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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 below.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding tardigrades:

1) They are known as water bears and often found on lichens and mosses.

2) They can survive in extreme cold and hot temperatures.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1
Tardigrades, also known as water bears or moss piglets, are small invertebrate animals that are found in a variety of habitats including lichens, mosses, and other plant matter. They are known for their ability to survive extreme conditions, including extreme cold and hot temperatures, desiccation (lack of water), and exposure to high levels of radiation. They are able to survive these extreme conditions by entering a state of suspended animation, in which their metabolic activity slows down significantly, allowing them to survive for extended periods of time without food or water. Tardigrades are also very small, typically measuring only a few millimeters in length, and are found on every continent, including Antarctica.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

In the context of the Second Anglo-Maratha War, consider the following statements:

1) It resulted in the British gaining Odisha, while the Marathas gained territories north of the Yamuna river.

2) The Battle of Assaye and the Battle of Laswari are related to the Second Anglo-Maratha war.

Q.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2
The Second Anglo-Maratha War was a conflict that took place in India between 1803 and 1805, and resulted in the defeat of the Maratha Confederacy by the British East India Company. The conflict began after the Maratha Confederacy, which was a group of Maratha states in western and central India, refused to accept the British demand for tribute and instead formed an alliance with the French. The war was fought in several major battles, including the Battle of Assaye and the Battle of Laswari, which were both significant victories for the British. The war did not result in any territory exchanges between the British and the Marathas, and instead resulted in the British gaining greater control over the Maratha states and establishing a stronger presence in India.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

With reference to Indo-Russia relations, consider the following statements:

1. Both countries regularly conduct the Tri-Services exercise ‘INDRA’.

2. INS Vikramaditya, the sole aircraft carrier operated by India, is also Russian in origin.

3. Both India and Russia are implementing the Rooppur Nuclear Power Project in Bangladesh.

4. India and Russia have only one inter-governmental commission i.e., on Military-Technical

Cooperation (IRIGC- MTC).

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3
Tri-Services exercise ‘INDRA’ is a joint training between Indian and Russian Armies to jointly plan and conduct counter-terror operations under the UN mandate. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

INS Vikramaditya is Russian in origin. It is a former USSR carrier vessel and entered into service with the Indian Navy in 2013. Launched in the early 1980s. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Rooppur project is the first initiative under an Indo-Russian deal to undertake atomic energy projects in Bangladesh. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

India and Russia have two Inter-Governmental Commissions – one on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), and another on Military-Technical Cooperation (IRIGC- MTC). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, (D) is the answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

Which of the following statements regarding the photic zone of an aquatic ecosystem is/are correct?

  1. It is the lowest layer of the aquatic ecosystem, where light penetration is restricted.
  2. Both photosynthesis and respiration activities take place in this region.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

Based on light penetration and plant distribution, aquatic ecosystems are classified as photic and aphotic zones

Photic zone: Photic zone (euphotic zone, epipelagic zone) is the uppermost layer of the ocean that receives sunlight, enabling it to perform photosynthesis. It undergoes a series of physical, chemical, and biological processes that supply nutrients into the upper water column. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The photic zone is home to the majority of marine life, due to its location. Ninety per cent of marine life lives in the photic zone, which is approximately two hundred meters deep. This includes phytoplankton (plants), including dinoflagellates, diatoms, cyanobacteria, and zooplankton, which are known as the consumers in the photic zone. Both photosynthesis and respiration activities take place in this zone. So, statement 2 is correct.

Aphotic zone is the portion of a lake or ocean where there is little or no sunlight. It is formally defined as the depths beyond which less than 1% of sunlight penetrates. The aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to the bottom of the lake, where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths, so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. Only respiration activities take place this

deep, the unlit region is also known as the profundal zone.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President of the Board of Control became the Minister for Indian Affairs, while the Board was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India.

  2. The Governor-General in Council was empowered to legislate for the whole of British Territories in India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons.

