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Practice Test: Geography- 2 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Geography- 2

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Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 1

Which of the following best describes the term "truck farming"?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 1
  • "Truck farming" refers to the highly specialised and intensive form of market gardening practised in North-West Europe, particularly in areas like the Vales of York and Evesham in the United Kingdom. These farms, characterized by small size and proximity to urban or industrial centres, focus on cultivating perishable crops such as lettuces, cabbages, tomatoes, and fruits.
  • The term, Truck farming is commonly used in the United States to describe this practice, emphasizing the efficient transport of fresh produce to meet the demands of urban populations.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 2

The nomadic tribes named the Lapps, the Yakuts, and the Samoyeds belong to which of the following regions?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 2
  • In the Eurasian tundra, are nomadic tribes such as the Lapps of northern Finland and Scandinavia, the Samoyeds of Siberia (from the Ural Mountains and the Yenisey basin), the Yakuts from the Lena basin, and the Koryaks and Chuckchi of north-eastern Asia. They wander with their herds of reindeer across the Eurasian tundra where there are pastures. Many of them have taken to a more settled life. In the erstwhile U.S.S.R. large farms have been established for raising reindeer and for breeding furbearing animals.
  • Tundra, a major zone of treeless level or rolling ground found in cold regions, mostly north of the Arctic Circle (Arctic tundra) or above the timberline on high mountains (alpine tundra). Tundra is known for large stretches of bare ground and rock and for patchy mantles of low vegetation such as mosses, lichens, herbs, and small shrubs.
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Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 3

Consider the following :

  1. The back shore represents the beach zone, starting from the limit of frequent storm waves to the cliff base.
  2. Foreshore extends from low tide water to high tide water.
  3. Offshore represents the zone of shallow bottom of the continental slope.

How many of the above given statements are correct regarding the sea coast and the seashore?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 3

Generally, sea coast and seashore are taken as synonyms, but geomorphologically these two terms have quite different meanings. Sea shore represents the zone of land between high tide water (HTW ) and low tide water (LTW) while the shoreline represents the actual landward lim it of seawater at a given moment of time. ‘The shoreline is the line of demarcation between land and water. It fluctuates from moment to moment influenced by waves and tides’ (A. Bloom, 1979). The coast represents the land-zone immediately behind the cliff. The coastline represents the cliffline or the margin of land rising above the sea water. The shore zone or simply shore is divided into 3 zones :

  • Back shore represents the beach zone starting from the limit of frequent storm waves to the cliff base.Hence,Statement 1 is correct
  • Foreshore extends from low tide w ater to high tide water.Hence,Statement 2 is correct
  • Offshore represents the zone of shallow bottom of the continental slope.Hence,Statement 3 is correct

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 4

With reference to the ‘erosional processes’, consider the following statements:

  1. Hydraulic action is the mechanical loosening and removal of materials of rocks by water alone without the help of erosion tools.
  2. Attrition is the process of removing, lifting and blowing away dry and loose particles of sand and dust by winds.
  3. Deflation refers to the wearing down and rounding of sediment particles as they collide with each other during transport.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 4

Erosion is the acquisition and transportation of rock debris by geomorphic agents like running water, the wind, waves, glaciers, etc. Though weathering aids erosion, it is not a precondition for erosion to take place. (i.e., erosion can take place in unweathered conditions also).

  • Statement 1 is correct: The breakdown of rocks due to pressure exerted by water currents of the rivers and sea waves is termed Hydraulic action. It is the mechanical loosening and removal of materials of rocks by water alone without the help of erosion tools. The rivers erode their valley walls through hydraulic action.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Attrition refers to mechanical tear and wear of erosion tools suffered by themselves. The boulders, cobbles, pebbles, etc, while moving downstream with water, collide against each other and thus are fragmented into smaller and finer pieces in transit.
    Attrition by wind involves the mechanical breakdown of rock particles while they are transported by wind through the processes of saltation and surface creep.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Deflation is the process of removing, lifting and blowing away dry and loose particles of sand and dust by winds. It happens in semi-arid or arid regions. Congelifraction (frost weathering), Congelifluction (soil creep), nivation (snow patch erosion), etc. are significant weathering and transportation mechanisms performed by periglacial agents.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 5

Consider the Following:

  1. Gorges
  2. Plunge Pools
  3. Rapids
  4. Crevasses

How many of the above are erosional landforms formed by the running water?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 5
  • Hard and resistant bedrock hinder the widening of the valley at the top but down cutting process continues with the vigour of the river which can lead to the formation of gorge. The narrow and very deep gorge or the canyon with vertical walls is also known as the ‘I’ shaped valley. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • The Plunge Pool is formed on the river bed mostly because of hydraulic action where the water falls from height and causes bedrock erosion. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Rapids formed in areas of shallow fastflowing water in younger streams. There are many tiny waterfalls created within the stream. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Crevasses: These are cracks which appear on the top of the glaciers and headwalls of cirques. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about Volcanoes:

  1. Magma once it starts moving towards the crust or it reaches the surface, is referred to as lava.
  2. The Hawaiian volcanoes are famous examples of shield volcanoes.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 6
  • A volcano is a place where gases, ashes and/or molten rock material – lava – escape to the ground. A volcano is called an active volcano if the materials mentioned are being released or have been released in the recent past.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The mantle contains a weaker zone called the asthenosphere. From this, the molten rock materials find their way to the surface. The material in the upper mantle portion is called magma. Once it starts moving towards the crust or reaches the surface, it is called lava. The material that reaches the ground includes lava flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash and dust and gases such as nitrogen compounds, sulphur compounds and minor amounts of chlorine, hydrogen and argon.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the Earth. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low explosivity.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 7

Which of the following are examples of Erosional landforms of Glaciation?

  1. Eskers
  2. Aretes
  3. Bergschrund
  4. Moraines
  5. Drumlins

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 7

Erosional Landforms: The erosional work of the glaciers is accomplished through the mechanisms of abrasion,plucking and polishing. Pure ice mass is geomorpho logically inactive but when coarse debris is carried by the glacier at its base it becomes an active agent of erosion. Thus, the glacier erodes its bed and sidewalls with the help of tools of erosion (coarse debris) through the mechanism of abrasion. Large particles of well jointed rocks are detached by the moving glacial ice. This mechanism is called plucking.

