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Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1

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Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 1

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project, is a joint collaboration among which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 1

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project

  • The TMT has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space.
  • It is proposed as a joint collaboration involving institutions in the US, Japan, China, Canada, and India.
  • Indian participation in the project was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2014
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 2

Which of the following is/are true about CERN?

  1. CERN is the acronym of European Organization for Nuclear Research in Italian Language.
  2. CERN was fouded in 1954.
  3. It is located at Geneva.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 2

CERN is the acronym in french language.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 3

This type of connective tissue is very elastic and has considerable strength. Two bones can be connected to each other by this type of connective tissue. They help to hold things in place In the body.
Which of the following connective tissue is being described in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 3
  • Connective tissue (also called fibrous tissue) is one of the four primary types of animal tissue, along with epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. Connective tissues, as the name implies, support and connect different tissues and organs of the body. They are widely distributed in every part of the body.
  • A ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone, and usually serves to hold structures together and keep them stable. Two This tissue is very elastic. It has considerable strength.
  • A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone. Tendons may also attach muscles to structures such as the eyeball. A tendon serves to move the bone or structure.
  • Areolar connective tissue is found between the skin and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves and in the bone marrow. It fills the space inside the organs, supports internal organs and helps in repair of tissues.
  • Cartilage is a strong, flexible connective tissue that protects your joints and bones. It acts as a shock absorber throughout your body. Cartilage at the end of your bones reduces friction and prevents them from rubbing together when you use your joints.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 4

Colloidal solutions are mixtures in which microscopically dispersed insoluble particles of one substance are suspended in another substance. Which of the following are examples of colloidal solutions?

  1. Cow milk
  2. Milk of magnesia
  3. Blood
  4. Tincture of iodine
  5. Shaving cream

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 4
  • Colloidal solutions are mixtures in which microscopically dispersed insoluble particles of one substance are suspended in another substance.
  • Properties of colloid:
    • A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
    • The size of the particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by the naked eye.
    • Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible.
    • They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable.
  • Cow Milk, milk of magnesia, blood, and shaving cream are examples of colloidal solutions.
  • Tincture of iodine is an example of a homogeneous solution with iodine (solid) as the solute and alcohol (liquid) as the solvent.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 5

With reference to the E Ink Displays, consider the following statements:

  1. E Ink displays are a special type of screen technology often used in e-readers like the Amazon Kindle.
  2. They use backlight to reflect light making them easier on the eyes for long reading sessions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 5

Statement 1 is correct: E Ink displays are a special type of screen technology often used in e-readers like
the Amazon Kindle.

  • The technology was originally developed in the 1990s at MIT and is now owned by E Ink Corporation.

Statement 2 is not correct: Unlike LCD and LED displays that use a backlight, E Ink displays reflect light – just like paper.

  • This makes them easier on the eyes for long reading sessions. 
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 6

Consider the following statements

  1. ISRO built India's first satellite, Aryabhata.  
  2. Rohini became the first satellite to be placed in orbit by an Indian-made launch vehicle
  3. ISRO is the first Asian space agency to reach Mars orbit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 6

ISRO built India's first satellite, Aryabhata, which was launched by the Soviet Union  in 1975. In 1980, Rohini became the first satellite to be placed in orbit by an Indian-made launch vehicle, SLV-3. On 5 November 2013, ISRO launched its Mars Orbiter Mission, which successfully entered the Mars orbit on 24 September 2014, making India the first nation to succeed on its maiden attempt, and ISRO the first Asian space agency to reach Mars orbit.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 7

With reference to Malaria disease, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is caused by a virus which spreads through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
  2. Currently there is no vaccine available that can prevent the disease.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 7

Both the Statements are not correct.

  • Malaria is a life-threatening disease spread to humans by some types of mosquitoes. It is mostly found in tropical countries.
  • Transmission: It is caused by plasmodium protozoa. The plasmodium parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Blood transfusion and contaminated needles may also transmit malaria.
  • The R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine has been recommended for use by the World Health Organisation (WHO) after meeting required safety, quality and effectiveness standards.

Types of parasites:

  • There are 5 Plasmodium parasite species that cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species – P. falciparum and P. vivax – pose the greatest threat. The other malaria species which can infect humans are P. malariae, P. ovale and P. knowlesi.
  • The vaccine has been developed by the University of Oxford and the Serum Institute of India, leveraging Novavax’s adjuvant technology.
  • The R21 vaccine is the second malaria vaccine recommended by WHO, following the RTS,S/AS01 vaccine, which received a WHO recommendation in 2021.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 8

With reference to photosynthesis and respiration in plants, consider the following statements:

