UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025  >  Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - UPSC MCQ

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 for UPSC 2024 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 preparation. The Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 below.
Solutions of Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 questions in English are available as part of our Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 for UPSC & Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 solutions in Hindi for Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 | 50 questions in 60 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to nuclear fission:

  1. Nuclear fission produces more waste than nuclear fusion.
  2. Atom bomb works on the principle of nuclear fission.
  3. The energy released in nuclear fission reactions is millions of tunes greater than the energy released in chemical reactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 1
  • Nuclear fission is a reaction in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or smaller nuclei. The fission process often produces gamma photons and releases a very large amount of energy even by the energetic standards of radioactive decay.
  • Nuclear fission produces more radioactive waste than nuclear fusion because very few radioactive particles are produced in the case of nuclear fusion. Nuclear fission power plants have the disadvantage of generating unstable nuclei; some of these are radioactive for millions of years. Fusion on the other hand does not create any long-lived radioactive nuclear waste. A fusion reactor produces helium, which is an inert gas. It also produces and consumes tritium within the plant in a closed circuit. Tritium is radioactive (a beta emitter) but its half-life is short. It is only used in low amounts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Nuclear Fission reaction does not occur normally in nature.
  • The isotopes uranium-235 and plutonium-239 were selected by atomic scientists because they readily undergo fission. Fission occurs when a neutron strikes the nucleus of either isotope, splitting the nucleus into fragments and releasing a tremendous amount of energy. The fission process becomes self-sustaining as neutrons produced by the splitting of atom strike nearby nuclei and produce more fission. This is known as a chain reaction and is what causes an atomic explosion. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • To make a hydrogen bomb, one would still need uranium or plutonium as well as two other isotopes of hydrogen, called deuterium and tritium. The hydrogen bomb relies on fusion, the process of taking two separate atoms and putting them together to form a third atom. Hydrogen bombs are also harder to produce but lighter in weight, meaning they could travel farther on top of a missile. Although hydrogen bombs do use fusion reactions, they require an additional fission bomb to detonate.
  • The energy released by fission is a million times greater than that released in chemical reactions; but lower than the energy released by nuclear fusion. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Nuclear Fusion occurs when two atoms slam together to form a heavier atom, like when two hydrogen atoms fuse to form one helium atom. Fusion occurs in stars, such as the sun.
    • The energy released by fusion is three to four times greater than the energy released by fission.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 2

With reference to Standalone 5G and Non- Standalone 5G, consider the following statements:

  1. In the standalone mode the 5G network operates parallel to the existing 4G network.
  2. Non-standalone networks are built on existing infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 2
  • Standalone 5G and Non-Standalone 5G
    • 5G networks are deployed mainly in two modes: standalone and non-standalone.
    • Both architectures have advantages and disadvantages, and the path chosen by operators primarily reflects their view of the market for the new technology.
    • In the standalone mode the 5G network operates with dedicated equipment, and runs parallel to the existing 4G network, while in a non-standalone way, the 5G network is supported by the 4G core infrastructure.
    • Given that the non-standalone networks are built on existing infrastructure, the initial cost and the time taken to roll out services through this track are significantly less than standalone networks.
  • Non-Standalone 5G
    • The initial rollouts of 5G networks provide customers with higher data transfer speeds by pairing a 5G Radio Access Network (RAN) with the LTE Evolved Packet Core (EPC). Because the 5G RAN remains reliant on the 4G core network to manage control and signaling information and the 4G RAN continues to operate, this is called a Non-Standalone Architecture.
    • By leveraging the existing infrastructure of a 4G network, carriers are able to provide faster and more reliable Enhanced Mobile Broadband (eMBB) without completely reworking their core network technology and pushing customers to new devices. Non-Standalone 5G provides a transitionary platform for carriers and customers alike.
  • Standalone 5G
    • Standalone 5G does not depend on an LTE EPC to operate. Instead, it pairs 5G radios with a cloudnative 5G core network. The 5G core itself is designed as a Service Based Architecture (SBA) that virtualizes network functions altogether, providing the full range of 5G features enterprise needs for factory automation, autonomous vehicle operation, and more.
  • Comparing Standalone 5G and Non-Standalone 5G
    • NSA 5G helps network operators maximize their existing LTE infrastructure while providing enterprises and users with faster and more reliable communications than ever before, thanks to 5G’s eMBB. But eMBB only scratches the surface of 5G’s promise. Non-standalone networks are built on existing infrastructure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The SA 5G core architecture enables a host of new features and functionality beyond more bandwidth. These include Ultra-Reliable Low Latency Communications (URLCC), a key feature for applications requiring near-real-time responsiveness–things like autonomous driving vehicles, precision robotics, and machine vision. Massive IoT, with specialized machine-to-machine communication protocols, is also a key feature associated with Standalone 5G. In the standalone mode, the 5G network operates with dedicated equipment and runs parallel to the existing 4G network. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 3