Q. Which of the following British-era legislation resulted in the changes mentioned above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5
The Charter Act of 1833 was a British legislative act that made several significant changes to the administration of British India. One of the main provisions of the act was the creation of the Secretary of State for India, who was responsible for the administration of British India and was also the President of the Board of Control. The Board of Control was a body that oversaw the administration of British India and was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India. The act also granted the Governor-General in Council the power to legislate for the whole of British India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons within the territories. The Charter Act of 1833 was one of several acts passed by the British Parliament that regulated the administration of British India and shaped the development of the country during the colonial period.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding ozone:

  1. It is a more stable allotrope of oxygen than diatomic oxygen.

  2. It is found mainly in stratosphere, between 100 and 500 km from the Earth’s surface.

  3. UV rays that are absorbed by the ozone layer are harmful only to animals on Earth and not to plants.

Q. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

Ozone, or trioxygen, is an inorganic molecule with the chemical formula O3. It is a pale blue gas with a distinctively pungent smell. It is an allotrope of oxygen that is much less stable than the diatomic allotrope O2, breaking down in the lower atmosphere to O2. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Ozone is found mainly in the upper atmosphere, an area called the stratosphere, between 10 and 50 km from the Earth’s surface. Though it is talked of as a layer, ozone is present in the atmosphere in rather low concentrations. Even at places where this layer is thickest, there are not more than a few molecules of ozone for every million air molecules. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Ozone molecules perform a vital function. By absorbing the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the Sun, the ozone molecules eliminate a big threat to life forms on Earth. UV rays can cause skin cancer and other diseases and deformities in plants and animals both. As UV rays interact with cells, they interact with surfaces of both animals and plants. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

Which of the following statements best describes a Nidhi Company?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7
A Nidhi company is a type of non-banking financial company (NBFC) in India that is registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Nidhi companies are specifically formed for the purpose of borrowing and lending money amongst their members, and they operate on a mutual benefit basis. They are typically owned and controlled by their members, who are also their borrowers and lenders. Nidhi companies are required to follow the regulations and guidelines set by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). They are not allowed to lend to non-members or raise money from the public, and their primary business activity must be borrowing and lending to their members. The liability of the members of a Nidhi company is limited to their agreed contribution in the company.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

Consider the following statement with reference to Judicial Review:

  1. It is essential for maintaining Judicial Supremacy.

  2. It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the Legislature and the Executive.

  3. It is a device for protecting the rights of the people and strengthening democracy.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8
Judicial Review is a process under which the Executive actions or the Legislative statutes are subject to review by the higher Judiciary. A court with authority for Judicial Review may invalidate Laws, Acts and governmental actions that are incompatible with a higher authority: an Executive decision may be invalidated for being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated for violating the terms of a Constitution. It has been playing an

important and desired role in the protection and development of the Constitution. It has helped the Supreme Court of India in exercising its constitutional duties as the final interpreter of the Constitution.

  • Judicial Review is essential for maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution (and not Judicial Supremacy). So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the Legislature and the Executive. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Judicial Review is a device for protecting the rights of the people and hence strengthens democracy. So, statement 3 is correct.

  • It is essential for securing the independence of the Judiciary by strengthening its own position vis-a-vis the Executive and the Legislature.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Corona bonds:

  1. The European Union has floated Corona bonds to fight the Covid-19 pandemic and its effects.

  2. It is designed to support governments in economically weaker countries in the European Union by channelling funds from more affluent countries.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9
Corona bond is a proposed debt instrument in Euro-Zone that uses a common currency. It is not proposed in the European Union. The Euro-zone is a geographical and economic zone consisting of EU member states which have adopted the Euro as their common currency. The Euro-zone is the concrete evidence of European integration, and 19 countries out of 28 EU members adopted the Euro as their common currency. So,

statement 1 is not correct.

