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Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - CLAT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern)

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) for CLAT 2025 is part of CLAT preparation. The Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) questions and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus.The Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) below.
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Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 1
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Which period is called the Golden period for Ancient India?

Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 1
Gupta period is called the Golden period for Ancient India.
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What is the name of the condition that prevents blood from clotting?

Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 2
Haemophilia, also spelled hemophilia, is a mostly inherited genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to make blood clots, a process needed to stop bleeding. This results in people bleeding longer after an injury, easy bruising, and an increased risk of bleeding inside joints or the brain
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Which of the following Viceroys withdrew Doctrine of Lapse?

Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 3
Lord Canning, The last governor general and first viceroy withdrew Doctrine of Lapse.
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Where is the International Court of Justice located?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 4
Located in Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, the International Court of Justice is the main judicial branch of the United Nations. The court was established in 1945 by the UN Charter and took the place of the Permanent Court of International Justice.
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Which schedules lists the 22 languages recognized by the constitution?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 5
8th schedules lists the 22 languages recognized by the constitution. The 22 languages which are listed in the Eighth Schedule are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
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What defines a statistical estimation based on extending a known sequence of values/facts beyond the area that is already known?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 6
the action of estimating or concluding something by assuming that existing trends will continue or a current method will remain applicable.
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The United Nations has how many principal organs to carry out its functions?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 7
There are six main organs of the United Nations—the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Trusteeship Council, the Economic and Social Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat.
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What was a significant reason for the Karnataka government's rejection of the Kasturirangan Committee report?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 8

The Karnataka government's rejection of the Kasturirangan Committee report was significantly influenced by political pressure and strong opposition from local representatives. Many politicians expressed concerns that implementing the report’s recommendations could adversely affect the livelihoods of local communities, particularly in districts reliant on agriculture and other land-use practices.

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After 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 when the Proclamation of Emergency is made under Article 352(1)
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 9
It is noteworthy that the enforcement of Article 20 and 21 is suspended, the operation of the mentioned articles does not get affected.
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In which year were the Indian states recognized on a linguistic basis:
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 10
The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries and governance of India's states and territories.

Although additional changes to India's state boundaries have been made since 1956, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 remains the single most extensive change in state boundaries since the independence of India in 1947.

In December 1953, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru appointed the States Reorganization Commission to prepare for the creation of states on linguistic lines. This was headed by Justice Fazal Ali and the commission itself was also known as the Fazal Ali Commission. The efforts of this commission was overseen by Govind Ballabh Pant, who served as Home Minister from December 1954. The commission created a report in 1955 recommending the reorganization of India's states.

The States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which went into effect on November 1, eliminated the distinction between part A, B, and C states. It also reorganized the state boundaries and created or dissolved states and union territories.

On November 1, 1956 India was divided into the following states and union territories:

States

  • Andhra Pradesh: Andhra was renamed Andhra Pradesh, and enlarged by the addition of the Telangana region of erstwhile Hyderabad State.

  • Assam

  • Bihar

  • Bombay State: The state was enlarged by the addition of Saurashtra and Kutch, the Marathi-speaking districts of Nagpur Division of Madhya Pradesh, and the Marathwada region of Hyderabad. The southernmost districts of Bombay were transferred to Mysore State. (In 1960, the state was split into the modern states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.)

  • Jammu and Kashmir

  • Kerala: formed by the merger of Travancore-Cochin state with the Malabar District of Madras State.

  • Madhya Pradesh: Madhya Bharat, Vindhya Pradesh, and Bhopal were merged into Madhya Pradesh, and the Marathi-speaking districts of Nagpur Division were transferred to Bombay state.

  • Madras State: the state was reduced to its present boundaries by the transfer of Malabar District to the new state of Kerala. (The state was renamed Tamil Nadu in 1969.)

  • Mysore State: Enlarged by the addition of Coorg state and the Kannada speaking districts from southern Bombay state and western Hyderabad state. (The state was renamed Karnataka in 1973.)

  • Orissa

  • Punjab: the Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) was merged into Punjab.