For which of the following reasons do chip manufacturers flush a bag of chips with nitrogen gas?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 3
  • When fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid and their smell and taste change. Usually substances which prevent oxidation (antioxidants) are added to foods containing fats and oil. Keeping food in air tight containers helps to slow down oxidation. The chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen to prevent the chips from getting oxidised.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to neutrino:

  1. Neutrinos are chargeless particles.
  2. Neutrinos assist in the detection of mineral and oil deposits deep inside the earth.
  3. They cannot be generated artificially.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 4
  • Neutrinos are fundamental particles created in a wide variety of nuclear processes. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are tiny particles that makeup atoms. The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Neutrino has a very tiny mass, no charge, and spin half. It interacts very weakly with other matter particles. So weakly that every second trillion of neutrinos fall on us and pass through our bodies unnoticed. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Neutrinos change the way they spin depending on how far they have traveled and how much matter they have passed through. If the properties are studied thoroughly and suitable detectors built, they can reveal the presence of minerals and oil deposits. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Neutrino oscillation was established by Sudbury Neutrino Observatory, Canada, and Super-Kamiokande experiment in Japan. They studied Solar neutrinos, atmospheric neutrinos, and man-made neutrinos. It's the process of fission inside the nuclear reactor that eventually leads to the birth of neutrinos through beta decay. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Other use of neutrinos:
    • Scientists have already shown that it's possible to detect neutrinos emitted from the decay in nuclear reactors and have proposed using neutrino detectors to locate undocumented nuclear reactors or reactors that are secretly harvesting plutonium.
    • Use in communication, Scientists have proven that it's possible to encode a message in neutrinos using binary code.
    • the neutrinos are carriers of information regarding the universe.
    • neutrinos can help in identifying the geological defect deep inside the earth, thereby answering the question of an early warning system for an earthquake.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 5

With reference to spoofing and phishing, consider the following statements:

  1. Spoofing is an identity theft where a person is trying to use the identity of a legitimate user.
  2. Phishing is where a person steals the sensitive information of users like bank account details.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 5
  • Recently, the Indian Army issued a proposal for vehicle-based drone jammers. Various ways of drone jamming: Radio Frequency jamming, Satellite link disruption, spoofing, and dazzling.
  • Cybercrime can be defined as a crime or an unlawful act where the computer is used either as a tool, a target, or both. In other terms, cyber crimes in India can be defined as unauthorized access to some computer system without the permission of the rightful owner or place of criminal activity and include everything from online cracking to denial of service attacks.
  • Some examples of cybercrime include phishing, spoofing, DoS (Denial of Service) attack, credit card fraud, online transaction fraud, cyber defamation, child pornography, etc.
  • Spoofing: Spoofing is a type of attack on a computer device in which the attacker tries to steal the identity of the legitimate user and act as another person. This kind of attack is done to breach the security of the system or to steal the information of the users. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Phishing is a type of attack on a computer device where the attacker tries to find the sensitive information of users in a fraudulent manner through electronic communication by intending to be from a related trusted organization in an automated manner. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Spoofing can be part of phishing. But Phishing can’t be part of the spoofing. Spoofing doesn’t require fraud. But Phishing is operated in a fraudulent manner.
  • Ransomware Attack: Ransomware attacks are a very common type of cybercrime. It is a type of malware that has the capability to prevent users from accessing all of their personal data on the system by encrypting them and then asking for a ransom in order to give access to the encrypted data.
  • Hacking/Misusing Computer Networks: This term refers to the crime of unauthorized access to private computers or networks and misuse of it either by shutting it down or tampering with the data stored or other illegal approaches.
  • Vishing is an attempt where fraudsters try to seek personal information like Customer ID, Net Banking password, ATM PIN, OTP, Card expiry date, CVV etc. through a phone call.
  • Smishing is a type of fraud that uses mobile phone text messages to lure victims into calling back on a fraudulent phone number, visiting fraudulent websites or downloading malicious content via phone or the web.
  • Denial of Services (DoS) attack is an attack intended for denying access to computer resources without the permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network.
    • A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources.
  • Cryptojacking is the unauthorized use of computing resources to mine cryptocurrencies.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 6

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 6
  • Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell.
    • The energy required for various chemical activities needed for life is released by mitochondria in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) molecules. [If Mitochondria is the Power Plant. ATP is the Electricity].
    • ATP is known as the energy currency of the cell. The body uses energy stored in ATP for making new chemical compounds and for mechanical work.
  • Lysosomes are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell.
    • Lysosomes help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.
    • Foreign materials entering the cell, such as bacteria or food, as well as old organelles end up in the lysosomes, which break them up into small pieces.
    • Lysosomes are able to do this because they contain powerful digestive enzymes capable of breaking down all organic material. During the disturbance in cellular metabolism, for example, when the cell gets damaged, lysosomes may burst and the enzymes digest their own cell.
    • Therefore, lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide bags’ of a cell.
  • The golgi apparatus consists of a system of membrane-bound vesicles arranged approximately parallel to each other in stacks called cisterns.
    • These membranes often have connections with the membranes of ER and therefore constitute another portion of a complex cellular membrane system.
    • The material synthesized near the ER is packaged and dispatched to various targets inside and outside the cell through the golgi apparatus. Its functions include the storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles
  • A ribosome is a complex molecular machine found inside the living cells that produce proteins from amino acids during a process called protein synthesis or translation.
    • The process of protein synthesis is a primary function, which is performed by all living cells.
    • Ribosomes are specialized cell organelles and are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
    • Every living cell requires ribosomes for the production of proteins.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to the electric bulb:

  1. Tungsten is used as filament in electric bulbs because it has a very high melting point.
  2. The bulbs are filled with nitrogen and argon gas so that the filament does not catch fire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 7

Electric Bulb:

  • The electric bulb is also known as an incandescent lamp, incandescent light globe, or incandescent light bulb.
  • An electric bulb is a small and simple light source that uses a wire filament to glow on the application of electricity.
  • The filament, which is a coiled thin wire, is made of tungsten. Tungsten is chosen as filament since it has a high melting point, which avoids the melting of the filament at high temperatures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The filament is enclosed in a globe-shaped glass mount and is connected with copper and lead wires connected to the lamp’s base.
  • The wires and the filament are enclosed in like nitrogen, argon, or krypton - so that the filament doesn't catch fire. Since argon is an inactive gas, it protects the filament from burning as well as increases the lifetime of the filament. Thin glass is used to manufacture the bulb, preventing the air from reaching the filament to protect it from burning. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • When electric power is passed through the bulb, it reaches the filament through copper and lead wires. The base holds the bulb upright and connects to the electric circuit.
  • Copper and lead wires let the electricity pass from the base to the tungsten filament. It causes the filament to emit light and glow.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 8
  • Concave mirror: A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, that is, faces towards the center of the sphere, is called a concave mirror. Concave mirrors are commonly used in torches, searchlights, and vehicle headlights to get powerful parallel beams of light. They are often used as shaving mirrors to see a larger image of the face. Dentists use concave mirrors to see large images of the teeth of patients. Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnaces. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Convex mirror: A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved outwards, is called a convex mirror. Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view (wing) mirrors in vehicles. These mirrors are fitted on the sides of the vehicle, enabling the driver to see traffic behind him/her to facilitate safe driving. Convex mirrors are preferred because they always give an erect, though diminished, image. Also, they have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view a much larger area than would be possible with a plane mirror. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
  • Convex Lens: A lens that has two spherical surfaces, bulging outwards. Such a lens is called a double convex lens. It is simply called a convex lens. It is thicker in the middle as compared to the edges. Convex lens converges light rays. Convex lenses are used to ---
    • Correct farsightedness.
    • Magnifying glasses 
    • Multijunction solar cell
    • Microscope o Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Concave Lens: A lens that is bounded by two spherical surfaces, curved inwards is called a double concave lens or simply called a concave lens. It is thicker at the edges than at the middle. Such lenses diverge light rays. So it is also called diverging lenses. Concave lenses are used to ---
    • Correct Nearsightedness.
    • Peepholes
    • Flashlight
    • Camera

Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements with reference to myopia:

  1. A person with myopia cannot see nearby objects clearly.
  2. In myopia, the eyeball becomes elongated.
  3. A concave lens is used to correct this defect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 9
  • Myopia is also known as near-sightedness.
  • A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity.
  • Such a person may see clearly up to a distance of a few meters.
  • In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself.
  • This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • A concave lens of suitable power will bring the image back onto the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
  • This defect may arise due to
    (i) excessive curvature of the eye lens, or
    (ii) elongation of the eyeball.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 10

Honey flows slower than water because

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 10
  • Viscosity, the resistance of a fluid (liquid or gas) to a change in shape, or movement of neighboring portions relative to one another. Viscosity denotes opposition to flow.
  • The viscosity of honey lies between 0.421 and 23.405 Pa s and the viscosity of water lies between 0.01 poise or 10-3 Pa.s. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • The reciprocal of the viscosity is called fluidity, a measure of the ease of flow.
  • Honey, for example, has a greater viscosity than water.
  • Because part of a fluid that is forced to move carries along to some extent adjacent parts, the viscosity may be thought of as internal friction between the molecules; such friction opposes the development of velocity differences within a fluid.
  • Viscosity is a major factor in determining the forces that must be overcome when fluids are used in lubrication and transported in pipelines. It controls the liquid flow in such processes as spraying, injection molding, and surface coating.
  • Honey while more viscous than water, doesn't have higher surface tension than water. Mosquitoes are able to stand on water but slowly sink into honey.
  • The densities of
    • Honey is 1360 kg / m3
    • Sugar Syrup is 1320 kg/m3
    • Dishwashing Liquid is 1120 kg / m3
    • Water is 1000 kg / m3.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 11

With reference to Indian skimmer (bird species), consider the following statements:

  1. It is found on large rivers and lakes, swamps and coastal wetlands such as estuaries.
  2. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
  3. It has breeding colonies in Chambal river, Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 11
  • Recently, Godavari estuary in Andhra Pradesh has become prime habitat for Indian Skimmer.
  • The Indian skimmer or Indian scissors-bill (Rynchops albicollis) is one of the three species that belong to the skimmer genus Rynchops in the family Laridae.
  • Distribution:
    • More widespread in winter, the Indian skimmer is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the non-breeding season, in estuaries and coasts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It breeds colonially on large, exposed sand-bars and islands. Colonies of mating pairs can be observed nesting on sandy islands or open sand banks, often accompanied by other birds like Terns during the breeding season, between February and May. It has breeding colonies in Chambal river, Rajasthan. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Major Threats:
    • The damming of the Chambal River, in upstream Rajasthan, has adversely affected its population at National Chambal Sanctuary, Uttar Pradesh, due to the dropping water levels allowing predators and livestock access to breeding islands.
    • Predation by corvids like House crows, presence of stray and domestic dogs, have been known to decimate breeding colonies.
  • IUCN status: Endangered. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Charge sheet is a written document prepared by the police when they receive information about the commission of a cognizable offence.
  2. First Information Report (FIR) is a formal police record showing the names of each person brought into custody.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 12
  • Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) held that charge sheet by probing agency is not a “public document”. It stated that putting it in public domain will violate the rights of victim, accused and investigating agencies. SC said that If all the chargesheets and relevant documents produced along with the chargesheets are put on the public domain or the websites of the state governments, it will be contrary to the scheme of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
  • Charge sheet refers to a formal police record showing the names of each person brought into custody, the nature of the accusations, and the identity of the accusers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It is also known as four-part charging instrument containing: 
    • Information about the accused and the witnesses;
    • the charges and specifications;
    • the preferring of charges and their referral to a summary;
    • For the trial record.
  • First Information Report (FIR) is a written document prepared by the police when they receive information about the commission of a cognizable offence. Based on information so provided the investigation started. F.I.R can also be registered by the Judicial Magistrate by giving the direction to the concerned jurisdictional area of the Police Station.Evidentiary value of F.I.R is that F.I.R is not substantive evidence in nature. But It can be used as corroborative or contradictory evidence. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • A charge sheet is distinct from the First Information Report (FIR), which is the core document that describes a crime that has been committed. It usually refers to one or more FIRs and charges an individual or organization for (some or all of) the crimes specified in those FIR(s). Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin in the judicial system.
  • Under Youth Bar Association Case (2016) the SC issued directions to the police to upload the FIRs in website within 24 hours except in sensitive cases like rape.
  • SC said that Putting the FIR on the website cannot be equated with putting the chargesheets along with the relevant documents on the public domain and the websites of the state governments.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 13

Which of the following diseases are caused by protozoa?

  1. Dengue
  2. Malaria
  3. Kala-Azar
  4. Tuberculosis

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 13
  • Organisms that can cause disease are found in a wide range of such categories of classification. Some of them are viruses, some are bacteria, some are fungi, some are single-celled animals or protozoans. Some diseases are also caused by multicellular organisms, such as worms of different kinds.
  • Disease caused by Bacteria:
    • Whooping Cough - It is caused by a bacterium called Bordetella pertussis.
    • Diphtheria - It is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
    • Cholera - It is caused by Vibrio cholera. o Leprosy - It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
    • Pneumonia- It is caused by Streptococcus pneumonia.
    • Tetanus - It is caused by Clostridium tetani.
    • Typhoid - It is caused by Salmonella typhi.
    • Tuberculosis - It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    • Plague - It is caused by Yersinia pestis.
  • Disease Caused by Protozoans:
    • Diarrhoea: There are a number of intestinal protozoa that cause diarrhea, but Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia intestinalis and Cryptosporidium species are the most important causes of diarrhea
    • Malaria: It is spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is neither a virus nor a bacteria.
    • Amoebic dysentery: It is caused by Entamoebahistolytica.
    • Sleeping sickness: It is caused by Trypanosomabrucei.
    • Kala-azar It is caused by Leishmaniadonovani.
  • Disease Caused by Worms:
    • Tapeworm: They are intestinal parasites. It cannot live on its own. It survives within the intestine of an animal including a human.
    • Pinworm: It is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called Enterobiusvermicularis.
  • Disease caused by Viruses:
    • Chickenpox - It is caused by the Varicella-zoster virus.
    • Small Pox - It is caused by the Variola virus.Common Cold -It is caused by Rhinovirus.
    • AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) - It is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
    • Measles -It is caused by the Measles virus.
    • Mumps -It is caused by the Mumps virus.
    • Rabies - It is caused by the Rabies virus (Rhabdoviridae family).
    • Dengue fever -It is caused by the Dengue virus.
    • Viral encephalitis - It is an inflammation of the brain. It is caused by the rabies virus, Herpes simplex, poliovirus, measles virus, and JC virus.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 14