The Euro-zone is to issue debt through its bailout fund jointly. It has done so in the past through the European Stability Mechanism, which borrows on the market against the security of its capital provided by Euro-zone governments. It is about pooling liabilities and not channelling funds from one country to another. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

Which of the following variables are used to calculate the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index published by the UNDP?

  1. Nutrition

  2. Child Mortality

  3. Learning outcomes

  4. Access to drinking water

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10
The Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a measure of poverty that was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to provide a more comprehensive and nuanced understanding of poverty than traditional measures that focus solely on income. The MPI is calculated using a combination of variables that reflect different dimensions of poverty, including nutrition, child mortality, and access to education, health care, and other basic services. The MPI uses three dimensions of poverty: health, education, and living standards, which are further sub-divided into ten indicators. The indicators used to calculate the MPI include malnutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, access to clean water, electricity, and other basic services. Access to drinking water is one of the indicators used to measure living standards.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements.

  1. Thermal power plants are the largest consumers of coal in India.

  2. Commission for Air Quality Management coordinates air pollution norms in Delhi and adjoining States.

  3. Commission for Air Quality Management is a statutory body established by the government that replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11
The use of coal as fuel in industrial, domestic units will be banned in the National Capital Region (NCR) from January 2023 but the ban wouldn’t apply thermal power plants — incidentally the largest users of coal, according to a notification by the Commission for Air Quality Management, that coordinates air pollution norms in Delhi and adjoining States.

The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021.

The CAQM has replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which was appointed by the Supreme Court.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.

  1. A neural network is an Artificial Intelligence (AI) tech that attempts to mimic the web of neurons in the brain to learn and behave like humans.

  2. Facial recognition software, voice recognition software and the Translate apps are the examples for Artificial Intelligence (AI).

  3. CAPTCHA test aims to limit technology access to humans and keep the bots away.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12
Facebook’s facial recognition software which identifies faces in the photos we post, the voice recognition software that translates commands we bark at Alexa, and the Google Translate app are all examples of AI tech.

We use the CAPTCHA, to limit technology access to humans and keep the bots at bay. A CAPTCHA ("Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart") is a type of challenge–response test used in computing to determine whether the user is human.

A neural network is an AI tech that attempts to mimic the web of neurons in the brain to learn and behave like humans. Early efforts in building neural networks targeted image recognition.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about certain constitutional provisions.

  1. Provisions relating to persons with disability and old age are provided for both in Directive Principles of State Policy (Part V) and Fundamental Duties (Part IVA).

  2. Provisions relating to prevention of substance abuse are provided for in Fundamental Rights (Part III).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13
The Constitution of India has several provisions that relate to the rights and duties of citizens, including provisions for the protection of the rights of persons with disabilities and the elderly, and provisions for the prevention of substance abuse. However, these provisions are not found in the same parts of the Constitution.

Provisions relating to the rights and welfare of persons with disabilities and the elderly are found in Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and this right extends to the protection of the life and dignity of persons with disabilities and the elderly. The Directive Principles of State Policy, which are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, also contain provisions that require the state to take measures to ensure the welfare of persons with disabilities and the elderly, and to protect and improve the environment for the benefit of future generations.

Provisions relating to the prevention of substance abuse are not found in Part III (Fundamental Rights) or Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution. Instead, these provisions are found in various laws that have been enacted by the Indian Parliament, such as the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

Innate immunity employs which of the following barriers in humans?

  1. Acid in the stomach

  2. Eye tears

  3. Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14
Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against infections and other external threats. It consists of a series of physical, chemical, and biological barriers that help to prevent the entry of pathogens into the body and protect against infection. Some of the barriers employed by innate immunity in humans include:
  1. Acid in the stomach: The stomach produces hydrochloric acid, which helps to kill bacteria and other pathogens that enter the body through the digestive system.

  2. Eye tears: Tears contain enzymes and antibodies that help to kill bacteria and other pathogens that come into contact with the eyes.

  3. Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract: The respiratory tract is lined with mucus, which helps to trap and remove particles, including pathogens, from the air we breathe.