  1. Photosynthesis is an exothermic process and respiration is an endothermic process.
  2. Both are the continuous processes which take place throughout the day.
  3. The byproduct of photosynthesis is carbon dioxide and respiration is oxygen.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 8
  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
  • Respiration in plants refers to a process in which a plant utilizes atmospheric oxygen to oxidize glucose and other respiratory substrates like fats or proteins.
  • The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is such that the products of one system are the reactants of the other.
  • Photosynthesis involves the use of energy from sunlight, water and carbon dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen.
  • Cellular respiration uses glucose and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Humans, animals and plants depend on the cycle of cellular respiration and photosynthesis for survival. The oxygen produced by plants during photosynthesis is what humans and animals inhale for the blood to transport to the cells for respiration.
  • The carbon dioxide produced during respiration is released from the body and absorbed by plants to help provide the energy they need for growth and development. This is the never ending cycle that sustains life on earth.
  • Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction because sunlight energy is absorbed during the process of photosynthesis by the plants.
  • Respiration is a kind of burning fuel. During respiration, Carbohydrates present in food are broken down to form glucose. Glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy.
    Therefore, respiration is an exothermic reaction. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 9

With reference to the Big Bang Theory, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 9

The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. The Big Bang Theory considers the following stages in the development of the universe:

  • In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature, and infinite density.
  • At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of the big bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present.
  • As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion slowed down. Within the first three minutes of the Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.
  • As the universe expanded, both the density and temperature dropped. Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, the temperature dropped to 4,500 K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • The expansion of the universe means an increase in space between the galaxies. With greater evidence becoming available about the expanding universe, the scientific community at present favors the argument of expanding the universe. The expansion continues even to the present day.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 10

What is Japanese Encephalitis ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 10

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain. Japanese encephalitis is a disease caused by the mosquito-borne Japanese encephalitis virus. The Japanese encephalitis virus is a virus from the family Flaviviridae. Domestic pigs and wild birds (especially herons) are reservoirs of the virus; transmission to humans may cause severe symptoms. The symptoms include high fever, headache, vomiting, confusion and, in severe cases, seizures, paralysis and coma. The disease can result in brain damage. Children and elderly people are especially at risk of developing a severe form of encephalitis. Mortality of this disease varies but is generally much higher in children.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 11

Which of the following can not be a blood group of progeny bom to parents having A and AB blood groups?

  1. A
  2. AB
  3. O

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 11

Human blood group inheritance shows an example of codominance as well as multiple alleles. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene (I) has three alleles Iᴬ, Iᴮ and i. The alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ produce a slightly different form of sugar while allele i do not produce any sugar. i is recessive to both Iᴬ, and Iᴮ. Iᴬand Iᴮ may show codominance.

  • The parents have A and AB, blood groups. Blood group A indicates that the underlying genotype may be Iᴬ Iᴬ or Iᴬ i. Blood group AB indicates co-dominance and the underlying genotype must be Iᴬ Iᴮ.
  • Now two cases, In the first case (considering a person with A blood group has Iᴬ i genotype: Iᴬ i (A blood group) X Iᴬ Iᴮ (AB blood group)
    • So, the possible blood groups of children born in this case are A, B, and AB blood groups
  • Similarly in the second case, considering a person with A blood group has Iᴬ Iᴬ genotype): Iᴬ Iᴬ (A blood group) X Iᴬ Iᴮ (AB blood group)
    • So, the possible blood groups of children born in this case are A and AB blood groups.
  • In none of the above cases, children have O blood group.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 12

Which one of the following countries participated in the recently launched ‘PRITHVI’ Programme along with India?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 12

PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) Programme: The Union Cabinet cleared ‘PRITHVI Programme for earth observation, satellite projects with Mauritius.

It encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), like:

  • Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS);
  • Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART);
  • Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER);
  • Seismology and Geosciences (SAGE); and,
  • Research, Education, Training and Outreach (REACHOUT)

Satellite for Mauritius: The Union Cabinet approved an agreement between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Mauritius Research and Innovation Council (MRIC) to jointly develop a ‘small satellite’.

  • India and Mauritius have a history of cooperation since the 1980s when ISRO established a ground station in
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 13

Which of the following statement is incorrect about Quantum Cryptography?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 13

In News

  • News: Future quantum computers will be no match for 'space encryption' that uses light to beam data around with the 1st satellite launching in 2025. 

Key PointsQuantam Cryptography:

  • It refers to various cybersecurity methods for encrypting and transmitting secure data based on the naturally occurring and immutable laws of quantum mechanics. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • It has the potential to be far more secure than previous types of cryptographic algorithms and is even theoretically unhackable. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Unlike traditional cryptography, which is built on mathematics, quantum cryptography is built on the laws of physics. Specifically, quantum cryptography relies on the unique principles of quantum mechanics. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.
  • The need for Quantum cryptography arises from the fact that quantum computers will be able to break traditional encryption. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 14