  • Rajasthan: Rajputana was renamed Rajasthan, and enlarged by the addition of Ajmer-Merwara state.

  • Uttar Pradesh

  • West Bengal

Union territories

  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  • Delhi

  • Himachal Pradesh

  • Lakshadweep

  • Pondicherry

  • Tripura

  • Manipur

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 11
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Which of the following provisions came into force immediately after adoption of the Indian Constitution
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 11
All the mentioned provisions became operative on the 26th November 1949. This date every year is celebrated as law day/constitution day.
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Rules

A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.

B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.

C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realize the objectives of forming the association.

D. Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.

E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts

Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monirul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Singh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

Q. If Parliament enacts is law that requires a trade union to open its membership to all the employees, then
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 12
A person also has the right with whom to associate. If the trade union does not have the right to choose its members, then it would amount to a case of violating the right of the trade union members to choose whom to associate with. Such a law would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
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The 42nd Amendment added the following words to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 13
The preamble to the Indian Constitution has been amended just once by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1972 and it inserted the following words "Secular, socialist, unity and integrity
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Right to Property as a Fundamental Right from the list of Fundamental Rights was removed by virtue of
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 14
Fundamental Rights via the Constitution 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It was instead made a constitutional right under Article 300A which states that. " No person can be deprived of his property except by authority of law."
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Under Article 143 the Supreme Court enjoys
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 15
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution states: Power of President to consult Supreme Court (1) If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon 2)The President may, notwithstanding anything in the proviso to Article 131, refer a dispute of the kind mentioned in the said proviso to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
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Which one of the following is not a method of by which an Indian individual may loose his/her citizenship
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 16
Part II of the Indian Constitution provides for the provisions pertaining to the Indian Citizenship under Article 5 to 11. Parliament has also enacted the Indian Citizenship Act of 1955 in order to elaborate on the provisions pertaining to citizenship.
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Principle: Acceptance must be given only by the person to whom the offer has been made

Facts: A sold his to his manager B without disclosing the fact to his customers. C, a customer, who had a running account with A, sent an order for the supply of goods to A by name. B received the order and executed the same, C refused to pay the price. Is C liable to pay B?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 17
This rule has been settled in the case law Boulton vs. Jones: whereby it was laid down that acceptance must be given only by the person to whom the offer has been made.
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Assertion: In the event of violation of any legal right the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages

Reason: The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore assessed on that basis.
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 18
Tort is a wrongful act other than a breach of contract for which relief may be obtained in the form of damages or an injunction. The law of torts serves four objectives. First, it seeks to compensate victims for injuries suffered by the culpable action or inaction of others. Second, it seeks to shift the cost of such injuries to the person or persons who are legally responsible for inflicting them. Third, it seeks to discourage injurious careless and risky behavior in the future. Fourth, it seeks to indicate legal rights and interest that have been compromised, diminished, or emasculated.

Thus it can easily be concluded that the given assertion and reason stand individually true also reason is correct explanation of the assertion.

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The railway authorities allowed a train to be overcrowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose the appropriate answer:
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 19
A cause of action is a set of facts that are used to justify claims or right to sue to obtain property or money or enforcement of a right against another party and since there is no infringement of legal rights of X, there is no cause of action arising against the Railway authority and hence he cannot sue them.
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In the questions given below, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Permit
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 20
Permit: ‘to allow somebody to do something’.

Forbid: ‘to order somebody not to do something’.

Hence both Permit and Forbid are antonyms to each other.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 21
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Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

At harvest the corn was cut high on the stalk with short sickles and (put up in sheafs), after which it was carried to the threshing-floor and trodden out by the hoofs of oxen.
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 21
‘Sheaves’ are bundles of grain stalks, stacked lengthwise and tied together. ‘Sheaf’ is singular while the plural form is ‘sheaves’. ‘put up in a sheaves’ can’t be used as sheaves is a plural noun hence ‘a’ can’t be used before it. ‘put up in sheaf’ is not correct as ‘sheaf’ is a singular form of countable noun hence article ‘a’ should be used before it. Hence option C improves the sentence.
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In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelled. Find the correctly spelt word.
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 22
The correctly spelled word is "Repudiate."
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In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, mark the No Error option.