Together, these barriers form a vital part of the body's immune system and help to protect against infections and other external threats.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Saka era was founded by King Gandharvasena of the Shatavahana dynasty.

  2. The Saka era is used to indicate the year by Gazette of India and All India Radio News Broadcast.

Q. Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15
The Saka era is a historical era used in India that is based on the traditional Indian calendar. It is also known as the Saka samvat or the Saka calendar. The Saka era was founded by King Shalivahana of the Shatavahana dynasty, who ruled in western and central India in the 2nd century CE. The Saka era is used to indicate the year in the traditional Indian calendar, and it is also used in official government communications and documents, such as the Gazette of India and All India Radio News Broadcast. However, it is not used as a commonly accepted system of dating in India, and the Gregorian calendar is more widely used for civil and official purposes.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

According to a new study, around one in 500 men could be carrying an extra X or Y chromosome (either XXY or XYY). Such people are at increased risk of

1. Type 2 diabetes

2. Pulmonary embolism

3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

4. Venous thrombosis

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16
Around one in 500 men could be carrying an extra X or Y chromosome, most of them unaware, according to researchers at the universities of Cambridge and Exeter. This puts them at increased risk of diseases such as type 2 diabetes, atherosclerosis and thrombosis, the researchers report in a study published in Genetics in Medicine.

Sex chromosomes determine our biological sex. Men typically have one X and one Y chromosome, while women have two Xs. However, some men also have XXY or XYY.

Men with either XXY or XYY had higher risks of several other health conditions. They were three times more likely to have type 2 diabetes, six times more likely to develop venous thrombosis, three times as likely to experience pulmonary embolism, and four times more likely to suffer from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment currently extends assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations working for the welfare of disadvantaged sections of the society. Which of the following types of organizations is/are eligible to get assistance?

1. Body registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860.

2. Indian Red Cross Society or its branches

3. A for-profit body with at least two years of experience in social welfare

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is a government ministry in India that is responsible for the welfare of disadvantaged and marginalized sections of society, including persons with disabilities, Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The ministry provides financial and technical assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) that are working for the welfare of these disadvantaged groups.

According to the guidelines of the ministry, NGOs that are eligible to receive assistance include bodies that are registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860, and the Indian Red Cross Society or its branches. For-profit bodies are not eligible to receive assistance from the ministry. The ministry provides assistance to NGOs based on their experience in social welfare and the extent to which they are able to contribute to the welfare of disadvantaged groups in society.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

1. Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Kerala.

2. Yakshagana is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18
Justification: Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka. It is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas. It is performed with massive headgears, elaborate facial make-up and vibrant costumes and ornaments. Usually recited in Kannada, it is also performed in Malayalam as well as Tulu (the dialect of south Karnataka).

It is performed with percussion instruments like chenda, maddalam, jagatta or chengila (cymbals) and chakratala or elathalam (small cymbals).

More than 900 Yakshagana scripts, including the ones printed in 1905 and 1907, have now been digitised and made available online for free, thanks to the voluntary community effort by some Yakshagana lovers who did it under the banner Yakshavahini, a registered trust.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following with regards to Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP) where 100% assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria. These criteria include

1. Extent of protected forest area in the state

2. Relative backwardness of the states/UT

3. Geographical area of the state

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19
Justification: Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP): It is a policy initiative for development of Scheduled Castes in which 100 % assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria such as SC population of the States/UTs, relative backwardness of States/UTs, percentage of SC families in the States/ UTs

covered by composite economic development programmes in the State Plan to enable them to crossthe poverty line, etc.

It is an umbrella strategy to ensure flow of targeted financial and physical benefits from all the general sectors of development for the benefit of Scheduled Castes. Under this Scheme, the States/UTs are required to formulate and implement Special Component Plan (SCP) for Scheduled Castes as part of their annual plans by earmarking resources.

Learning: Scheme of Assistance to Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs): Share Capital contribution is released to the State Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs) under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in the ratio of 49:51 between Central Government and State Governments.