A sound created in a big hall will persist by repeated reflection from the walls until it is reduced to a value where it is no longer audible. The repeated reflection that results in this persistence of sound is called:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 14
  • Reverberation: It is the phenomenon of the persistence of sound after it has been stopped due to multiple reflections from surfaces, such as furniture, people, air, etc., within a closed surface. These reflections build up with each reflection and decay gradually as they are absorbed by the surfaces of objects in the enclosed space. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Pitch: The pitch of a sound is our ear's response to the frequency of sound. Whereas loudness depends on the energy of the wave. In general, the pitch is the reason behind the difference in voice quality of different individuals.
  • Interference: When two or more sound waves occupy the same space, they affect one another. The waves do not bounce off of each, but they move through each other. The resulting wave depends on how the waves line up.
  • Echo: When the sound is repeated when the sound wave is reflected, it is known as an echo. Echo is heard when space is large. Example: imagine standing in an empty room and shouting “Hi”.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 15

Imagine you’re an astronaut on a mission to Lagrange Point 1 (L1). Which of the following experiences would you most like to have? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 15

You would be able to maintain your position relative to the Earth and the Sun without using much fuel. Lagrange point 1:

  • Lagrange points are named in honor of Italian-French mathematician Josephy-Louis Lagrange.
  • L1 stands for the first Lagrangian point — there are five such points, L1 to L5, associated with the motion of one astronomical body around another one, in Aditya missions’s case, Earth and the Sun.
  • Of the five Lagrange points, three are unstable and two are stable. The unstable Lagrange points - labeled L1, L2 and L3 - lie along the line connecting the two large masses. The stable Lagrange points - L4 and L5 - form the apex of two equilateral triangles that have the large masses at their vertices. L4 leads the orbit of earth and L5 follows.
  • If one is at L1, then he would be able to maintain his position with minimal fuel usage, but would need to perform regular course and attitude corrections due to the instability of L1.
    • The L1 and L2 points are unstable on a time scale of approximately 23 days, which requires satellites orbiting these positions to undergo regular course and attitude corrections.
  • He would not feel a stronger gravitational pull from the Sun, and he would always see the sunlit part of the Earth, as seen from the below figure.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 16

With reference to the melting of ice, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 16
  • Melting of ice involves a change in the state of water from solid to liquid. Since it involves a change in the state of water without forming any new substance, it is a physical change.
  • When ice melts, it converts to water and the density of ice is less than of water. Hence, the volume will decrease.
  • Heat is generated by exothermic processes, which raise the temperature of the surrounding environment, endothermic processes absorb heat from the environment and cool it. Heat is removed from the surrounding atmosphere to melt the ice, thus, melting of ice requires the use of energy to break the hydrogen bonds in the ice. Consequently, ice melting is an endothermic process.
  • Melting of ice is just a change of state from a solid to a liquid and is still the same amount of water. It should have the same mass.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 17

With reference to erythroblastosis foetalis, which of the following statements is/are conect?

  1. This condition occurs when a pregnant mother has Rh-negative blood and the foetus has Rli-positive.
  2. The impact on the foetus is severe in first pregnancy and reduces exponentially in subsequent pregnancies.

Select the conect answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 17
  • Erythroblastosis fetalis, also called hemolytic disease of the newborn, type of anemia in which the red blood cells (erythrocytes) of a fetus are destroyed in a maternal immune reaction resulting from a blood group incompatibility between the fetus and its mother.
  • This incompatibility arises when the fetus inherits a certain blood factor from the father that is absent in the mother. Symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis range from mild to severe; death of the fetus or newborn sometimes results.
  • Two blood group systems, Rh and ABO, primarily are associated with erythroblastosis fetalis.
  • The Rh system is responsible for the most severe form of the disease, which can occur when an Rhnegative woman (a woman whose blood cells lack the Rh factor) conceives an Rh-positive fetus. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Sensitization of the mother’s immune system (immunization) occurs when fetal red blood cells that carry the Rh factor (an antigen in this context) cross the placental barrier and enter the mother’s bloodstream.
  • They stimulate the production of antibodies, some of which pass across the placenta into fetal circulation and lyse, or break apart, the red blood cells of the fetus (hemolysis).
  • These antibodies usually don't cause problems during a first pregnancy.
  • But Rh incompatibility may cause problems in later pregnancies, if the baby is Rh-positive. This is because the antibodies stay in your body once they have formed. The antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the baby's red blood cells. The baby could get Rh disease, a serious condition that can cause a serious type of anemia. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • It is rare for a mother to become sensitized during the course of her first Rh-positive pregnancy because the amount of fetal Rh antigen that enters maternal circulation is insufficient to cause sensitization; usually only during labour will exposure be significant.
  • However, because Rh sensitivity is likely to develop during labour, the risk of the disease developing in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies increases.
  • The risk can be reduced if the mother receives injections of Rh immunoglobulin, which destroys fetal red blood cells in her bloodstream, during her first pregnancy. The fetus also is protected from Rh hemolytic disease if an ABO blood group incompatibility exists concurrently; protection is conferred by ABO antibodies, which destroy fetal blood cells in the maternal circulation before the mother develops Rh sensitivity.
  • Fetal-maternal incompatibilities within the ABO blood group alone are more common than those of the Rh type, but the immune reaction is usually much less severe, unless the fetus is type A and the mother type O.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are false about Supermoon?