The library members were asked to return the books to the library.
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 23
Use ‘return’ in place of ‘return back’ Using back with return will be superfluous as return means to come back.
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Directions: In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between `strong` arguments and `weak` arguments.

`Strong` arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. `Weak` arguments are those which are of minor importance and they are directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the given arguments is a `strong` argument.

Question: Should all the non-performing employees in the public sector be compulsorily retrenched from service?

Arguments:

I. No, this will give an unjust handle to the management and they may use it indiscriminately.

II. Yes, this will help in increasing the efficiency of these organisations and these organisations will become more profitable establishments as a result.
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 24
Argument (I) is strong because such sweeping powers often tend to fall prey to vested interests. Argument (II) is strong as well because performance and efficiency are matters of concern.
Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 25
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Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

(i) Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests.

(ii) No two students score the same marks.

(iii) V always scores more than P.

(iv) P always scores more than Q.

(v) Each time, either R scores the highest and T scores the least or S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.

Q. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, then which of the following statements can be true?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 25

From the table, we see that only option (4) is possible.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 26
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Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

(i) Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests.

(ii) No two students score the same marks.

(iii) V always scores more than P.

(iv) P always scores more than Q.

(v) Each time, either R scores the highest and T scores the least or S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.

Q. If V is ranked fifth, then which of the following statements must be true?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 26

From the table, option (1) is the correct answer.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 27
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Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

(i) Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests.

(ii) No two students score the same marks.

(iii) V always scores more than P.

(iv) P always scores more than Q.

(v) Each time, either R scores the highest and T scores the least or S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.

Q. If S is ranked second, then which of the following statements can be true?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 27

From (iii) and (iv), we get V > P > Q.

Therefore, option 4 is incorrect.

From the table, we see that only option 1 is possible.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 28
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Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

(i) There is a family of 5 persons – A, B, C, D and E.

(ii) They have different professions: Doctor, Teacher, Trader, Lawyer, and Farmer.

(iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.

(iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.

(v) C is the husband in the only married couple of the family.

(vi) A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter.

(vii) Daughter–in–law of A is a doctor.

Q. Which among the following is a group of female members of the family?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 28
According to information given, the following diagram is obtained

There are 2 female members in the family: B and D.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 29
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Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

(i) There is a family of 5 persons – A, B, C, D and E.

(ii) They have different professions: Doctor, Teacher, Trader, Lawyer, and Farmer.

(iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.

(iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.

(v) C is the husband in the only married couple of the family.

(vi) A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter.

(vii) Daughter–in–law of A is a doctor.

Q. Who is the trader in the family?
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 29
According to information given, the following diagram is obtained

C is the trader in the family.

Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 30
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Namratha walks 14 metres towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 meters and then turns to her left and walks 10 metres. Again turning to her left she walks 14 metres. What is the shortest distance (in metres) between her starting point and her present position?  
Detailed Solution for Test: PU LLB Mock Test - 5 (New Pattern) - Question 30

Let's break down Namratha's movements step by step:

  1. First Movement: She walks 14 meters west.
  2. Second Movement: She turns right and walks 14 meters north.
  3. Third Movement: She turns left and walks 10 meters west.
  4. Fourth Movement: She turns left again and walks 14 meters south.

Now, let's analyze her position.

  • After the first movement, she's 14 meters west of the starting point.
  • After the second movement, she's 14 meters west and 14 meters north of the starting point.
  • After the third movement, she's 24 meters west and 14 meters north of the starting point.
  • After the fourth movement, she moves 14 meters south, so she's now 24 meters west and at the same latitude as her starting point (because the south movement cancels out the north movement).

To find the shortest distance between her starting point and her present position, we just need to calculate the straight-line distance (which is the horizontal distance since her vertical displacement is zero).

Since she is 24 meters west of her starting point, the shortest distance is:

Distance = 24 meters

So the correct answer is 24 meters (Option 3).

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