There are in total 27 such State-level Corporations which are working for the economic development of Scheduled Castes, although some of these Corporations are also catering to the requirements of other weaker sections of the Society, e.g. Scheduled Tribes, OBCs, Minorities etc.

The main functions of SCDCs include identification of eligible SC families and motivating them to undertake economic development schemes, sponsoring the schemes to financial institutions for credit support, providing financial assistance in the form of the margin money at a low rate of interest, providing subsidy out of the funds made available to the States under the Scheme of Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan of the States to reduce the repayment liability and providing necessary tie up with other poverty alleviation programmes.

The SCDCs are playing an important role in providing credit and missing inputs by way of margin money loans and subsidy to the target group. The SCDCs finance the employment oriented schemes covering diverse areas of economic activities which inter-alia include (i) agriculture and allied activities including minor irrigation (ii) small scale industry (iii) transport and (iv) trade and service sector.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

Consider the following with regards to Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).

  1. BEPS refers to the phenomenon where companies invest in a host country via shell companies situated in tax havens to reduce their tax liability.

  2. The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS is an outcome of the World Economic Forum BEPS Project.

  3. India recently ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20
Justification: Statement 1: Base erosion and profit shifting refers to the phenomenon where companies shift their profits to other tax jurisdictions, which usually have lower rates, thereby eroding the tax base in India. The companies need not invest via shell companies to be accused of BEPS.

Statement 2 and 3: India in July 2019 ratified the international agreement to curb base erosion and profits shifting (BEPS)– Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures.

The Convention is an outcome of the OECD / G20 BEPS Project to tackle base erosion and profit shifting through tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations where there is little or no economic activity, resulting in little or no overall corporate tax being paid.

Learning: Under BEPS Action 13, all large multinational enterprises (MNEs) are required to prepare a country-by-country (CbC) report with aggregate data on the global allocation of income, profit, taxes paid and economic activity among tax jurisdictions in which it operates. This CbC report is shared with tax administrations in these jurisdictions, for use in high level transfer pricing and BEPS risk assessments.

The Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action 13 report (Transfer Pricing Documentation and Country-by-Country Reporting) provides a template for multinational enterprises (MNEs) to report annually and for each tax jurisdiction in which they do business the information set out therein. This report is called the Country-by-Country (CbC) Report.

What CBC contains?

Aggregated country-by-country information relating to the global allocation of income, the taxes paid, and certain other indicators of a multi-national company.

A list of all the constituent entities of the multi-national company operating in a particular jurisdiction and the nature of the main business activity of each constituent entity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding plastic waste?

1. Extended Producer Responsibility has been given legal force through Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021.

2. Different types of plastic including PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate), used to make soft drink bottles and clothing are found in Antarctica’ Ross ice shelf.

3. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water indicates plastic pollution of the water body.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced through Plastic Waste Management Rule 2016 but has been given legal force through Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Amendment Rules, 2021.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Researchers gathered samples of snow from 19 different sites in the Ross Ice Shelf in Antarctica and discovered plastic particles in all of them.

There were 13 different types of plastic found, with the most common being PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate), commonly used to make soft drink bottles and clothing.

The possible sources of microplastics were examined. Hence statement 2 is correct. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) indicates the amount of oxygen demand for both organic and inorganic substances in the water body. So, COD is the true indication of pollution in any water body. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) needed to break down organic material present in a given water or water body.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission?

1. It was launched under the stewardship of the Ministry of Rural Development.

2. It is solely focused on grey water management.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22
Jal Jeevan Mission was launched in 2019, it envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.

JJM looks to create a jan andolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s priority. It comes under Jal Shakti Ministry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The mission ensures functionality of existing water supply systems and water connections, water quality monitoring and testing as well as sustainable agriculture. It also ensures conjunctive use of conserved water, drinking water source augmentation, drinking water supply system, grey water treatment and its reuse.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment 2021 is released by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23
The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions released National eGovernance Service Delivery Assessment 2021 to boost the e-government endeavors at all levels of governance and also to embark on the journey for Digital Government excellence.