  • Aretes: The mountain divide is sharpened due to recession of cirques on its both sides. Such sharpened peaks resembling sawteeths are called aretes. An arete is, in fact, a saw-toothed divide consisting of a series of close and intervening ridge segments.
  • Bergschrund: At the head of a glacier, where it begins to leave the snowfield of a Corrie, a deep vertical crack opens called a Bergschrund(in German) or Rimaye(in French). This happens in summer when, although the ice continues to move out of the Corrie, there is no new snow to replace it. The Bergschrund is a major obstacle to climbers.
  • Other kinds of erosional landforms are Cirque, Corrie, U-shaped glacial trough, Hanging Valley, Nunatak.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. Straight Channels are found where there is the same structure and parallel disposition of hard and soft rocks on the underlying topography.
  2. A Meandering Channel shows both the erosion as well as deposition features.
  3. A Braided Channel is formed when a stream contains too much sediment, and the stream divides into branching and intertwining subchannels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is correct: Straight Channels are rare and usually found where there is the same structure and parallel disposition of hard and soft rocks on the underlying topography, which forces the channel to be straight. When the velocity of the stream is low, the sediment can be deposited to form a point bar.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A Meandering Channel is the characteristic of a river that is free to travel across a valley floor. They develop most readily on low gradient slopes composed of easily eroded sediments. Rivers in mature stages often show such sinuous channels, of which the outer curve is important due to relatively free water flow, and the inner side, due to restricted flow, sheds off some of its load, called slip-off slope. When you have a look at the transverse section, it will show a sloping surface from the cut-off to the slipoff side. Hence, one can observe both erosion and deposition in the case of meandering rivers.
  • Statement 3 is correct: A Braided Channel is formed when a stream contains more sediment than it can readily transport. It is the stream that divides into branching and intertwining subchannels separated by islands or sandbars. It is also characteristic of the mature stage of river development.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 9

“The heavy rainfall, the warm summers and the damp air from fogs, all favour the growth of trees. Forests are adaptable to cold conditions. The trees occur in almost pure stands and timber is a leading export item of this region. A long growing season of over six months and an adequate supply of moisture from maritime sources encourage rapid growth of ferns.”
Which of the following climatic types is best described by the passage above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 9
  • The predominant vegetation of the Laurentian type of climate is cool temperate forest. The heavy rainfall, the warm summers and the damp air from fogs, all favour the growth of trees. Generally speaking, the forest tend to be coniferous north of the 50°N. parallel of latitude. The increase in the length and severity of the Winter excludes forests that are not adaptable to cold conditions. In the Asiatic region (eastern Siberia and Korea), the coniferous forests are, in fact, a continuation of the great coniferous belt of the taiga. Lumbering has always been a major occupation of this sparsely populated part of eastern Asia and timber is a leading export item. Much of the original coniferous forests of fir, spruce and larch have been cleared as a result of lumbering rather than agriculture.
  • South of latitude 50°N., the coniferous forests give way to deciduous forests. Oak, beech, maple and birch are the principal trees. Like their counterparts on the western margins, the deciduous forests are fairly open. A long growing season of over six months and an adequate supply of moisture from maritime sources encourage rapid growth of ferns and other temperate undergrowth. The occurrence of trees in almost pure stands, and the predominance of only a handful of species greatly enhance the commercial value of these forests. As a result, they have been extensively felled for the extraction of temperate hardwood.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs:
Geographical feature : Associated River

  1. Gandikota Canyon : Kaveri
  2. Gangani : Shilabati
  3. Raneh Fall : Betwa
  4. Vazhachal Falls : Bharathappuzha

How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 10
  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Gandikota village is located in Kadapa district of the state of Andhra Pradesh, India and is home to a stunning canyon, by the Pennar river. Also called Gandikota Canyon, this natural structure is often compared to the Grand Canyon of Arizona, USA.
  • Pair 2 is correct: Gangani, widely known as the “Grand Canyon of Bengal” is a famous tourist & picnic spot situated by the town of Garhbeta of Paschim Medinipur district at a distance of 55 Km from Midnapore Town. It comprises natural hills around the River Shilabati, locally known as “Shilai River.”
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: The Raneh Fall is a natural waterfall on the Ken River, located in Khajuraho in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. The Ken River forms a 5 kilometres (3.1 mi) long, and 30 metres (98 ft) deep canyon made of pure crystalline granite in varying shades of colours ranging from pink and red to grey. There is a series of waterfalls in the canyon.
  • Pair 4 is incorrect: One of the most famous waterfalls of Kerala, Vazhachal Falls is situated on the Chalakudy River. The river originates in the upper reaches of the Western Ghats and the waterfall marks the start of the Sholayar range. The 120 m, almost 390 ft waterfall is a blessed sight.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 11

“Winters are long and very severe; summers are cool and brief. In some areas of this climate, there are weeks of continuous darkness.”
Which one of the following climatic regions is best described by the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 11
  • The polar type of climate and vegetation is found mainly north of the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere. The ice caps are confined to Greenland and to the highlands of these high-latitude regions, where the ground is permanently snowcovered. The lowlands, with a few months ice-free, have tundra vegetation.
  • In the southern hemisphere, the virtually uninhabited continent of Antarctica is the greatest single stretch of icecap where the layers of permanent ice are as thick as 10,000 feet.
  • The polar climate is characterized by a very low mean annual temperature and its warmest month is June (in Northern hemisphere). Normally not more than four months have temperatures above freezingpoint.
  • Winters are long and very severe; summers are cool and brief. Within the Arctic and Antarctic Circles, there are weeks of continuous darkness. At the North Pole, there are six months without light in winter. Despite the long duration of sunshine in summer, when the sun does not set, temperatures remain low because the sun is low in the sky and much of the warmth of its faint rays is either reflected by the ground snow, or used up in melting the ice. It has little power left to raise the air temperature.
  • Water in the soil is frozen to great depths and the summer heat can only thaw the upper six inches of the soil.
  • The ground remains solidly frozen for all but four months, inaccessible to plants. Frost occurs at any time and blizzards, reaching a velocity of 130 miles an hour are not infrequent. They can be very hazardous for the polar inhabitants.
  • In coastal districts, where warmer water meets cold land thick fogs may develop. They last for days, and in many instances it is not possible to see for more than a few feet.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 12

Which of the following statements about types of lava are correct?