  1. It is a phenomenon occuring when full moon or new moon at apogee.
  2. Full moon in case of supermoon is 12% larger and brighter than an average full moon.
Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 18

This phenomenon occurs at perigee, when moon is closest to Earth.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements about GSLV Mk3

  1. It can carry up to 4500 to 5000 kg satellites.
  2. It is a 4 stage vehicle.
  3. It will use cryogenic engine and not solid and liquid propellants.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 19

GSLV Mk-3 is the latest version of GSLV. It can carry up to 4500 to 5000 kg satellites. Until now, India relied on EU’s Arianespace launch vehicle to send those INSAT-4 satellites. It will consist of 3 stages. 1st stage will have solid propellant, 2nd stage will have liquid propellant and 3rd stage will be cryogenic engine. GSLV MK-3 will make ISRO a competitive player in commercial launches of foreign satellites.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 20

What is Thai Sacbrood ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 20

Thai Sacbrood is a viral disease affecting honey bee colonies. The disease kills bees when they are larvae and hence there is no multiplication of bee colonies.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 21

Consider the following statements, regarding the proteins:

  1. Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
  2. Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 21
  • Protein is found throughout the body—in muscle, bone, skin, hair, and virtually every other body part or tissue. It makes up the enzymes that power many chemical reactions and the hemoglobin that carries oxygen in your blood.
  • Within a protein, multiple amino acids are linearly linked together by peptide bonds, thereby forming a long chain. Peptide bonds are formed by a biochemical reaction that extracts a water molecule as it joins the amino group of one amino acid to the carboxyl group of a neighboring amino acid. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body, found in the bones, muscles, skin, and tendons. It is an essential component of connective tissue and plays a crucial role in holding the body’s cells together. It also gives strength and elasticity to the skin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 22

With reference to the Aditya-L1 mission,which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is the first space-based Indian observatory to study the Sun.
  2. The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around Lagrange point 1.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 22

Both the statements are correct.

What is the Aditya-L1 mission?

  • Aditya-L1 is the first space-based Indian observatory to study the Sun.
  • The solar mission will not see the spacecraft actually go to the sun, it will instead create a space observatory at a point from which the sun can be observed even during an eclipse.
  • The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1), around 1.5 million km from the Earth, of the Sun-Earth system.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with reference to Einstein Probe (EP).

  1. It is an astronomical satellite launched by Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
  2. It aims to scrutinise Saturn and its extensive system of moons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 23

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : China launched the Einstein Probe (EP) to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe.

  • A Long March-2C carrier rocket carried a satellite called Einstein Probe.
  • It is a new astronomical satellite which is shaped like a lotus in full bloom.
  • It is a mission of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) dedicated to time-domain high-energy astrophysics.
  • It aims to capture the first light from supernova explosions, search for X-ray signals accompanying gravitational wave events, and discover dormant black holes and other celestial objects.
  • The satellite's X-ray detection technology is inspired by lobster-eye telescopes.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 24

Consider the following statements about Solid Lipid Nanoparticles:

  1. They are prone to a high degree of bio toxicity. 
  2. They cannot be used as delivery vehicles for RNA-based vaccines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 24
  • Solid Lipid Nanoparticles (SLNs) are examples of lipid-based drug delivery systems that have distinctive properties such as high drug loading, and large surface area and can protect the drug from the environment while increasing its bioavailability.
  • An SLN is generally spherical in shape and consists of a solid lipid core stabilized by a surfactant. The core lipids can be fatty acids, acylglycerols, waxes, and mixtures of these surfactants. Biological membrane lipids such as phospholipids, sphingomyelins, bile salts (sodium taurocholate), and sterols (cholesterol) are utilized as stabilizers.
  • SLNs use physiological lipids which reduces the danger of acute and chronic bio toxicity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Some COVID-19 vaccines (Pfizer-BionTech and Moderna) that use RNA vaccine technology coat the fragile mRNA strands with Solid lipid nanoparticles as their delivery vehicle. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 25

Which organization developed Indian robot named “Vyommitra” ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 25

The word 'Vyommitra' is made up of two words of the Sanskrit language 'Vyom' and 'Mitra' which means space and friend respectively.

  • This is the prototype of the Half-Humanoid female robot developed by ISRO.
  • It was unveiled on 22 January 2020.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 26

With reference to the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It operates within the 110-1,460 MegaHertz frequency range.
  2. It was among the top radio telescopes that detected the nano-hertz gravitational waves for the first time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 26

Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT)

  • It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), a part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
  • GMRT is the world’s largest and most sensitive radio telescope operating within the 110-1,460 MegaHertz frequency range

Significance: GMRT was among the six top radio telescopes used to enable the detection of the
nano-hertz gravitational waves for the first time.

