India and members is equivalent to Judge of Supreme Court. If the person is already getting the pension (for being a former judge), the equivalent pension amount will be deducted from the salary.

• The source of salary for Lokpal and Members is Consolidated Fund of India.

• Announced in the 2017 Union Budget, electoral bonds are interest-free bearer instruments used to donate money anonymously to political parties. A bearer instrument does not carry any information about the buyer or payee and the holder of the instrument (which is the political party) is presumed to be its owner.

• S2: The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 100,000 and Rs 1 crore (the range of a bond is between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore).

• S3: The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 10 days in the beginning of every quarter

Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the four other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.

Source: India and Myanmar share a 1,643 km unfenced border along Arunachal Pradesh (520 km), Nagaland (215 km), Manipur (398 km) and Mizoram (510 km) and permit a ‘free movement’ regime upto 16 km beyond the border.

Article 16 of the Constitution of India, talks about the right of equal opportunity in the matters of public employment.

• S1: The Moon is Earth's only natural satellite.

• S2: Why are we interested in studying the moon?

• The Moon is the closest cosmic body at which space discovery can be attempted and documented.
• It is also a promising test bed to demonstrate technologies required for deep-space missions.
• The Moon provides the best linkage to Earth’s early history.
• It offers an undisturbed historical record of the inner Solar system environment.

• S3: The Chandrayaan-2 mission, which was lost after it hard- landed on the dark side of the Moon in 2019, remains active in the form of its orbiter hovering over the Moon.

• The lander and rover malfunctioned in the final moments and crashlanded, getting destroyed in the process.
• The primary objective of Chandrayaan 2 was to demonstrate the ability to soft-land on the lunar surface and operate a robotic rover on the surface.

• S1: The aim of the Rules is to create a 'digital sky platform' ("the Platform") which is a business-friendly single-window online system, with minimum human interference, where most of the permissions will be self-generated.
• Testing of drones for issuance of Type Certificate to be carried out by Quality Council of India or authorised testing entities.
• S2: Nano and model drones (made for research or recreation purposes) are exempt from type certification.
• S3: Type Certificate required only when a drone is to be operated in India. Importing and manufacturing drones purely for exports are exempt from type certification and unique identification number.

What is a whip?

• A whip is an official of a political party who acts as the party’s ‘enforcer’ inside the legislative assembly or house of parliament.
• Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips — this member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips.
• India inherited the concept of the whip from the British parliamentary system.
• The anti-defection law (10th Schedule) provides for disqualification of a legislator if he votes contrary to the party whip. As a result, members are compelled to obey the party whip, in order to avoid losing their seat in the House.

The London Convention: Its objective is to promote the effective control of all sources of marine pollution and to take all practicable steps to prevent pollution of the sea by dumping of wastes and other matter.

Attorney General of India: The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG is the highest law officer in the country. Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India. Appointment and Eligibility: AG is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. S/he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. s/he must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President. Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution. Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time). Duties and Functions: To give advice to the Government of India (GoI) upon such legal matters, which are referred to her/him by the President. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to her/him by the President. To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in which the GoI is concerned. To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court) of the Constitution.

The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation. The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year.

The factors that cause these variations in insolation are:
(i) The rotation of earth on its axis
(ii) The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays
(iii) The length of the day
(iv) The transparency of the atmosphere
(v) The configuration of land in terms of its aspect Thus, all the given factors cause variation in the amount of insolation.

Supercomputers are used for a wide range of computationally intensive tasks in various fields, including quantum mechanics, weather forecasting, flood prediction, climate research, oil and gas exploration, genomics and drug discovery.

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It is involved in data gathering and analysis, research, field projects, advocacy, and education. IUCN’s mission is to “influence, encourage and assist societies throughout the world to conserve nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable”. Over the past decades, IUCN has widened its focus beyond conservation ecology and now incorporates issues related to sustainable development in its projects. IUCN does not itself aim to mobilize the public in support of nature conservation. It tries to influence the actions of governments, business and other stakeholders by providing information and advice, and through building partnerships. The organization is best known to the wider public for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide. IUCN has observer and consultative status at the United Nations and plays a role in the implementation of several international conventions on nature conservation and biodiversity. It was involved in establishing the World Wide Fund for Nature and the World Conservation Monitoring Centre.

Which medicines and devices are included in the NLEM? Some of the most common drugs and medical devices, including paracetamol tablets, azithromycin tablets, oral rehydration salts, glucose injections, contraceptives like copper IUDs, condoms, insulin injections, Vitamin C tablets, and multivitamin tablets, are in the NLEM.

The procurement policy of Government of India (GOI) is open ended, under which paddy and wheat offered by farmers all over the country within the stipulated period (conforming to specifications prescribed in advance by GOI) are purchased for Central Pool at Minimum Support Price (MSP) by Food Corporation of India (FCI)/State Governments/State Government Agencies to help farmers get remunerative price and prevent distress sell. However, if any producer/farmer gets better price in comparison to MSP, he/she is free to sell his/her produce in open market

What is avian influenza or bird flu?

It is a highly contagious viral disease caused by Influenza Type A viruses which generally affects poultry birds such as chickens and turkeys. There are many strains of the virus – some of them are mild and may merely cause a low egg production or other mild symptoms among chickens, while others are severe and lethal.

How does the bird flu spread?

Wild aquatic birds such as ducks and geese are the natural reservoir of Influenza A viruses and the central players in the ecology of these viruses. Many birds carry the flu without developing sickness, and shed it in their droppings. Since birds excrete even while flying, they provide “a nice aerosol of influenza virus, shedding it all over the world”

The Census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1948 and Rules made there under. All information collected under the Census is confidential and will not be shared with any agency – Government or private. Certain information collected under the NPR will be published in the local areas for public scrutiny and invitation of objections. According to the SECC website, “all the personal information given in the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is open for use by Government departments to grant and/or restrict benefits to households”.