  1. Basic lavas are rich in Iron and Magnesium but poor in Silica.
  2. Basic lavas flow quietly and are not very explosive.
  3. Acidic lava is highly fluid and affects extensive areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 12

There are two main types of lava:
Basic lavas and
Acidic lavas

  • Statement 1 is correct: Basic lava is the hottest lava about 1000°C and highly fluid. They are dark-coloured like basalt, rich in iron and magnesium but poor in silica.
  • Statement 2 is correct: When basic lava is poured out of the volcano, it flows quietly and is not very explosive. Due to their high fluidity, they flow readily with a speed of 10 to 30 miles per hour. They affect extensive areas, spreading out as thin sheets over great distances before they solidify. The resultant volcano is gently sloping with a wide diameter and forms a flattened shield or dome.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Acidic lava is highly viscous with a high melting point. They are light coloured of low density, and have a high percentage of silica. They flow slowly and seldom travel far before solidifying. The resultant cone is therefore steep-sided. The rapid congealing of lava in the vent obstructs the flow of the outpouring lava, resulting in loud explosions, and throwing out many volcanic bombs or pyroclasts. Sometimes the lavas are so viscous that they form a spine or plug at the crater like that of Mt.Pelee in Martinique.

Some spines are very resistant and while most of the material of very old volcanoes is removed by erosion, the spine may remain.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: There are no big trees in the tundra region.
Statement-II:The tundra region is deficient in heat.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 13
  • In an adverse environment such as the tundra, few plants survive. The greatest inhibiting factor is the region's deficiency in heat. With a growing season of less than three months and the warmest month not exceeding 50°F. (the tree-survival line), there are no trees in the tundra. Such an environment can support only the lowest form of vegetation, mosses, lichens and sedges.
  • Drainage in the tundra is usually poor as the subsoil is permanently frozen. Ponds, marshes and waterlogged areas are found in hollows.
  • In the more sheltered spots, stunted birches, dwarf willows and undersized alders struggle for a meagre existence.
  • Climatic conditions along the coastal lowlands are a little more favourable. Here are some hardy grasses and reindeer moss, which provide the only pasturage for the herbivorous animals like reindeer.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 14

Consider the following pairs:
River course : Landforms

  1. Upper : V shaped Valleys
  2. Middle : Estuaries
  3. Lower : Ox-bow lakes

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 14

The course of a river is divided into three sections:

  1. The upper course or the stage of youth
  2. The middle course or the stage of maturity
  3. The lower course or the stage of old age.
  • Pair 1 is correct: The upper or mountain course begins from the source of the river in hilly or mountainous areas. The weathered rock material is carried into the stream partly through the action of gravity and partly by rainwater flowing into the river. Weathering helps in widening a valley at the top, giving it a typical ‘V’ shaped cross-section. Such valleys are known as ‘V’ shaped valleys.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: In the middle course, even minor obstacles force a river to swing in loops to go round the obstacles. These loops are called meanders. Some of the land features formed by a river in its middle course are alluvial fans, and meanders.
  • Pair 3 is correct: The river moving downstream across a broad, level plain is heavy with debris brought down from the upper and middle courses. Vertical corrasion has almost ceased, the lateral corrasion still goes on to erode its banks further. The work of the river is mainly deposition, building up its bed and forming an extensive floodplain. In the lower course land features produced by river are meanders, flood plains, braided steam, oxbow lakes, deltas and estuaries.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 15

Consider the following:

  1. Lapilli
  2. Volcanic dust
  3. Volcanic bombs
  4. Volcanic ash

Which of the following is the correct ascending order of the size of the given pyroclastic materials? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 15

Pyroclastic materials thrown during the explosive type of eruption are grouped into three categories,
(i) Essential materials include consolidated forms of live lavas. These are also known as tephra, which means ash. Essential materials are unconsolidated, and their size is up to 2 mm.
(ii) Accessory materials are formed of dead lavas,
(iii) Accidental materials include fragmental materials of crustal rocks.
On the basis of size, pyroclastic materials are grouped into
(i) volcanic dust (finest particles),
(ii) volcanic ash (2 mm in size),
(iii) lapilli (of the size of peas) and
(iv) volcanic bombs (6 cm or more in size),
which are of different shapes viz. ellipsoidal, discoidal, cuboidal, and irregularly rounded. The dimension of average volcanic bombs ranges from the size of a baseball or basketball to a giant size. Sometimes, the volcanic bombs weigh 100 tonnes in weight and are thrown up to a distance of 10 km.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 16

With reference to nutrient content, which one of the following correctly describes the alluvial soils?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 16
  • Alluvial soil is a type of soil that is formed by the deposition of sediments carried by rivers, streams, and other water bodies. It is one of the most fertile and agriculturally productive soil types found in various parts of the world.
  • Rich in potash (potassium): Alluvial soils are generally abundant in potash, which is beneficial for plant growth. Potassium is an essential nutrient for various physiological processes in plants, including enzyme activation, water uptake, and photosynthesis.
  • Poor in phosphorus: Alluvial soils are relatively deficient in phosphorus. Phosphorus is crucial for plant energy transfer, root development, and flowering, but its concentration in alluvial soils is often lower compared to other nutrients.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the summer weather patterns in the Indian subcontinent:

  1. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts southward during the summer season.
  2. Westerly jet stream over the North Indian Plain strengthens as the summer progresses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 17
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: As the summer sets in and the sun shifts northwards (apparent motion), the wind circulation over the subcontinent undergoes a change at both, the lower as well as the upper levels. By the middle of July, the low pressure belt nearer the surface, termed as Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts northwards, roughly parallel to the Himalayas between 20° N and 25° N.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The westerly jet stream withdraws from the North Indian Plains during the summer season, rather than strengthening. There is an observed interrelationship between the northward shift of the equatorial trough (ITCZ) and the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream. It is generally believed that there is a cause and effect relationship between the two.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 18

With reference to the 5th National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) consider the following statements:

  1. The overall sex ratio in India is better than the sex ratio at birth.
  2. The overall sex ratio in India is higher in urban areas than in rural areas.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 18
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Sex ratio at birth is defined as the number of female births per 1000 male births. According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS5) conducted in 2019-20, the sex ratio at birth in India has improved from 919 females per 1,000 males in 2015-16 to 929 females per 1,000 males in 2019-20. The overall sex ratio of the population (females per 1000 males) for India was estimated as 1020.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The overall sex ratio is higher in rural areas (1037) than in urban areas (985).
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 19

Which of the following states do not have any notified Scheduled Tribes as per the 2011 Census?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Goa
  3. Punjab
  4. Haryana
  5. Bihar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 19

The term 'Scheduled Tribes' first appeared in the Constitution of India. Article 366 (25) defined scheduled tribes as "such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this constitution". The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe in relation to the State of Haryana and Punjab and Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 20

Which one of the following states has the highest percentage of rural population as per the 2011 Census?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 20

The vast majority of the population of India has always lived in rural areas, and that continues to be true. According to the Census of India 2011, still more people are living in rural areas but the population of urban areas has increased. Now 68.8% of the population lives in rural areas while 31.2% of people live in urban areas. As per the 2011 Census of India, the state with the highest share of rural population was Himachal Pradesh (89.97%). Other states with a prominent share of rural population include are -

  • Bihar - 88.71%
  • Assam - 85.90%
  • Odisha - 83.31%
  • Uttar Pradesh - 77.73%

In terms of absolute figures, the highest rural population resides in the state of Uttar Pradesh (155,317,278) followed by Bihar (92,341,436).