  • Such waves are expected to originate from a large number of dancing monster black hole pairs, several million times heavier than the Sun.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 27

Which of the following is false about coal-bed methane?

  1. It is a natural gas.
  2. It is an artifical gas produced while extracting coal.
  3. It is also called "Sweet Gas".
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 28

With reference to hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD), consider the following statements:

  1. It is different from foot-and-mouth disease which commonly affects cows, sheep, and pigs.
  2. Tomato flu is a clinical variant of the HFMD and results in tomato-shaped red blisters on several parts of the body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 28
  • Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a mild, contagious viral infection common in young children.
  • Symptoms include sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet. it is a mild, self-limiting disease with no significant adverse effects. It lasts seven to ten days.
    • It spreads by physical contact, sneezing, or by coming in contact with the stool of the infected child. While children below five years of age are prone to be affected by it, teenagers and adults have also been infected by the same. The infection can affect people of all ages but it usually occurs in children under the age of five.
    • Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is most commonly caused by a coxsackievirus. This virus is part of a group of viruses called enteroviruses. In some cases, other types of enteroviruses can cause HFMD.
    • An increase in cases of hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD) has been reported in Delhi-NCR in 2022.
    • There's no specific treatment for hand-foot-and-mouth disease. Frequent hand-washing and avoiding close contact with people who have hand-foot-and-mouth disease may help lower your child's risk of infection.
    • Hand, foot, and mouth disease is often confused with foot-and-mouth disease (also called hoof-andmouth disease), which affects cows, sheep, and pigs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Humans do not get the animal disease, and animals do not get the human disease.
    • Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) or hoof-and-mouth disease (HMD) is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids. The virus causes a high fever lasting two to six days, followed by blisters inside the mouth and near the hoof that may rupture and cause lameness.
    • FMD has very severe implications for animal farming, since it is highly infectious and can be spread by infected animals comparatively easily through contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles, clothing, and feed, and by domestic and wild predators.
    • Humans are only extremely rarely infected by foot-and-mouth disease virus (FMDV).
    • Tomato Flu is caused by Coxsackievirus A16. Once infected, the virus produces red and painful blisters on the skin, hence referred to as “Tomato Flu” or “Tomato Fever”. Tomato flu has been reported from at least four states — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, and Odisha.
    • Researchers believe that it is a different clinical presentation of hand-foot-and mouth disease (HFMD) caused by a group of enteroviruses (viruses transmitted through the intestine). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Tomato flu or tomato fever is characterised by fever, joint pain, and red, tomato-like rashes usually seen in children below the age of five years. This is accompanied by other symptoms of viral fevers such as diarrhoea, dehydration, nausea and vomiting, and fatigue.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Both graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon.
  2. Graphite is soft and has a greasy touch while diamond is the hardest naturally occurring substance.
  3. Graphite is a bad conductor of electricity while diamond is a very good conductor of electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 29
  • Diamond and Graphite, both are allotropes of carbon. These minerals chemically consist of carbon atoms with different physical properties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Graphite is soft with a greasy touch and is utilized as a lubricant in the form of dispersion material or powder. Diamond is the hardest naturally occurring substance and is used in making tools that are utilized for grinding, cutting, drilling, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Graphite is used in the manufacture of electrodes of carbon employed in electrolytic cells, as it is an excellent conductor of electricity. In a Diamond, each carbon atom is attached to the other four carbon atoms through strong covalent bonds. Due to the absence of free electrons, a diamond is a poor electrical conductor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 30

Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 30
  • Pairs 1 and 4 are not correct.
  • ISRO Centres & Units


Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 31

What is the new criterion for labelling plastic products as "biodegradable" according to India's Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 31

In News

  • The Environment Ministry has introduced new rules making it tougher for makers of disposable plastic ware to label their products as 'biodegradable', stipulating that they must not leave any microplastics behind.

Key Points

  • Biodegradable and compostable plastics are seen as solutions to India's plastic waste pollution problem, with biodegradable plastics expected to decompose naturally over time.
  • The amended Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2024, define biodegradable plastics as materials capable of degradation by biological processes without leaving any microplastics behind.
  • However, there are no specified chemical tests yet to establish the absence of microplastics or to determine the extent to which microplastics must be reduced in a sample.
  • Microplastics, defined as solid plastic particles insoluble in water with dimensions between 1 µm and 1,000 µm, have been identified as a major source of pollution affecting rivers and oceans.
  • The definition and regulation of biodegradable plastics have been a point of contention, especially after the ban on single-use plastics in 2022, with questions arising about what constitutes biodegradable plastic and the lack of clarity in the rules regarding certification.
  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has faced criticism for its stringent criteria for certifying biodegradable plastics, leading to confusion among manufacturers and delays in product approval.
  • The introduction of new rules aims to address concerns about plastic pollution and ensure that biodegradable plastics meet stricter standards to mitigate environmental harm.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 32

Bionics involves constructing artificial systems that have some of the characteristics of living systems. In this context, which of the following is/are the reasons for use of Graphene in Bionics?

