UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 below.
Solutions of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

Which of the following correctly differentiates between “Demand Polity” and “Command Polity”, terms coined by Rudolph and Rudolph (1987)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

Justification: Rudolph and Rudolph have attempted to find correlates between the nature of polity of the state and economic characteristics.
In a democratic country, there are two competing sovereignties: state sovereignty and voter/citizen sovereignty. The demand polity refers to the situation when the government’s policies and programmes are for the short-term
benefits of people.
The allocations and welfare activities are carried out keeping elections in mind.
The model of command polity refers to that political set-up in which allocations and distributions are oriented to the long-term goals and sustainable benefits to people.

  • The role of the state in command politics is monopolistic and oligopolistic. The command politics relates to the postponement theory, which believes in investment for ensuring future development at the cost of the present needs and necessities of the people.
  • In the existing world, both these polities are found in a mixed form to varying degrees.
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Ahmedabad is often referred to as the 'Manchester of India' as it is a major textile region. Which of the following factors have enabled the growth of Ahmadabad as a textile Centre?

1. The flat terrain and easy availability of land is suitable for the establishment of the mills.

2. A very dry climate of Ahmadabad is ideal for spinning and weaving cotton.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Justification & Learning:

Statement 2: The climate is not dry, but pretty humid due to the proximity with coasts. It has a humid climate that is ideal for spinning and weaving.

  • Favourable locational factors were responsible for the development of the textile industry in Ahmedabad.
  • Ahmedabad is situated in the heart of a cotton growing area. This ensures easy availability of raw material.
  • The densely populated states of Gujarat and Maharashtra provide both skilled and semi-skilled labour. Well developed road and railway network permits easy transportation of textiles to different parts of the country,thus providing easy access to the market.
  • Mumbai port nearby facilitates import of machinery and export of cotton textiles.

Q Source: Page 60: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Consider the following about Nayanars and Alvars.

1. Their social base was confined to particular high castes of South India.

2. They emphasized the relevance of the moral ideals of Buddhists and Jainas to the contemporary society and promoted them.

3. Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

4. They preached severe ascetisim as the only true path of salvation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Justification:

Statement 1: The seventh to ninth centuries saw the emergence of new religious movements, led by the Nayanars (saints devoted to Shiva) and Alvars (saints devoted to Vishnu) who came from all castes including those considered “untouchable” like the Pulaiyar and the Panars.

Statement 3: They drew upon the ideals of love and heroism as found in the Sangam literature (the earliest example of Tamil literature, composed during the early centuries of the Common Era) and blended them with the values of bhakti.

  • The Nayanars and Alvars went from place to place composing exquisite poems in praise of the deities enshrined in the villages they visited, and set them to music
  • The best known among them were Appar, Sambandar, Sundarar and Manikkavasagar,
  • Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

Statement 2 and 4: They were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas and preached ardent love of Shiva or Vishnu as the path to salvation.

Q Source: Page 105: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The term ‘State’, when used in the context of India, refers most appropriately to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

Learning: The term ‘State’ as such does not refer to state governments.

  • Rather when we use State, we are trying to distinguish it from ‘government’.
  • ‘Government’ is responsible for administering and enforcing laws. The government can change with elections.
  • The State on the other hand refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. We can, thus, speak of the Indian State, the Nepali State etc.
  • The Indian State has a democratic form of government. The government (or the executive) is one part of the State. The State refers to more than just the government and cannot be used interchangeably with it.

Q Source: Chapter 1: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Consider the following about the Global Taxonomy Initiative (GTI).

1. It is a non-govemmental initiative run by the Conservation International and Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF).

2. It is the first ever global initiative on biodiversity conservation.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Justification:

Statement 1: The Conference of the Parties (COP) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) established the GTI. So, 1 is wrong.

It is an inter-governmental effort.

Statement 2: It was started in 1998, much after many important global agreements, conventions and treaties were negotiated and signed, for e.g. CBD in the early 1990s. So, clearly 2 is wrong.