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 21

Which one of the following religious groups have the highest proportion of literate population in India?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 21

As per the Census 2011 data released on 'education level by religious community for age 7 and above" by the government, Jains (86.73%) have the highest percentage of literate among India's religious communities. The percentage of literates among Christians is 74.34%, among Buddhists 71.83% and among Sikhs 67.51%. Jains also have the highest percentage of educated members who are graduates and above. At 25.65% of Jains who have minimum graduation as a qualification, they far surpass corresponding numbers for other communities, which are 8.85% for Christians, 6.40% for Sikhs, 6.18% for Buddhists, 5.98% for Hindus and an abysmal 2.76% for Muslims.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian monsoon and its onset:

  1. The differential heating of land and sea during summer is responsible for the onset of the Indian monsoon.
  2. The southwest monsoon is a continuation of the southeast trades after crossing the Equator.
  3. The westerly jet stream of Nothern India bring the burst of the monsoon with it.
  4. By mid-July, southwest monsoon spreads to the entire subcontinent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is correct: The differential heating of land and sea during the summer months is the mechanism which sets the stage for the monsoon winds to drift towards the subcontinent. During April and May when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer, the large landmass in the north of Indian ocean gets intensely heated. This causes the formation of an intense low pressure in the northwestern part of the subcontinent.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Since the pressure in the Indian Ocean in the south of the landmass is high as water gets heated slowly, the low pressure cell attracts the southeast trades across the Equator. These conditions help in the northward shift in the position of the ITCZ. The southwest monsoon may thus, be seen as a continuation of the southeast trades deflected towards the Indian subcontinent after crossing the Equator. These winds cross the Equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The shift in the position of the ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from its position over the north Indian plain. The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region. This easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The southwest monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by around 1st June and moves swiftly to reach Mumbai and Kolkata between 10th and 13th June. By mid-July, southwest monsoon engulfs the entire subcontinent.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 23

Consider the following statement with reference to the Universal Postal Union:

  1. It is a specialized agency of United Nation which promotes cooperation between postal sector players.
  2. Only members of United Nations can be the member of the Union.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 23
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Universal Postal Union is a United Nations specialized agency and the postal sector's primary forum for international cooperation. It is the second oldest international organization worldwide. The UPU is the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal network of up-todate products and services. It sets the rules for international mail exchanges and makes recommendations to stimulate growth in mail, parcel and financial services volumes and improve quality of service for customers.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU. Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member provided that its request is approved by at least twothirds of the member countries of the UPU. The union has currently 192 members.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 24

Which one of the following is correct with reference to the term ‘Population Momentum’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 24
  • Population Momentum refers to the tendency for population growth to continue beyond the time that replacement-level fertility has been achieved because of the relatively high concentration of people in the childbearing years. In other words, it refers to a situation, where a large cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population growth over the next generation, even if each woman has fewer children than previous generations did.
  • Census data from India (i.e., Registrar of India) suggests that population growth is on the decline since 1991. The average number of children a woman expected to give birth to during her life was 3.8 in 1990, and this has fallen to 2.7 children per woman. Even though the fertility and population growth rates are declining, India’s population is projected to increase from 1.2 billion today to an estimated 1.6 billion by 2050 due to population momentum.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 25

Consider the following statements with reference to the Producer Organisations (PO):

  1. A producer Organisation is formed by farmers only.
  2. It is an organization of the producers, by the producers and for the producers.
  3. The maximum number of members in the organization is restricted to ten members only.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The PO is an organization of the primary producers. If the produce in question is a nonfarm item (for example, handloom or handicraft), then the PO will be that of non-farmers.
    The objective of the PO is to ensure better income realization to its members (who are producers) through aggregation and, if feasible, value addition.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The ownership of the PO is with its members. It is an organization of the producers, by the producers and for the producers. One or more institutions and/or individuals may have promoted the PO by way of assisting in mobilization, registration, business planning and operations. However, ownership control is always with members and management is through the representatives of the members.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum number of membership depends on the legal form of the Producer Organisation. There is no restriction on the maximum number of membership. Generally, the PO will require certain minimum scale of operation to remain in business. This operation scale/volume is known as breakeven level.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 26

Consider the following:

  1. Khasi and Jaintia hills
  2. Ladakh
  3. Deccan Plateau
  4. Northern plains

Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing rainfall for the above regions?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 26
  • The average annual rainfall in India is about 125 cm, but it has great spatial variations.
  • Areas of High Rainfall: The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western Ghats, as well as in the subHimalayan areas is the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya. Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm. In the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, the rainfall is less than 200 cm.
  • Areas of Medium Rainfall: Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in the southern parts of Gujarat, east Tamil Nadu, northeastern Peninsula covering Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, northern Ganga plain along the subHimalayas and the Cachar Valley and Manipur.
  • Areas of Low Rainfall : Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-100 cm.
  • Areas of Inadequate Rainfall: Parts of the Peninsula, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra, Ladakh and most of western Rajasthan receive rainfall below 50 cm.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 27

With reference to Carbon Capture and Storage technology, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The Possible storage sites for carbon emissions include saline aquifers or depleted oil and gas reservoirs.
  2. United States was the first country to utilize this technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 is correct: Carbon capture and storage (CCS) is a way of reducing carbon emissions, which could be key to helping to tackle global warming. It’s a three-step process, involving: capturing the carbon dioxide produced by power generation or industrial activity, such as steel or cement making; transporting it; and then storing it deep underground. Possible storage sites for carbon emissions include saline aquifers or depleted oil and gas reservoirs, which typically need to be 0.62 miles (1km) or more under the ground.
  • Statement 2 is correct: CCS has been in operation since 1972 in the US, where several natural gas plants in Texas have captured and stored more than 200 million tons of CO2 underground. According to the Global CCS Institute’s 2022 report, there were 194 large-scale CCS facilities globally at the end of the year – compared to 51 in 2019 – 61 of which were new CCS facilities added to the project pipeline in 2022. 30 of these projects are in operation, 11 under construction and the remainder in various stages of development.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