  1. Impermeability to harsh ionic solutions
  2. Good electrical conductivity
  3. Flexibility of graphene

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 32
  • Graphene is most simply defined as a single layer of carbon atoms bonded together in a hexagonal, sheetlike structure.
  • Advances in graphene technology have the potential to bring artificial devices to their senses — in bionic eyes and ears.
  • Graphene is impervious to the harsh ionic solutions found in the human body making it prone to damage. Moreover, graphene's ability to conduct electrical signals means it can interface with neurons and other cells that communicate by a nerve impulse, or action potential.
  • Apart from its stability and favorable electronic properties, graphene is also flexible, so it can be wrapped around delicate tissues.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 33

Which Indian startup successfully test-fired the second stage of its rocket Vikram-1, marking a significant step towards India's first private orbital rocket launch in mid-2024?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 33

In News

  • Skyroot Aerospace, a Hyderabad-based space technology company, successfully test-fired Stage-2 of its Vikram-1 orbital rocket, known as Kalam-250.

Key Points

  • The test took place at ISRO’s propulsion testbed in Sriharikota.
  • This achievement is a significant milestone towards India’s first private orbital rocket launch, following Skyroot’s suborbital space launch of the Vikram-S in November 2022.
  • The 85-second test recorded a peak sea-level thrust of 186 kilonewtons (kN), expected to be around 235kN during flight.
  • The Kalam-250 rocket features a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor using solid fuel and an Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) thermal protection system (TPS).
  • It includes a carbon ablative flex nozzle and electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control, crucial for achieving the desired trajectory during ascent.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 34

Consider the following statements.

  1. IRNSS is an Independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.
  2. IRNSS will provide Standard Positioning Service (SPS) only.
  3. IRNSS satellites revolve round the earth at the height of about 18,000 km from the earth's surface.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 34

IRNSS is an Independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.  It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 Km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users.  The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 metres in the primary service area. The IRNSS space segment consists of seven satellites, with three satellites in geostationary orbit and four satellites in inclined geosynchronous orbit.  Thus, IRNSS satellites revolve round the earth at the height of about 36,000 km from the earth's surface. Applications of IRNSS include land, sea and air navigation, disaster management, vehicle tracking and fleet management, integration with mobile phones, provision of precise time, mapping and navigation aid for hikers and travelers, visual and voice navigation for drivers. It can track people or vehicles and can be of immense use in disaster situations like the recent one in Uttarakhand. Even the Railways may find it useful to track its wagons. Apart from India, its benefits would extend to a range of 1500 km in the region.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 35

‘Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM)’ was recently launched by which one of the followingcountries?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 35

Recently, Japan became the fifth country in history to reach the moon when one of its spacecraft without astronauts successfully made a soft landing on the lunar surface recently.

  • Japan follows the United States, the Soviet Union, China and India in reaching the moon.
  • Japan’s moon lander, Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM), was launched as planned and that data was being transmitted back to the earth.

Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM):

  • SLIM is a lightweight spacecraft about the size of a passenger vehicle which was aiming to hit a very small target.
  • While most previous probes have used landing zones about 10 kilometers (six miles) wide, SLIM was aiming at a target of just 100 meters (330 feet).
  • The SLIM, equipped with a pad each on its five legs to cushion impact, was aiming to land near
  • the Shioli crater, near a region covered in volcanic rock.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 36

Which country launched the second satellite, Noor-2, into space in March 2022?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 36

Key Points

  • Iran's paramilitary Revolutionary Guard launched a second satellite into space in March 2022.
  • The Noor-2 satellite reached a low orbit on the Ghased satellite carrier.
  • Ghased is a three-phase, mixed fuel satellite carrier. 
  • The Guard launched its first Noor satellite in 2020, revealing to the world it ran its own space programme.

Important Points

  • Noor 2 is orbiting at an altitude of 500 kilometres (311 miles). 
  • The three-stage Qased, or "Messenger", carrier launched the Noor 2, from the Shahroud space port.
  • The same type of rockets, which use a combination of liquid and solid fuels, carried the first military satellite.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 37

Which one of the following will comprise the Lithium Triangle?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 37

Argentina, Bolivia and Chile

  • Lithium is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal.
  • Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert atmosphere, or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
  • Chile, Australia, Argentina, Bolivia and China contain most of the reserves discovered so far globally.
  • Argentina, Bolivia and Chile are known as the ‘Lithium Triangle’ and contain 54% of the world’s Lithium reserves.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 38

ISRO successfully conducted a 25-second qualification test for which of it's engine to be used under the Gaganyaan mission, in January 2022?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 38

Key Points

  • ISRO successfully conducted a 25-second qualification test for its liquid propellant-based Vikas engine to be used under the Gaganyaan mission, in January 2022.
  • The test was conducted at the ISRO Propulsion Complex in Mahendragri, Tamil Nadu.
  • It was done to see how the engine performed in conditions that were not optimal, such as change in the fuel-oxidizer ratio or pressure in the fuel chamber.