Learning: GTI provides guidance to governments, taxonomists, non-govemment and international organizations, responsible for implementing the GTI (i.e. issues related to taxonomy of flora and fauna).

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Contour ploughing is advantageous to farms as it helps in

1. Reducing weed growth of farms

2. Increasing the nutrient base of the soil for growing multiple crops

3. Cutting down water erosion of soil

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Justification:

It is the farming practice of plowing and/or planting across a slope following its elevation contour lines.

Statement 3:These contour lines create a water break which reduces the formation of rills and gullies during times of heavy water run-off; which is a major cause of soil erosion.The water break also allows more time for the water to settle into the soil.

Statement 1: Since top soil erosion is reduced and water retention improved, it often leads to greater weed growth.

Statement 2: It doesn’t alter the natural nutrient base of the soil and only helps conserve the already existing nutrients.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 14: Class 8 thNCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

The population Pyramid of Nation “A” is broader at base and rapidally narrows at the top. The pyramid is also symmetrical about the vertical axis. Which of the following can be said with certainty about Nation "A”?

1. Sex-ratio is adverse in the adult age group.

2. The nation must be reaping the benefits of Demographic Dividend as a vast majority of population is adult.

3. Both Birth rate and death rates are high.

4. Population is geographically concentrated.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Concept: A population pyramid shows the total population divided into various age groups, e.g., 5 to 9 years, 10 to 14 years.

  • It also shows the percentage of the total population, subdivided into males and females, in each of those groups.
  • The shape of the population pyramid tells the story of the people living in that particular country.
  • The numbers of children (below 15 years) are shown at the bottom and reflect the level of births. The size of the top shows the numbers of aged people (above 65 years) and reflects the number of deaths.

Justification: Statement 1: Since the pyramid is vertically symmetrical, sex-ratio is 1000, i.e. males and females are equal in number. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: It seems that the larger population percentage in the country is of dependents, i.e. children and old people. A nation reaps demographic dividend using working adults, not dependents. So, 2 will be considered wrong.

Statement 3: The population pyramid of a country in which birth and death rates both are high is broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top. This is because although, many children are born, a large percentage of them die in their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.

Statement 4: It does not tell anything about the geographical distribution of population.

Q Source: Page 72: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

In the production of silk, silkworm cocoons are boiled to kill the silkworms. Why the silkworms are not allowed to survive?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Justification: the animal is allowed to survive after spinning its cocoon and through the pupal phase of its lifecycle, it releases proteolytic enzymes to make a hole in the cocoon so it can emerge as an adult moth.

■  These enzymes are destructive to the silk and can cause the silk fibers to break down from over a mile in length to segments of random length, which seriously reduces the value of the silk threads.

■  To prevent this, silkworm cocoons are boiled. The heat kills the silkworms and the water makes the cocoons easier to unravel. Often, the silkworm itself is eaten.

Learning: As the process of harvesting the silk from the cocoon kills the larvae, sericulture has been criticized by animal welfare and rights activists.

■  Mahatma Gandhi was critical of silk production based on the Ahimsa philosophy "not to hurt any living thing". This led to Gandhi's promotion of cotton spinning machines, an example of which can be seen at the Gandhi Institute.

■  He also promoted Ahimsa silk, wild silk made from the cocoons of wild and semiwild silk moths.

■  Ahimsa silk is promoted in parts of southern India for those who prefer not to wear silk produced by killing silkworms

Q Source: Improvisation (image):Page 17: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Consider the following about Viruses.

1. Viruses are characterized by their dependence on living cells for replication and existence.

2. They possess both species of nucleic acid - DNA and RNA.

3. Antibacterial antibiotics have no effect on viruses.

4. High energy radiation can inactivate viruses

Select the correct answer using the codes below.   

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Justification:

Statement 1: They do not have an independent metabolism for survival. They are totally dependent upon a living cell, either eukaryotic or prokaryotic, for replication and existence. Viruses are thus a kind of intracellular parasites.
Statement 2: This is one their important biological characteristics. Humans have both DNA and RNA. But, Viruses have only one species of nucleic acid which is either DNA or RNA.
Statement 3: Antibiotics affect only bacteria, not viruses. This is why anti-biotics do not work for many diseases. Statement 4: Ultraviolet, X-ray, and high-energy particles inactivate viruses, often used in water purification
systems to clean water.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Consider the following about the Organization for Islamic Cooperation (OIC).