  1. Replacement level is the rate of growth required for new generations to replace the older ones that are dying out.
  2. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of 2 is known as the replacement rate.
  3. India’s TFR is more than the Replacement level fertility rate.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is correct: The rate of natural increase or the growth rate of population refers to the difference between the birth rate and the death rate. When this difference is zero (or, in practice, very small) then it is said that the population has ‘stabilised’, or has reached the „replacement level’, which is the rate of growth required for new generations to replace the older ones that are dying out.
  • Sometimes, societies can experience a negative growth rate, that is, their fertility levels are below the replacement rate.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Total Fertility Rate (TFR) represents the number of children that would be born to a woman if she were to live to the end of her childbearing years and bear children in accordance with age-specific fertility rates of the specified year. A TFR of 2.1 is known as the replacement rate.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The TFR of India is 2.0 which is less than the replacement level fertility rate.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to the Farmers Distress Index:

  1. It is published by Central Island Agricultural Research Institute.
  2. Its main goal is to minimise the agrarian distress in the form of crop loss and income shock.
  3. The degree of distress will be identified on the basis of twenty one questions.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA), an institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) started working on a kind of an early warning system called ‘farmers distress index’, a first of its kind for India. The work is in the final stages and the index will be handed over to the central government in the next two-three months.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The main aim behind creating such an index is to minimise the agrarian distress in the form of crop loss / failure and income shock.
    Farmers’ exposure to shocks have increased in the recent years, with an increase in extreme climate events as well as market and price fluctuations, many times driving them to death by suicides.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Based on these 21 questions, the degree of distress will be identified. The index will have values from 0-1. A value between 0-0.5 will indicate ‘low distress’, 0.5-0.7 will indicate ‘moderate’ distress and above 0.7 will indicate ‘severe’ distress. If the index is severe, it will identify which component, among the seven, is more severe and contributes maximum to farmers’ distress. The index is currently being worked out in the form of a mobile or desktop application.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. The natural growth of the population is assessed through crude birth and death rates.
  2. The induced growth of the population is explained by migration patterns of the population.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 30

Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points in time. Its rate is expressed in percentage.
Statement 1 is correct: Population growth has two components namely; natural and induced. The natural growth is analysed by assessing the crude birth and death rates. Crude birth rate indicates the number of live births occurring during the year, per 1,000 population estimated at midyear.
Statement 2 is correct: The induced components are explained by the volume of inward and outward movement of people in any given area.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 31

Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS), which has been designated as the Tiger Reserve recently is located at

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 31
  • Recently Chhattisgarh State Wildlife Board rejected National Tiger Conservation Authority's (NTCA) recommendation to assign Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) the status of a Tiger Reserve. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Challenging the governments decision a public interest litigation (PIL), demanding to designate the Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) as a tiger reserve and the Chilpi Range as a buffer zone has been filed. But the Chhattisgarh high court has dismissed a public interest litigation (PIL).
  • The court emphasized that the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) had only suggested measures for the potential declaration of BWS as a Tiger Reserve and had not issued a binding recommendation.
  • There are to date 54 tiger Reserves and the last one to get the status was Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary which is located in the state of Chhattisgarh.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the International Organisation of Legal Metrology (OIML) certificates:

  1. An OIML pattern approval certificate is mandatory to sell a weight or measure in the international market.
  2. India is a member of OIML and also a certificate issuing authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 32
  • India becomes 13th country in world that can issue OIML certificates
    • Domestic manufacturers of weighing and measuring equipment, like BP meters and cloth scales, can now get the instruments tested in India itself before selling them in the international market.
    • An OIML Pattern Approval certificate is mandatory to sell a weight or measure in the international market, which the Department of Consumer Affairs can now issue. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • What is the OIML?
    • The OIML stands for International Organisation of Legal Metrology. Established in 1955 and headquartered in Paris, the OIML is an international standard-setting body. It develops model regulations, standards and related documents for use by legal metrology authorities and industry.
    • India became a member of the OIML in 1956. In the same year, India signed the metric convention.
  • What is the OIML certificate?
    • The OIML-CS is a system for issuing, registering and using OIML certificates, and their associated OIML type evaluation/test reports, for instruments like digital balance, clinical thermometers, etc. With the addition of India, the number of countries authorised to issue OIML certificates has increased to 13.
    • When did India become a member of the OIML?
      • India became a member of the OIML in 1956. In the same year, India signed the metric convention. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Twelve other countries, including Australia, Switzerland, China, the Czech Republic, Germany, Denmark, France and the United Kingdom, are authorised to issue these certificates.
  • The move is expected to help the Indian economy in several ways, including an increase in exports, earning of foreign exchange, and generation of employment.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 33

Consider the following pairs:
Discontinuity : Between

  1. Mohorovicic : Upper and Lower Mantle
  2. Gutenberg : Crust and Mantle
  3. Lehmann : Inner and Outer core

How many of  the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 33
  • The Earth's interior is composed of several layers with distinct boundaries, known as discontinuities. These boundaries separate the Earth's interior into distinct zones characterized by variations in composition, density, and physical properties. Some of the major interior Earth discontinuities include:
  • The Mohorovičić Discontinuity, often referred to as the "Moho," is one of the most important seismic boundaries within the Earth's interior. It is named after the Croatian seismologist Andrija Mohorovičić, who discovered it in 1909. The Moho represents a significant boundary that separates the Earth's outermost layer, known as the crust, from the underlying mantle. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    • The Moho is typically located at depths that vary depending on the geological setting and location. On average, it is situated around 5 to 10 kilometers (3 to 6 miles) below the Earth's surface beneath oceanic crust and approximately 20 to 70 kilometers (12 to 43 miles) below the Earth's surface beneath continental crust.
  • The Gutenberg Discontinuity, also known as the "Gutenberg-Weber Discontinuity," is a significant seismic boundary or discontinuity within the Earth's interior. It is named after two German seismologists, Beno Gutenberg and Ernst Mohr Weber.
    • The Gutenberg Discontinuity marks the boundary between two major portions of the Earth's mantle: the upper mantle and the lower mantle. These portions have distinct physical properties and behave differently in response to seismic waves. Hence pair 2 is not correctly macthed.
  • The Lehmann Discontinuity, named after the Danish seismologist Inge Lehmann, is a seismic boundary or discontinuity within the Earth's interior. Inge Lehmann discovered this important boundary in 1936. The Lehmann Discontinuity is located deep within the Earth's core and marks a transition zone within this region.
    • The Lehmann Discontinuity is found near the boundary between the Earth's outer core and its inner core. It marks the interface between these two core regions. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 34

Consider the following statements:

  1. Of the five, the Lagrangian Point 1 (or L-1) of the Earth-Sun system is currently home to the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory Satellite (SOHO).
  2. Aditya L-1 is the first space based Indian mission to study the Sun.
  3. Aditya-L1 has seven payloads, all developed indigenously by ISRO and national research laboratories.