Important Points

  • Three more tests will be conducted, totalling a duration of 75 seconds, to test the engine under varying conditions.
  • Then, a long-duration test for 240 seconds will be conducted to qualify the engine for carrying humans to space.
  • Two Vikas engines have already been tested for 240 seconds each under optimal operating conditions.
  • This is one of the three engines that the space agency will have to qualify to finally make the entire launch vehicle human rated.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 39

With reference to Zinc, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a form of macronutrient required by plants.
  2. It is essential for growth hormone production and internode elongation in plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 39
  • Plant growth and development are largely determined by nutrient availability. Plants require two types of nutrients- macronutrients and micronutrients.
  • Macronutrients are the nutrients required by plants in large amounts. These include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, calcium, and potassium. Micronutrients are the ones required in very small amounts by plants. These include iron, zinc, boron, iron, manganese, molybdenum, etc. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Zinc is also involved in the activation of certain enzymes and is essential for growth hormone production and internode elongation in plants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 40

What is Kessler Syndrome ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 40

The Kessler syndrome (also called the Kessler effect, proposed by the NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978, is a scenario in which the density of objects in low Earth orbit (LEO) is high enough that collisions between objects could cause a cascade—each collision generating space debris which increases the likelihood of further collisions. One implication is that the distribution of debris in orbit could render space exploration, and even the use of satellites, unfeasible for many generations.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 41

Which of the following actions involves Newton's third law of motion?

  1. Launching of a rocket
  2. Swimming
  3. Firing of a gun

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 41
  • The third law of motion or Newton's third law of motion states that when one exerts a force on another object, the second object instantaneously exerts a force back on the first. These two forces are always equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. These forces act on different objects and never on the same object.
  • Launching a rocket relies on Newton’s Third Law of Motion. A rocket engine produces thrust through action and reaction. The engine produces hot exhaust gases which flow out of the back of the engine. In reaction, a thrusting force is produced in the opposite reaction. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • When a fish swims, it pushes the water in opposite direction with its fins in which it wants to move. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • When a gun is fired, it exerts a forward force on the bullet. The bullet exerts an equal and opposite reaction force on the gun. This results in the recoil of the gun Since the gun has a much greater mass than the bullet, the acceleration of the gun is much less than the acceleration of the bullet. Hence option 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

  1. Developed jointly by ISRO and JAXA, NISAR is a synthetic aperture radar (SAR) satellite for an Earthobserving mission.
  2. NISAR will operate in L-band and S-band frequencies, providing all-weather and day-night imaging capabilities.
  3. NISAR's primary aim is to study volcanoes, earthquakes and tsunamis.
  4. NISAR will also contribute to shed light on the dynamics of sea ice near both poles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 42

Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

About the NISAR:

  • NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) represents a first-of-its-kind collaboration between NASA and ISRO for an Earth-observing mission.
  • Launch: The radar satellite is set to launch in 2024,
  • Aim: To monitor changes in Earth’s frozen regions, including ice sheets, glaciers and sea ice.
  • Collaboration: NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory will lead the US component and provide the mission’s L-band SAR
    • ISRO’s UR Rao Satellite Centre and Space Applications Centre will contribute the spacecraft bus, launch vehicle and S-band SAR electronics.
  • It will employ two radar systems, an L-band and an S-band, to penetrate clouds and darkness, offering comprehensive data even during polar winter nights, making it a valuable tool for allweather observations.
  • NISAR will also shed light on the dynamics of sea ice near both the poles which are critical to understand global climate patterns.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 43

With reference to the Scrub typhus ,which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Scrub typhus is a disease caused by a Virus called Orientia tsutsugamushi.
  2. The disease spread to people through the bites of infected larval mites.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 43

Statement 1 is not Correct and Statements 2 is correct.
What is Scrub typhus?
It is an infectious disease caused by bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted through infected mites (chiggers).

  • Symptoms: It include fever, headache, body ache and sometimes a rash.
    • In severe cases, the infection can lead to respiratory distress, brain and lung inflammation,
    • kidney failure and multi-organ failure, ultimately resulting in death.
  • Causes: Mites carrying the disease are generally found in the bush, jungle and paddy areas. Several factors, like exposure to farming, owning domestic animals, outdoor activities and sanitation, affect its prevalence.
  • Diagnosis: Elisa test is used to diagnose the disease
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 44

 India's first graphene centre, India Innovation Centre for Graphene (IICG), has been established recentlyin which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 44

About the first graphene centre:

  • The first graphene centre in the country, India Innovation Centre for Graphene (IICG), has been established at Makers Village Kochi (Kerala).
  • It was jointly established by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Union Government and Government of Kerala along with Tata Steel Ltd.
  • Aim: To foster research and development, product innovation and capacity building in the area of graphene and 2D material systems.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 45

In the year 2021, DRDO launched which satellite by PSLV-C51 to enhance India's surveillance capability in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 45

Key Points

  • The Sindhu Netra satellite has been developed by the young scientists of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • ISRO launched the 'Sindhu Netra' satellite using, PSLV-C51 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh on 28 February 2021.
  • It is capable of automatically identifying the warships and merchant ships operating in the Indian Ocean region.