The framework covers services under G2B (Government to Businesses) and G2C (Government to Citizens) segments under six sectors viz. Finance, Labour & Employment, Education, Local Government & Utilities, Social Welfare (including Agriculture & Health) and Environment (including Fire) sectors.

Therefore, option C is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

Which of the following Policies, Acts, or Programmes have a bearing on the welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens?

1. National Policy on Ageing, 2017 (NPOA)

2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act

3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24
Background: Constant increase in life expectancy due to improvement in the health care facilities over the years is one of the main reasons for rapid increase in proportion of population of Senior Citizens.

As per Census 2011, the total population of Senior Citizens (people aged 60 years and above) is 10.38 crore, of which population of males and females are 5.11 crore and 5.27 crore respectively.

The share of senior citizens in the total population as per Census 2011 is 8.57%. As per the May 2006 Report of the “Technical Group on Population Projections” constituted by the National Commission on Population published by the Office of the Registrar General of India this share is expected to increase to 10.70 % in 2021 and to 12.40% in 2026.

Justification: S1: No such policy was released in 2017.

The following Policies, Act, and Programmes which aim at welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens, especially for indigent senior citizens, are being dealt with in the Ageing Division:-

1. National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) –The existing National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) was announced in January 1999 to reaffirm the commitment to ensure the well-being of the Older Persons. The Policy envisaged State support to ensure financial and food security, health care, shelter and other needs of Older Persons, equitable share in development, protection against abuse and exploitation, and availability of services to improve the quality of their lives. Keeping in view the changing demographic pattern, socio-economic needs of the Senior Citizens, social value system and advancement in the field of science and technology over the last decade, a new National Policy for Senior Citizens is under finalization to replace the NPOP, 1999.

2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (MWPSC Act) - The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens (MWPSC) Act, 2007 was enacted in December 2007 to ensure need based maintenance for Parents and Senior Citizens and their welfare.

3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP) - Under the Scheme, financial assistance is provided to Government/ Non-Governmental Organizations/Panchayati Raj Institutions/ local bodies etc. for running and maintenance of various projects for the welfare of indigent Senior Citizens under the Scheme of IPOP.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

With reference to the Centre for Indian Knowledge Systems (CIKS), consider the following.

1. It looks into the root of ancient knowledge systems to gain a strong understanding of their workings and rationale.

2. It awards Geographical Indication (GI) tags to Indian heritage products.

3. It is responsible for regulating biopiracy in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25
Justification: CIKS was registered as an independent trust in 1995. The activities of the centre are supported through grants from government agencies, private agencies, donations from individuals and the sale of educational and training material.

Statement 1: For e.g. CIKS is developing methods for organic vegetable cultivation using recipes found in Vrkshayurveda, for e.g. treating with milk and ghee will help latex yielding verities give a bumper harvest

The understanding and knowledge gained by CIKS is then leveraged to develop solutions that are practical and feasible in today's context.

Its community seed bank project is aimed at identifying important traditional seed varieties and orienting the agricultural community towards conserving and cultivating them.

Learning: CIKS initiatives in biodiversity conservation have helped farmers in Tamil Nadu conserve over 180 indigenous seed varieties - hence protecting the dwindling genetic base and giving farmers a way to beat stress situations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Which of the following best describes the term ‘presumption of constitutionality’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26
Presumption of constitutionality is a legal principle that is used by courts to interpret laws made by the Parliament or other legislative bodies. Under this principle, courts assume that laws passed by the legislature are constitutional, unless there is strong evidence to the contrary. This principle is based on the idea that the legislature is a democratically elected body that represents the will of the people, and that its laws are therefore generally consistent with the Constitution Presumption of constitutionality is an important principle in constitutional law, as it helps to ensure that the laws of the country are interpreted and applied in a way that is consistent with the Constitution. It is often applied by courts when considering challenges to the constitutionality of laws, and it requires the party challenging the law to present strong evidence that the law is unconstitutional. This principle applies to both federal and state laws in many countries, including India, the United States, and Canada.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with reference to Mahatma Jyotirao Phule:

  1. He was influenced by some western thinkers and their ideas on social justice.

  2. He argued that the Aryans were foreigners, who came from outside and defeated and subjugated the true children of the country.