1. All West Asian states, except Iran, hold the membership of OIC.

2. India has been blocked by OIC on the “Kashmir Issue”.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Justification:

Statement 1: The OIC is an international organization founded in 1969. It consists of 57 member states including Iran and Pakistan. Administrative centre (headquarters) is in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: In this organisation, India is a blocked country, though it has about 12% of the world’s Muslim population. India has been blocked by Pakistan from joining the OIC over Kashmir issue. OIC regard parts of Kashmir as “occupied by India”.
Learning: Its Objectives:
(i) Raise the collective voice of the Muslim world.
(ii) Collectively work to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony.
OIC has permanent delegations to United Nations and the European Union.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

China recently launched the world’s first quantum satellite dubbed as Quantum Experiments at Space Scaler (QUESS) satellite. How is it a strategic gain for China?

1. The satellite will help China to establish hack-proof communications system by transmitting encrypted keys from space to the ground.

2. The satellite will enable China to research in Quantum physics from space resulting in significant cost reductions, Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Concept: Quantum communication boasts ultra-high security communication. It uses subatomic particles to securely communicate between two points.

In case intruder (hacker) tries to crack the message in Quantum communication, it will change its form in a way that would alert the sender and cause the message to be altered or deleted.

Justification: Statement 1: Earlier, researchers around the world had successfully sent quantum messages on land. But this first of its kind satellite-based quantum network would make it possible to send quickly encrypted (hack proof) messages around the world. It also opens door to other possible uses of the technology. The launch is also a major triumph for China in the field of quantum technology.

Statement 2: It is not related to research in quantum physics as a separate focus. It will be located in sun- synchronous orbit and help bolster China's communication system.

The QUESS satellite has been nicknamed as Micius after a 5th century BC Chinese philosopher.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.

1. Generally metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations that form large plateaus.

2. Sedimentary rock formations ofplains and young fold mountains contain non-metallicminerals.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Justification: Statement 1: Iron-ore innorth Sweden, copper and nickel deposits in Ontario,Canada, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa are examples of minerals found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Statement 2:Limestone deposits of Caucasusregion of France, manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine and phosphate beds of Algeria are some examples. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum arealso found in the sedimentary rocks.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 26: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Major Mineral oil reserves are found in which of the following countries?

1. Venezuela

2. Argentina

3. Russia

4. Qatar

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Learning: According to current estimates, more than 80% of the world's proven crude oil reserves are located in OPEC Member Countries, with the bulk of OPEC oil reserves in the Middle East, amounting to 65% of the OPEC total.

Countries like Venezuela, Iraq and Kuwait are key members of OPEC with large soil reserves and production.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 28: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

LISA Pathfinder, a mission led by the European Space Agency (ESA), was recently in news. Why?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Learning: It is a space-based observatory.

■  LISA pathfinder would help LIGO’s (a ground based gravitational waves observatory) work.

■  Seismic, thermal and other noise sources limit LIGO to higher-frequency gravitational waves.

■  But finding signals from more exotic events, such as mergers of supermassive black holes in colliding galaxies, requires the ability to see subtle frequencies, a sensitivity level only possible from space.

■  So, LISA Pathfinder was intended as a stepping stone to the level of performance needed for a full-scale gravitational wave observatory.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Consider the following about Rowlatt Act.

1. It allowed the British government to imprison people without due trial.

2. The Act banned all Indian owned presses from circulating news.

3. It was repealed following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Justification: Statement 1: The Act clearly violated the rule of law, which the British often used to justify their administration in India. Indian nationalists including Mahatma Gandhi were vehement in their opposition to the Rowlatt bills due to such arbitrary provisions.

Statement 2: This was not a provision. Seditious acts were definitely penalize by the act though.