Important Points

  • India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C51 also launched Amazonia-1 along with 18 co-passenger satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
  • Amazônia-1 or SSR-1 is the first Earth observation satellite developed by Brazil and launched by NSIL with the help of ISRO.
  • It is the 1st dedicated commercial mission of NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), a GoI company under the Space Department
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 46

Ernest Rutherford designed an experiment where fast-moving alpha (α)-particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil. Rutherford's gold foil experiment is associated with

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 46
  • The atomic model also called as ‘Nuclear Model’ was devised by Ernest Rutherford who was an English physicist and an accomplished experimentalist. Ernest Rutherford was interested in knowing how the electrons are arranged within an atom. Rutherford designed an experiment for this. In this experiment, fastmoving alpha (α)-particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil.
  • The α-particle scattering experiment gave totally unexpected results. The following observations were made:
    • Most of the fast-moving α-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
    • Some of the α-particles were deflected by the foil by small angles.
    • Surprisingly one out of every 12000 particles appeared to rebound.
  • Rutherford concluded from the α-particle scattering experiment that
    • Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.
    • Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.
    • A very small fraction of α-particles were deflected by 1800, indicating that all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom.
  • On the basis of his experiment, Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom. Rutherford's atomic model, nuclear atom, or planetary model of the atom, provides a description of the structure of atoms. The model described the atom as a tiny, dense, positively charged core called a nucleus, in which nearly all the mass is concentrated, around which the light, negative constituents, called electrons, circulate at some distance, much like planets revolving around the Sun.
  • Electrons were discovered by J.J. Thomson in 1897. J.J. Thomson's cathode ray tube experiment discovered the subatomic particle the electron.
  • Eugene Goldstein discovered positive particles by using a tube filled with hydrogen gas (this tube was similar to Thomson's tube). This resulted in The positive particle had a charge equal to and opposite to the electron. The positive particle was named the proton.
  • British physicist Sir James Chadwick discovered neutrons in the year 1932. James Chadwick conducted an experiment in which he bombarded Beryllium with alpha particles from the natural radioactive decay of Polonium. The resulting radiation showed high penetration through a lead shield, which could not be explained via the particles known at that time.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 47

Consider the following statements with reference to Autonomic Nervous System:

  1. The parasympathetic nervous system deals with emergencies when the action must be quick and powerful.
  2. The sympathetic division is mainly concerned with monitoring the routine functions of the body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 47
  • The Autonomic Nervous System: This system governs activities which are normally not under direct control of individuals. It controls such internal functions as breathing, blood circulation, salivation, stomach contraction, and emotional reactions. These activities of the autonomic system are under the control of different structures of the brain.
  • The Autonomic Nervous System has two divisions: Sympathetic division and Parasympathetic division. Although the effect of one division is opposite to the effect of the other, both work together to maintain a state of equilibrium.
  • The sympathetic division deals with emergencies when the action must be quick and powerful, such as in situations of fight or flight. During this period, the digestion stops, blood flows from internal organs to the muscles, and breathing rate, oxygen supply, heart rate, and blood sugar level increases. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Parasympathetic division is mainly concerned with conservation of energy. It monitors the routine functions of the internal system of the body. When the emergency is over, the parasympathetic division takes over; it decelerates the sympathetic activation and calms down the individual to a normal condition. As a result all body functions like heart beat, breathing, and blood flow return to their normal levels. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 48

Which of the following is a bio-fertilizer?

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Azobacter
  3. Azospirilium
  4. Blue-Green Algae
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 49

The ‘Wright Brothers Moment’, sometimes appeared in the news, is in the context of:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 49

Mars Ingenuity Helicopter: It is a small robotic chopper and the first aircraft to make a powered, controlled flight sent to Mars on an experimental basis.

  • It has been called a ‘Wright Brothers moment’.
  • It flies in Mars’ thin atmosphere, which isn’t conducive for flying.
  • It operates autonomously.
  • It uses solar power to charge its batteries and relies on internal heaters to maintain operational temperatures during the cold Martian nights.
  • It paves the way for future aerial explorers at Mars and, potentially, other space destinations.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 1 - Question 50

Which of the following is/are true about LiDAR?

  1. LiDAR stands for Light Detection and Ranging.
  2. It uses laser pulses to determine distant object.
  3. In Military, it is also known as Laser Detection and Ranging.
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