  3. He formed the Satyashodhak Samaj to focus on the rights of the depressed classes and the issue of women empowerment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27
Mahatma Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer and activist from India who is best known for his work on social justice and equality. Phule was influenced by the ideas of western thinkers on social justice, and he was a strong advocate for the rights of the oppressed and marginalized communities in India. He argued that the Aryans were foreigners who came to India from outside and defeated and subjugated the true children of the country, and he believed that the caste system in India was a tool of oppression that was used to keep these communities subjugated.

To further his work on social justice and equality, Phule formed the Satyashodhak Samaj, an organization that focused on the rights of the depressed classes and the issue of women empowerment. Through his work with the Satyashodhak Samaj and other organizations, Phule made significant contributions to the social and political landscape of India, and he is widely regarded as one of the pioneers of social reform in the country.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

India enacted the “Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001” to comply with obligations to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28
India enacted the "Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001" to comply with its obligations under the World Trade Organization (WTO). The Act is designed to protect the rights of farmers and plant breeders, and to encourage the development of new plant varieties in India. It provides a legal framework for the protection of plant varieties, and establishes a system for the grant of plant breeders' rights. The Act also requires that farmers be granted certain rights, such as the right to save, use, sow, resow, exchange, share, or sell farm-saved seed/propagating material of protected varieties.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the species of crocodilians:

1) The gharial is not found outside India and Nepal.

2) The gharial is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.

3) All three species of crocodilians are found only in the state of Odisha.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29
Odisha has renewed its efforts to revive the population of gharials in their natural habitat by releasing five reptiles, fitted with radio transmitters, into the Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi - the southernmost limit of gharials’ home range in India.

Its scientific name is Gavialis Gangetic. As compared to alligators and crocodiles, a gharial has a very long and narrow snout (instead of a broad snout). They are a fresh-water crocodile. Gharial prefers deep fast flowing rivers, however adult gharial has also been observed in still water branches (jheel) of rivers and in comparatively velocity-free aquatic environments of deep holes (kunds) at river bends and confluences.

Globally Gharial is found only in India and Nepal. In India too, the major ‘breeding’ populations are confined to two rivers only:

  • River Girwa: It originates in Nepal and runs through Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.

  • River Chambal: It supports the largest population of Gharials in the wild.

So, statement 1 is correct.

The three species of crocodilians found in India are:

(1) Gharial (Or freshwater crocodile),

(2) Saltwater crocodile; and

(3) Mugger crocodile.

It has been listed as critically endangered in the IUCN Red List since 2007. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Odisha is the only state in India having all three species — Gharial, Mugger, and Saltwater crocodile. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

Consider the following statements with reference to Minor Forest Produce:

1. They provide both subsistence and cash income for people who live in or near forests.

2. It is strongly linked to women’s financial empowerment as most of the Produces are collected and used/sold by women.

Q. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30
Minor forest produce (MFP) refers to a diverse range of non-timber forest products that are collected from forests for subsistence or commercial purposes. These products include items such as bamboo, honey, resin, gum, lac, wax, leaves, nuts, berries, and medicinal plants, among others.

Statement 1 is correct. Minor forest produce plays an important role in the livelihoods of people who live in or near forests. It provides both subsistence and cash income for these communities, as they use these products for their own consumption or sell them in local markets.

Statement 2 is also correct. Minor forest produce is strongly linked to women's financial empowerment, as many of these products are collected and used/sold by women. Women often play a significant role in the collection, processing, and marketing of MFP in many communities, and the income generated from the sale of these products can contribute to their economic independence and empowerment.

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