Some restrictive provisions on Press were made by the Vernacular Press Act, 1878.

Statement 3: Despite the large number of protests, the Rowlatt Act came into effect on 10 March 1919.

Learning: In Punjab, protests against this Act continued quite actively and on April 10 two leaders of the movement, Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.

  • To protest these arrests, a public meeting was held on 13 April at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar.
  • General Dyer entered the park and ordered the troops to fire.
  • Several hundreds of people died in this gunfire. This incident is known as Jallianwala Bagh massacre.                     Q Source: Page 44: 8thNCERT: Social and Political Life
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Consider the following with reference to Archean rock system in India belonging to certain geologic periods.

1. The Archean rock system in India can be found in Aravali Mountains.

2. This rock system contains non-metallic minerals only.

3. It contains mainly metamorphic sedimentary rocks.

4. It is the oldest rock system in India. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

justification: Statement 1: It is found in Aravali Mountains, two-thirds of the Deccan peninsula and some parts of north east.
Statement 2: These rocks have abundant metallic and non-metallic minerals such as iron, copper, manganese, bauxite, lead, zinc, gold, silver, tin, tungsten, mica, asbestos, graphite, etc.
Statement 3: It is the “Dharwar” Rock System which is the first metamorphic sedimentary rocks in India.

Statement 4: These are the oldest followed by Dharwar rocks. Tertiary rocks are the youngest.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

In dry areas of low rainfall, thorny shrubs and scrubs grow. How do such plants adapt to the low level of moisture?

1. Such plants generally have shallow roots to utilize water more efficiently.

2. Some plant leaves have thorny and waxy surface to reduce loss of moisture by transpiration.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Justification: Statement 1: They have adapted to desert conditions by developing extremely long root systems to draw water from deep underground near the water table. The mesquite's roots are considered the longest of any desert plant and have been recorded as long as 80 feet.

Statement 2: Some have succulent leaves to store moisture. Some have thorny leaves to reduce water loss by transpiration. Waxy leaves protect soil moisture beneath the coating.

Q Source: Page 18: Class 8thNCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

India has developed World’s first vaccine that is targeted exclusively at Leprosy. Consider the following about this disease.
1. Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacteria.
2. To fight Leprosy, Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) is being supplied free of cost in India by the efforts of WHO.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Justification: Statement 1: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria. It usually affects the skin and peripheral nerves, but has a wide range of clinical manifestations.

Statement 2: The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is being continued with Govt. of India funds from January 2005 onwards. Additional support for the programme is continued to be received from the WHO and ILEP organizations. MDT is to be supplied free of cost as of now by NOVARTIS through WHO.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Which of the following functions can be devolved to a Gram Panchayat by the State Legislature?

1. Framing rules and regulations on social conduct in villages
2. The construction and maintenanceof water sources in the village
3. Levying and collecting taxes on public utilities

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Justification: Statement 1: Laws concerning villages can be made only by the State Legislature, and rules/regulations by the State government. So, 1 is incorrect.

The work of a Gram Panchayat includes the construction and maintenance of water sources, roads, drainage,school buildings and other common property resources.

It can also levy and collect local taxes and execute government schemes related to generating employmentin the village.

Q Source: Revision Past test: 7thNCERT: Social and Political Life

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Which of the following correctly bring(s) out the difference between a National Park and a Biosphere Reserve?

1. National Park is designated for the conservation of a particular species only, whereas Biosphere Reserves conserve a host of plants and species.

2. National Parks are aimed at conserving the cultural heritage of the region in-situ, whereas Biosphere Reserves conserve the landscape as a whole.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Justification: Statement 1: A natural area designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future generations. It is not for the conservation of a particular species only.

It is the Wildlife sanctuary that aims at the conservation of particular set of species. So, 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: No human settlements are even allowed in the core region of a national park. So, 2 is clearly incorrect.

National parks conserve the ecological aspects of the environment, not its cultural and social aspects.

Learning: Biosphere reserves are a series of protected areas linked through a global network, intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.

Human settlements can generally be found in such reserves, as they conserve the ecosystem in its natural conditions.