How many of the above statements are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 34
  • Aditya-L1 is a satellite dedicated to the comprehensive study of the Sun. The Sun is a giant sphere of gas and Aditya-L1 would study the outer atmosphere of the Sun.
  • It has 7 distinct payloads developed, all developed indigenously. Five by ISRO and two by Indian academic institutes in collaboration with ISRO.There are seven payloads on-board, with four for remote sensing of the Sun and three for in-situ observation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Aditya L1 shall be the first space based Indian mission to study the Sun. The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses. This will provide a greater advantage of observing the solar activities and its effect on space weather in real time.
  • A Lagrange point, as defined by NASA, is a position in space where “the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them. These points in space can be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to remain in position.” Basically, this means that at that point, the gravitational attraction and repulsion between two heavenly bodies is such that an object placed between them will effectively stay in the same relative position while moving with them.
  • The Lagrange points are named in honor of Italian-French mathematician Josephy-Louis Lagrange, and there are five of them: L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5. According to NASA, “The L1 point of the Earth-Sun system affords an uninterrupted view of the Sun and is currently home to the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory Satellite SOHO.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 35

Consider the following pairs:
Places often mentioned in news : Country/Region

  1. Scarborough shoal : South China Sea
  2. Izmail port : Israel
  3. Al Haouz province : Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 35
  • The Scarborough Shoal is one of Asia's most contested maritime features and a flashpoint for diplomatic flare-ups over sovereignty and fishing rights. It is an atoll administered by China and is located in the South China Sea. The atoll is a disputed territory claimed by the Republic of the Philippines through the 1734 Velarde map, while the People's Republic of China claim it through the disputed nine-dash line. It was in news recently as a fresh controversy broke out after China installed a barricade near the South China Sea's Scarborough Shoal. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Izmail Sea Commercial Port, is a multidisciplinary port located in the waters of the Kiliia River estuary of the Danube. It is located in Black Sea in Ukraine. It is an important transport hub of Ukraine. It was in news recently as Russian drones damange the Izmail port infrastructure. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Al Haouz is a province in the Moroccan economic region of Marrakesh-Safi. In September of 2023, the province was the epicenter of a violent magnitude 6.9 earthquake which left over 2800 people dead. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 36

Consider the following pairs:
Mangrove : Region

  1. Pichchavaram : Andhra Pradesh
  2. Baratang : West Bengal 
  3. Bhitakarnika : Odisha 
  4. Ratnagiri : Maharashtra

How many pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 36
  • Bhitarkanika Mangroves is India’s second largest forest, located in Odisha. Bhitarkanika is created by the two river delta of Brahmani and Baitarani rivers and one of the important Ramsar Wetlands in India. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Pichavaram mangrove is one of the largest mangroves in India, situated at Pichavaram near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu. Pichavaram ranks among the one of the most exquisite scenic spots in Tamil Nadu and is home of many species of Aquatic birds. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Baratang Island Mangroves is a beautiful swamp, located at Great Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Mangrove Swamps of Baratang Island are situated between Middle and South Andamans, the capital city of Port Blair. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Ratnagiri Mangroves are located on the west coast of India in the state of Maharashtra. The studies revealed that Ratnagiri district shows biodiversity of mangroves with 20 species with 15 genera. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: The off-shore vortices on the west coast bring very heavy rainfall to the west coast during the monsoon season.
  • Statement-II: The Votices are formed due to the inability of monsoon winds to climb over western ghats.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 37
  • The west coast of India has an orographic barrier in the form of the Western Ghats. These mountains are oriented in the north-south direction and are approximately 1000 km in length and 200 km in breadth.
  • When monsoon winds strike the mountains, on many occasions they do not have enough energy to climb over the Western Ghats. On such occasions, they tend to be deflected around the mountains and return current forms the off-shore vortex.
  • These vortices are responsible for the occurrence of heavy to very heavy rainfall over the west coast during monsoon season. Hence, both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 38

An unconformity is a break in time in an otherwise continuous rock record. In this context, the Eparchaean Unconformity which creates a million years gap in India’s geological history is located in:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 38
  • Eparchaean Unconformity in Tirumala hills is one of the geo-heritage sites of India. It is the main discontinuity of the Eastern Ghats that occurred due to extensive erosion along the hill. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Recently, a draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics (Preservation and Maintenance) Bill was brought in by the government in order to protect the geo-heritage sites. Among others, Eparchean Unconformity is a site to be protected.
  • An unconformity is a break in time in an otherwise continuous rock record or it can be said to be a buried erosional or non-depositional surface separating two rock masses or strata of different ages, indicating that sediment deposition was not continuous.
  • About Archaean eon
    • The Archean Eon, in older sources, sometimes called the Archaeozoic, is the second of the four geologic eons of Earth's history, preceded by the Hadean eon and followed by the Proterozoic. The Archean represents the time period from 4,000 to 2,500 Ma.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 39

Recently Santiniketan has been designated as the 41st UNESCO World Heritage Site (WHS) of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Its design has been predominantly inspired from Greek and Roman architecture.
  2. It is the only world heritage site in Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 39
  • Recent Context: Santiniketan (District Birbhum, West Bengal) has been designated as the 41st UNESCO World Heritage Site (WHS) of India.
    • It is the third WHS of West Bengal, after the Sundarbans National Park and the Darjeeling Mountain Railways. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Along with Rabindranath Tagore, Surendranath Kar, Nandalal Bose, Patrick and Arthur Geddes played key roles in shaping it.
  • Santiniketan is an ensemble of historic buildings, landscapes and gardens, pavilions, artworks, and continuing educational and cultural traditions.
    • It drew elements from ancient, medieval, and folk traditions of India as well as Japanese, Chinese, Persian, Balinese, Burmese and Art Deco forms (Western Europe and the United States).
    • Indigenous Architecture Style: It veered away from the prevalent Beaux Arts (Roman and Greek classicism but combined with more flamboyant French and Italian Renaissance) and European modernism. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • Buildings Material: Both traditional materials (mud and thatch) and reinforced cement concrete.
    • Open spaces: Integral part of complex, has been used for cultural exchange and safeguard Indian art and cultural events through the mediums of fairs and seasonal festivals