All the given statements are correct.

1. Trans-fats are primarily industrially produced through a process called hydrogenation, which solidifies liquid oils and increases their shelf life. Some trans-fats are also naturally present in small amounts in meat and dairy products, but the majority of trans-fats in our diet come from processed and fried foods containing hydrogenated oils.

2. Repeated use of oil at high temperatures, such as in deep frying, can cause the formation of trans-fats. When oils are heated to high temperatures, their chemical structure changes, leading to the production of trans-fats.

3. It is often believed that if trans-fats are to be replaced with healthier substitutes, one must compromise on food taste and cost. However, this is not necessarily true. Many food manufacturers and restaurants have successfully replaced trans-fats with healthier alternatives, such as monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats, without significantly affecting taste or cost.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973- The Supreme court of India ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under article 368(Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures) does not enable it to alter the basic structure of the constitution. However, the constitution is neither too rigid nor too flexible in terms of amendment.
• Statement 2 is correct: Some provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the parliament. These amendments do not come under Article 368.
  These provisions include:
  • Admission or establishment of new states, Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
  • Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
  • Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
  • Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
  • Citizenship-acquisition and termination.
  • Allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
  • Quorum in Parliament.
  • Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
  • Rules of procedure in Parliament.
  • Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
  • Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
  • Delimitation of constituencies.
  • Union territories
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Use of the English language in Parliament requires a simple majority of parliament for amendment and this amendment does not come under Article 368.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The dual system of government was introduced by the Pitt’s India Act, 1784 where the Court of Directors of the Company were to look after the commercial affairs of the Company while the Board of Control was responsible for civil, military and revenue functions
  of the Company.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act of 1786 was enacted to extend special privileges to Lord Cornwallis. He was made both the governor general and the commander-in-chief. Later this power was extended to all the future governor generals.

• Statement 1 is correct: Some provisions of the Charter Act, 1793:
  • Renewal of Company’s privileges for another term of 20 years.
  • Debarring senior officials of the Company from leaving India without permission.
  • Separation of revenue administration from the judicial functions. Abolition of Maal Adalats.
  • Payment of members of the board of control from the revenues of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It was the Charter Act of 1833 which was termed as the St. Helena Act.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The strength of the Court of Directors was not reduced by the Charter Act of 1793.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Montagu Chelmsford reforms or the Government of India Act, 1919 introduced bicameralism at the central level.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ordinance making power was extended to the viceroy by the Indian Councils Act, 1861.
• Statement 3 is correct: The elected members were indirectly elected by the members of the electoral college. Local bodies elected the members of the electoral college, who further elected the members of the provincial legislatures who in turn elected the members of the central legislature.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Formation of Muslim League occurred in December 1905 by Nawab Salimullah of Dacca, Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk and Waqar-ul- Mulk. Hence, Muslim League preceded the Act of 1909.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1833 made efforts for the abolition of slavery in India. 
  Other provisions of the Charter Act of 1833 are:
  • Governor General of Bengal became the Governor General of India (Lord William Bentinck was the first such Governor General of India) with all the civil and military powers.
  • It completely ended the monopoly of the Company as a commercial body which became a purely administrative entity.
• Statement 2 is correct: It was during the tenure of Lord Ellenborough that slavery was abolished from India in 1843

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The office of the secretary of state was created in the Government of India Act, 1858. Hence, it was not created before the revolt of 1857.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Board of Control and the Court of Directors which provided for the dual system of government in the Regulating Act of 1784 was abolished by the Government of India Act,1858. Hence, the Secretary of State was not the head of the Board of Control. He was a member of the British cabinet and oversaw the entire Indian administration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The office of the Secretary of State was abolished in the Indian Independence Act of 1947. The council of India which was established in the Government of India Act, 1858 to assist the Secretary of state was abolished in the Government of India Act, 1935.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Federal Court was created by the Government of India Act, 1935.
  Other provisions of this Act are:
  • The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • It divided the powers between the Federal and the provincial subjects on two lists- Federal list and the Provincial list, with all the residuary powers given to the viceroy.
  • Burma was separated from India as per the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • Provided for the establishment of the Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.
  • Provided for the establishment of Federal Public Service Commission, Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission.
  • Extended Franchise to 10 percent of the population.
  • Extended the principle of Communal electorate for depressed classes, women, and labour.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Sir Elijah Impey was the first chief justice of the Supreme Court established under the Regulating Act of 1773 while Sir Maurice Gwyer was the first chief Justice of the Federal Court established as per the Government of India Act, 1935.

• The direct elections were introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 or the Montagu Chelmsford reforms.
• The Board of Control was abolished by the Government of India Act, 1858 and was established by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
• Separate Electorates for the Women was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935.
• The provision for the establishment of the Federal Court was provided in the Government of India Act, 1935. The Court was formally established in 1937.
• The Vernacular Press Act was passed by Lord Lytton in 1878. It was called the ‘gagging act’ for imposing severe restrictions on Indian language newspapers.
• The report of the Simon Commission was laid in 1930.
• Hence, the correct sequence is 2-5-1-6-3-4.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for dyarchy at the central level. The subjects at the Federal level were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Dyarchy in the provinces was abolished in this Act.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished the Council of India established by Government of India act 1858 which was established to assist the secretary of state. This act provides a team of advisors to the secretary of state.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The division of subjects into the three lists were provided for in the Government of India Act, 1935. All the residuary powers were under the control of the Governor General.
• Statement 2 is correct: The provision for establishment of a federal public service commission, provincial public service commission and joint public service commission for two or more provinces was given by the Government of India, 1935.