Q Source: Page 21: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Which of the following will be the first expressway between India and China?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Learning: The proposed corridor will cover 1.65 million square kilometres, encompassing an estimated 440 million people in China's Yunnan province, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Bihar in Northern India through the combination of road, rail, water and air linkages in the region.

■  This interconnectedness would facilitate the cross-border flow of people and goods, minimize overland trade obstacles, ensure greater market access and increase multilateral trade

■  The multi-modal corridor will be the first expressway between India and China and will pass through Myanmar and Bangladesh.

■  India's isolated eastern and north-eastern states also stand to gain by higher trade and connectivity with China and the rest of Asia the corridor will run from Kunming to Kolkata, linking Mandalay in Myanmar as well as Dhaka and Chittagong in Bangladesh.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Kangra school of painting is associated with

1. Miniature paintings inspired from Vaishnavite traditions

2. Migration of Mughal artists to the hills from the plains following Nadir Shah’s invasion

Which of the above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Justification: Nadir Shah’s invasion and the conquest of Delhi in 1739 resulted in the migration of Mughal artists to the hills to escape the uncertainties of the plains.

■  Here they found ready patrons which led to the founding of the Kangra school of painting.

■  By the mid-eighteenth century the Kangra artists developed a style which breathed a new spirit into miniature painting. The source of inspiration was the Vaishnavite traditions.

■ Soft colours including cool blues and greens, and a lyrical treatment of themes distinguished Kangra painting.

Q Source: Chapter 9: Class 7th NCERT: Our Pasts - II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

The new Governor of the Reserve Bank of India was appointed by the

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Learning: The Appointment Committee of Cabinet (ACC) recommended the appointment of Uijit Patel based on the recommendation of the Financial Sector Regulatory Appointments Search Committee (FSRASC).

■  The PMO appoints the RBI Governor.

■  The latter is only an advisory body headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

■  Some of the recent changes made to the RBI Act is the inclusion of a Monetary Policy Committee which will have representation both from government and RBI.

■  The veto power of the Governor regarding key monetary policy decisions has been revoked.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Consider the following matches.

1. Khanqah : A system of land holdings which paid rent to the empire

2. Idgah : Rest house for travellers where spiritual matters were discussed

3. Cul-de-sac : A large prayer house facing East direction

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Justification: Delhi during Shah Jahan’s time was also an important centre of Sufi culture. It had several dargahs, khanqahs and idgahs.

Statement 1: It was a sufi lodge, often used as a rest house for travellers and a place where people come to discuss spiritual matters, get the blessings of saints, and hear sufi music.

Statement 2: It was an open prayer place of Muslims primarily meant for id prayers.

Statement 3: It was simply a street with a dead end.

Q Source: Page 66: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III - Part I

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

India has ranked 66 th in the 2016 Global Innovation Index (GII). The index is released by

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Learning:The annual index was released by France-based international business school INSEAD and World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations.

■  The index ranks world economies since 2007 according to their innovation capabilities using more than 80 indicators.

■  India's better performance in the 2016 GII readings was due to its strengths in tertiary education, corporate R&D, software export and market sophistication.

■  India has starting to excel in ICT and creative goods exports. It is setting a good example highlighting how its policy is improving the innovation environment.

■  Among the middle income countries, India (25th) came second after China (17th) in innovation quality by overtaking Brazil (27th). China has figured at the 25th position (29th in 2015 GII) is the only middle- income country in the top 25.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Consider the following about the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS).

1. According to the Olympic Charter, all disputes in connection with the Olympic Games can only be submitted to CAS.

2. Appeals against the orders of CAS can be filed in the IOC disciplinary commission.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Justification& Learning: Indian wrestler Narsingh Yadav was banned from all competitive sporting events for

four years by the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) based in Lausanne, Switzerland.

He was banned by CAS following an appeal by World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) as there was

  • no evidence to accept his claim that his food was spiked by banned doping substance.
  • CAS is an international quasi-judicial body established to settle disputes related to sport through arbitration.