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 40

The Government of India has come out with a new set of National Awards in the field of Science, Technology and Innovation known as “Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar’’. In this context, consider the following pairs:

  1. Vigyan Ratna (VR) award: To recognize distinguished contributions made in any field of science and technology (S&T).
  2. Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award: To recognize young scientists up to the age of 45 years who made an exceptional contribution in any field of S&T.
  3. Vigyan Shri (VS) award: To recognize lifetime achievements in any field of S&T.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 40
  • Recent Context: The Government of India has come out with a new set of National Awards in the field of Science, Technology, and Innovation known as “Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar’’.
  • The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar shall be one of the highest recognitions in the field of science, technology, and innovation in India.
    • Scientists/ technologists/innovators working in government, private sector organizations or any individual working outside any organization, who have made distinguished contributions in terms of path-breaking research or innovation or discovery in any field of science, technology, or technology-led- led innovation shall be eligible for the awards.
    • People of Indian Origin staying abroad with exceptional contributions benefiting the Indian communities or society shall also be eligible for the awards.
  • The awards shall be given in the following four categories:-
    • Vigyan Ratna (VR) award will recognize lifetime achievements & contributions made in any field of science and technology. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    • Vigyan Shri (VS) award will recognize distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    • Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award will recognize & encourage young scientists up to the age of 45 years who made an exceptional contribution in any field of science and technology. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
    • Vigyan Team (VT) award to be given to a team comprising of three or more scientists/ researchers/innovators who have made an exceptional contribution working in a team in any field of science and technology.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 41

With reference to National Family Health Survey-5, consider the following states:

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Maharashtra

How many of the above states have a Total Fertility Rate more than the national Total Fertility Rate?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 41
  • The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
  • The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a standard demographic indicator used internationally to estimate the average number of children that a woman would have over her childbearing years.
  • As per the fifth round of the National Family Health Survey NFHS conducted by MoHFW during the year 2019-21, the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined to 2.0 children per woman from 2.2 children per woman as per the fourth round of NFHS conducted during the year 2015-16, resulting in the achievement of the replacement level of fertility, which is 2.1 children per woman.
  • Total Fertility Rate of various states

  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 42

Consider the following pairs:
Tribe : Country

  1. Yang Shuo Cormorants : China
  2. Maori : New Zealand
  3. Masai : Kenya

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 42

Tribes are groups of people who share a common language, ancestry, culture, and distinct beliefs, customs, and traditions. These have been passed down through generations, and often have deep connections with the land and environment.

  • Yang Shuo Cormorants -China
    • Yangshuo county in Southwest China’s Guangxi province has managed to preserve a dying art that dates back more than 1,300 years - fishing with cormorants. The fishermen use a loose collar around the throat of the cormorant, which they have trained to catch fish, while the noose prevents the bird from swallowing their catch and allows the fishermen to retrieve the fish when they return to the boats. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Masai, Kenya and Tanzania
    • The Maasai tribe constitutes an indigenous ethnic ensemble in Africa, which includes semi-nomadic populations that have established settlements in both Kenya and northern Tanzania. Their unique customs, traditions, attire, and proximity to the abundant national game reserves of East Africa have elevated the Maasai to a prominent status among African ethnicities. Their international recognition is also hugely attributed to their close association with national parks and reserves in the region. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Maori, New Zealand, and French Polynesia
    • The term Māori refers to the native inhabitants of New Zealand, as well as their language. As per the records, both the term and the people of this tribe are a fusion of diverse Polynesian cultures, who have been believed to have reached New Zealand over a millennium ago. Famed for their distinct traditional practice of intricate full-body and facial tattooing, the Māori people hold a distinctive position globally as indigenous individuals with complete legal rights. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding the Sammakka Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jatara:

  1. It is the state festival of Telangana held biannually.
  2. It is considered to be the largest tribal congregation in the country.
  3. The festival involves taking a holy dip in a tributary of river Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 43
  • Sammakka Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jatara is a tribal festival of honouring the goddesses celebrated in the state of Telangana, India. It is the largest tribal religious congregation in the country, held every two years (biannually), in Telangana. The Jatra begins at Medaram in Tadvai Mandal in Mulugu district. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Medaram Jatara is the second-largest fair of India, after the Kumbh Mela, celebrated by the second-largest Tribal Community of Telangana- the Koya tribe for four days. As the largest tribal fair in Asia, Medaram Jathara is conducted in honour of the Goddesses Sammakka and Saralamma. It is celebrated once in two years in the month of 'Magha' (February) on the full moon day.
  • Jampanna vagu (stream) is a tributary to River Godavari. According to history, Jampanna is the tribal warrior and the son of Tribal Goddess Sammakka. The Jampanna vagu took his name as he died in a battle fighting against Kakatiyan Army in that stream. Tribals believe that taking a holy dip in the red water of Jampanna Vagu reminds them the sacrifice of their gods who save them and also induces courage into their souls. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 44

Consider the following pairs:
Petrochemical industries : Country 

  1. Sarnia : Germany 
  2. Abadan : Saudi Arabia
  3. Mina-el-Ahmadi : Kuwait

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 44
  • The chemical industry is based on two types of raw materials: natural like minerals, coal, petroleum, salts, potash, sulphur, limestone, gypsum and vegetable products and by-products of other industries such as the paper and pulp industry, iron and steel industry and gas manufacturing industry.
  • Major factor for the location of the chemical industry is the availability of raw materials, cheaper means of transport for bulky materials, water supply, sources for energy and demand of chemicals in other industries.
  • In Canada, Montreal has a large petrochemical industry. The crude oil is brought from Portland and Maine through pipelines and by tankers from Venezuela. The other important petrochemical complex in Canada is located at Sarnia in Ontario province. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Most of the petrochemical complexes in North America are located in the coastal regions. About 30 percent of the oil in the United States of America is refined along the Gulf of Mexico coast and another 15 percent is refined on the Pacific Coast.
  • The petrochemical complexes in Europe are located near the markets where these products are in demand. The major complexes are located on the coasts of the Southern North Sea and the English Channel. The main centers are Antwerp, Rotterdam, Southampton and the cities located in the lower Sein Valley. The petrochemical complexes of Germany are located in the Ruhr region.
  • The largest refinery in West Asia is located in Abadan (Iran). West Asia is a large producer of petroleum but there is little demand because the region is not industrially developed. Thus, most of the petrochemical complexes are located on the coasts in order to facilitate export. Saudi Arabia has a large petrochemical complex at Ras Tanura while Mina-el-Ahmadi is the largest petrochemical complex in Kuwait. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched but pair 3 is correctly matched.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 45

Consider the following statements:

  1. Palm Oil is the world's most widely used vegetable oil.
  2. Palm tree is mainly grown in temperate regions of the world.
  3. National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) aims to expand area under palm oil in the northeastern states of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 45
  • As per the reports, the Centre is aiming to increase domestic palm oil production from the current level of 0.35 million tonnes (MT) to 1 MT by 2030 under the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP).
  • NMEO-OP is a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It is proposed to have an additional 6.5 lakh hectares for palm oil by 2025-26. It will involve raising the area under oil palm cultivation to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26 and 16.7 lakh hectares by 2029-30.
  • NMEO-OP focuses on Oil Palm area expansion, increasing Crude Palm Oil production, etc. North-east and Andaman and Nicobar Islands focussed approach due to their favourable rainfall and temperature. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • About Palm Oil
    • Palm Oil is the source of the world’s largest consumed edible oil primarily due to its high productivity, versatility and substantial price advantage. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • India buys palm oil mainly from Indonesia, Malaysia and Thailand. Palm oil imports account for around 59% of the country’s total vegetable oil imports.
  • Palm trees are grown mainly in tropical regions. Palm trees thrive in moist and hot climates. They require temperatures in the range of 21 °C to 32 °C and annual rainfall of 200 cm. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with respect to the CAR-T cell therapy:

  1. They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells to attack tumors.
  2. Like chemotherapy it requires mass- produced injectable or oral medication.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 46
  • Recent Context: Recently, India's homegrown CAR-T cell therapy, a form of immunotherapy got market authorization.
  • About CAR-T cell therapy:
    • The therapy represents a quantum leap in the sophistication of cancer treatment.
    • Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, which requires mass-produced injectable or oral medication, CAR T-cell therapies use a patient’s own cells.
    • They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells, a component of immune cells, to attack tumors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • These modified cells are then infused into the patient’s bloodstream after conditioning them to multiply more effectively.
  • What is CAR-T Cell Therapy?
    • Revolutionary Approach: CAR-T cell therapy involves modifying T-cells, a type of white blood cell, into potent cancer-fighting cells.
    • Targeting Cancer: These genetically enhanced cells are reintroduced into the patient’s body, where they identify and eliminate cancer cells, particularly effective against blood cancers like leukemia and lymphomas.
    • Game-Changer: Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, CAR-T therapy offers the potential for a cure and lifelong benefits, making it a transformative treatment option. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • As of today, CAR T-cell therapy has been approved for leukemias (cancers arising from the cells that produce white blood cells) and lymphomas (arising from the lymphatic system).
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 47

With reference to the spread of plantation agriculture across the globe, consider the following statements:

  1. The Dutch established cocoa and coffee plantations in West Africa.
  2. The British set up rubber plantations in Malaysia.
  3. Americans invested heavily in coconut and sugarcane plantations in the Philippines.

How many statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 47
  • Plantation agriculture was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics. Some of the important plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
  • The characteristic features of this type of farming are large estates or plantations, large capital investment, managerial and technical support, scientific methods of cultivation, single crop specialization, cheap labor, and a good system of transportation that links the estates to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
  • The French established cocoa and coffee plantations in West Africa. The British set up large tea gardens in India and Sri Lanka, rubber plantations in Malaysia and sugarcane and banana plantations in the West Indies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct but statement 2 is correct.
  • Spanish and Americans invested heavily in coconut and sugarcane plantations in the Philippines. The Dutch once had a monopoly over sugarcane plantations in Indonesia. Some coffee fazendas (large plantations) in Brazil are still managed by Europeans. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding the 'State of World Population Report 2023':

  1. India's fertility rate per woman is higher than the global average fertility rate.
  2. Life expectancy at birth for males in India is more than for females.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 48
  • The fertility rate per woman in India is lower than the global average fertility rate:
    • The fertility rate measures the number of children an average woman is expected to have during her lifetime.
    • Today, the average Indian woman is expected to have 2.0 children in her lifetime, which is below the replacement rate. But the current global average fertility rate according to the UN is around 2.3 children per woman. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • Though India's Fertility rate is lower than the world's average it is still higher than China’s (1.2) and the United States’ (1.6).
    • But considering India's fertility rate in 1992 (3.4) or 1950 (5.9), it has significantly decreased.
    • A fertility rate lower than the global average indicates that, on average, Indian women are having fewer children compared to the global norm. This information is crucial for policymakers, public health officials, and family planning programs to understand population growth and plan for the future.
    • A lower fertility rate can influence issues such as workforce dynamics, healthcare infrastructure, and educational requirements.
  • Life expectancy at birth for females in India is more than for males:
    • In India, as in most countries, life expectancy at birth for females(74 years) is generally higher than that for males(71). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • The difference in life expectancy between males and females can be influenced by various factors, including biological, social, and economic factors. Understanding these differences is essential for tailoring healthcare services and social policies to address the specific needs of both genders and promote gender equity.
Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 49

With reference to the 2011 census, arrange the population of the following cities in decreasing order:

  1. Delhi
  2. Bengaluru
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Kolkata

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 49
  • According to 2011 Census, urban population grew to 377 million showing a growth rate of 2.76 percent per annum during 2001-2011 and the level of urbanisation at the country as a whole increased from 27.7 percent in 2001 to 31.1 percent.
  • Top 10 cities population wise.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 50

The Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) Minsk Group was fonned to facilitate peaceful solution to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 2 - Question 50
  • The Minsk Group was created by the Organisation for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) to facilitate talks between Armenia and Azerbaijan to find a peaceful solution to the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict. The Group was co-chaired by Russia, the United States and France. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • The Group came up with three peace proposals in the 1990s.
    • The package deal (1997)- It envisaged simultaneous removal of Armenian forces from occupied areas and the determination of Nagorno-Karabakh’s status but was rejected.
    • The step-by-step approach (1997)- It suggested gradual steps starting with Armenian withdrawal, return of displaced refugees, and ending of hostilities followed by talks for a future resolution of the Nagorno-Karabakh issue which was rejected too.
    • The common state proposal (1998)- It would endow Nagorno-Karabakh with a separate passport, law enforcement and currency, but within Azerbaijan’s internationally recognised borders.
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