Statement 1:According to rule 61 of the Olympic Charter, all disputes in connection with the Olympic Games can only be submitted to CAS. Since 2016, an anti-doping division of CAS was given full authority to judge doping cases at the Olympic Games.

Statement 2: It had replaced earlier mechanism of the IOC disciplinary commission. So, 2 is incorrect.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

The innovative scheme of star rating of mines recently launched by the Union Ministry of Mines assesses performance of mines on the basis of which of the following parameters?

1. Total volume of mineral production and annual turnover

2. Scientific and systematic mining

3. Local community engagements and welfare programmes

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Justification: The innovative scheme of star rating of mines was launched by the Union Ministry of Mines through IBM as part of Sustainable Development Framework (SDF) in the mining sector.

■  The main objective of this system is to bring all mines to a minimum standard of Star Rating in the shortest possible time frame to adopt sustainable practices.

■  Based on the performance of the mining leases, a one to five star rating would be given to the mines.

■  Initially, the star rating will be done for mines of majorminerals.

The star rating will be based on the following parameters: (i) scientific and systematic mining, (ii) addressing social impact of resettlement and rehabilitation, (iii)local community engagements and welfare programmes, (iv) progressive and final mine closure and adoption of international standards and (v) adoption of international standards for mining operations and reporting.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) is being implemented with which of the following objectives?

1. Make the Police functioning citizen friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations

2. Facilitate Interaction and sharing of Information among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT headquarters and other Police Agencies

3. Keep track of the progress of Cases, including in Courts  

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Justification: It aims at increasing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing through adopting of principle of e- Governance and creation of a nationwide networking infrastructure for evolution of IT-enabled-state-of-the-art tracking system around 'Investigation of crime and detection of criminals'.

Objectives of 'CCTNS'

  • Make the Police functioning citizen friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations.
  • Improve delivery of citizen-centric services through effective usage of ICT.
  • Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police with tools, technology and information to facilitate investigation of crime and detection of criminals.
  • Improve Police functioning in various other areas such as Law and Order, Traffic Management etc.
  • Facilitate Interaction and sharing of Information among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT headquarters and other Police Agencies.
  • Assist senior Police Officers in better management of Police Force
  • Keep track of the progress of Cases, including in Courts
  • Reduce manual and redundant Records keeping

 

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Consider the following about the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR).

1. It is a statutory body functioning as a division of the Ministry of Arts and Culture.

2. It gives special emphasis on historical research in areas which have not received adequate attention so far.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Justification: Statement 1: ICHR is an autonomous body of the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development. It was established by an Administrative Order of the then Union Ministry of Education and Social Welfare.

Statement 2: It brings historians together and provide a forum for exchange of views between them and gives a national direction to an objective and scientific writing of history and to have rational presentation and interpretation of history.

  • It promotes, accelerates and coordinates research in history with special emphasis on areas which have not received adequate attention so far;
  • ICHR disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars on their applications

for fellowships, grants, and symposia made to ICHR or through HRD Ministry.

  • It has provided financial assistance to the historians and direction to the research scholars in their multifarious topics of historical research.

Learning: The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is planning to document stories and legends relating to villages and towns across India into an encyclopedia.

  • This initiative is aimed at to connect people better with the oral and folk traditions.
  • It would be among the key initiatives to be under taken by ICHR. Other initiatives to be undertaken include study of the princely States of modern India, studies to fill the gaps between the Harappan civilisation (first Indian urbanisation) and the 6th century BC (second urbanisation).
UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Consider the following about the Office of the Governor.

1. The tenure of his Office is not mentioned in the Constitution.

2. The same person cannot act as Governor for two or more states.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Justification: Statement 1: Article 156: Governor is appointed by President and hold office during the pleasure of President. It should be also noted that this article also mentions tenure of Governor. In this regard it says that Governor shall hold office for the term of 5 years from date he enters upon his office.

Statement 2: Article 153: It says that there shall be Governor for each state. But 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.

View more questions
Information about UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 9, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for UPSC

Download as PDF

Top Courses for UPSC