With reference to the doppler effect consider the following statements:

  1. It is defined as the change in the frequency of a wave as the source and observer move toward each other or go far from each other.
  2. It can be observ ed for any type of wave including water waves, sound waves, lightwaves, etc.
  3. The doppler red-shift of light observed from distant galaxies gives evidence that the universe is expanding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 14
  • Recently, India Meteorological Department (IMD) declared that it will cover entire India under a Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs) network by 2025. DWRs are used to locate precipitation, calculate its motion, and estimate its type. A Doppler Radar is a specialized radar that uses the Doppler effect to produce velocity data about objects at a distance.
  • Doppler effect in physics is defined as the increase in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move towards each other. Also, it is defined as the decrease in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move away from each other. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Doppler effect can be observed for any type of wave - water wave, sound wave, light wave, etc. We are most familiar with the Doppler effect because of our experiences with sound waves. For instance, when a police car or emergency vehicle was traveling towards us on the highway and as the car approached with its siren blasting, the pitch of the siren sound (a measure of the siren's frequency) was high; and then suddenly after the car passed by, the pitch of the siren sound was low. That was the Doppler effect - an apparent shift in frequency for a sound wave produced by a moving source. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Doppler red shift of light observed from distant stars and galaxies gives evidence that the universe is expanding (moving away from a central point). This allows for Big Bang Theory, because after a “bang” occurs all of the matter moves away from the point of origin. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 15

With reference to Sodium Benzoate, consider the following statements:

  • It is used as a preservative in soft drinks to increase the acidity of flavor.
  • A mixture of sodium benzoate and ascorbic acid for food preservation can be carcinogenic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 15
  • Sodium benzoate is an odorless, crystalline powder made by combining benzoic acid and sodium hydroxide. Benzoic acid is a good preservative on its own, and combining it with sodium hydroxide helps it dissolve in products. It is also used as a preservative in soft drinks to increase the acidity of flavor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Aside from its use in processed foods and beverages, sodium benzoate is also added to some medicines, cosmetics, personal care products, and industrial products.
  • While sodium benzoate is considered safe, scientific research has shown that negative side effects occur when it's mixed with ascorbic acid (vitamin C). Their studies indicate that it then turns into benzene, a known carcinogen that may cause cancer. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 16

Which one of the following will occur if a sealed transparent plastic bottle filled with hot air is placed in the freezer?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 16
  • When a sealed transparent plastic bottle filled with hot air is placed in the freezer, the plastic bottle will collapse on itself. The collapsing bottle demonstrates the properties of gasses collectively known as the Ideal Gas Law, an equation describing the relationship between temperature, pressure, and volume.
  • According to Gas Law, the pressure and volume are inversely proportional to each other and both are proportional to temperature. So as the temperature decreased when the bottle filled with hot air is placed inside the freezer, the pressure decreased until the bottle gave in and collapsed (the volume decreased until the pressure equalized).

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 17

With reference to the plasma proteins in blood, consider the following statements:

  1. Fibrinogens in plasma are needed for clotting of blood.
  2. Globulins in plasma are involved in defense mechanisms of the body.
  3. Albumins in plasma help in the osmotic balance so that the fluid does not leak into tissues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 17
  • Blood is a constantly circulating fluid providing the body with nutrition, oxygen, and waste removal.
  • Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and formed elements.
  • Plasma is the liquid component of blood. Plasma makes up 55% of blood’s total volume.
  • 90-92 per cent of plasma is water. The remaining 8 percent of plasma contains several key materials, including:
    • proteins
    • Immunoglobulins
    • electrolytes
  • Plasma Proteins
    • Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins.
      • Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Fibrinogen helps to reduce active bleeding, making it an important part of the blood-clotting process. If a person loses a lot blood, they’ll also lose plasma and fibrinogen. This makes it harder for blood to clot, which can lead to significant blood loss. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and defends our body from infections including bacteria, fungi, viruses and cancer cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • Albumin help in osmotic balance. It is vital for maintaining a balance of fluid, called oncotic pressure, in the blood. This pressure is what keeps fluid from leaking into areas of the body and skin where less fluid usually collects. For example, people with low albumin levels may have swelling in their hands, feet, and abdomen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • ImmunoglobulinsPlasma contains gamma globulins, a type of immunoglobulin. Immunoglobulins help the body fight off infections.
  • ElectrolytesElectrolytes conduct electricity when dissolved in water, hence their name. Common electrolytes include sodium, potassium, magnesium, and calcium. Each of these electrolytes plays a key role in the body.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 18

Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS), recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 18

E-cigarettes:

  • E-cigarettes are electronic devices designed to simulate the act of smoking tobacco cigarettes.
  • They are also called “e-cigs,” “vapes,” “e-hookahs,” “vape pens,” and “Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS).”
  • Contain a heating element that vaporizes a liquid (e-liquid) which typically includes nicotine, flavorings, and other chemicals.
  • Come in various forms, including pens, mods, tanks, and pod systems.
  • Vaping is the act of inhaling and exhaling the aerosol produced by an e-cigarette.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. Lethal Injection and Nitrogen Hypoxia are among the methods of execution.
  2. Capital punishment is not legal in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 19

Statement 1 is correct: The US state of Alabama carried out the execution of a convicted murderer using nitrogen gas.

  • In a nitrogen gas execution, the individual is confined within a sealed chamber.
  • Nitrogen gas is introduced into the chamber, gradually replacing the oxygen.
  • An inmate is deprived of oxygen until he/she breathes only nitrogen, causing asphyxiation.
  • Lethal injection involves injecting drugs that sedate and kill the inmate, and has been the preferred method.

Statement 2 is not correct: Capital punishment is legal in India, and it is retained for certain types of heinous crimes.

  • It is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code and other special laws.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 20

The ‘three-drug regimen’ of dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine, recently approved by the Governmentof India for which of the following diseases?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 20

The Central government has approved a new treatment regimen for leprosy, aiming to stop its transmission at the sub-national level by 2027.

Three-drug regimen:

  • The WHO has recommended this treatment regimen in 2015.
  • It consists of three drugs — dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine. The combination is referred to as MDT (multidrug therapy). MDT kills the pathogen and cures the patient.
  • This regimen is known as ‘Uniform MDT’, where a single three-pack kit can be given to all leprosy patients. This measure facilitates ease of administration.
  • The duration of treatment is six months for PB and 12 months for MB cases
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 21

RTS,S and R21 vaccines, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following diseases?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 21

About the anti-malaria vaccines:

  • The RTS,S/AS01, commercially known as Mosquirix and R21/Matrix-M vaccines act against P. falciparum, the deadliest malaria parasite and the most prevalent on the African continent.
  • In 2021, WHO licensed RTS,S/AS01, commercially known as Mosquirix, for children in subSaharan Africa with moderate-to-high Plasmodium falciparum malaria transmission.
  • The second one is the R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine licensed for use in Ghana, Nigeria and Burkina Faso by WHO in 2023.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 22

The Mpemba effect caught scientists’ attention recently,it is related to :

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 22

Mpemba effect is named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, who brought attention to this counterintuitive phenomenon in 1969.

  • Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes had noticed the effect centuries earlier.
  • The effect is that hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 23

AI Governance Alliance (AIGA), was launched by which of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 23

The World Economic Forum launched the AI Governance Alliance in 2023.

  • It is a dedicated initiative focused on responsible generative artificial intelligence (AI). 
  • It is a union of industry leaders, governments, academic institutions, and civil society organizations to champion responsible global design and release of transparent and inclusive AI systems.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 24

With reference to the Quantum Technology, consider the following statements:

  1. It uses the principles of quantum mechanics to develop new technologies with unprecedented capabilities.
  2. It uses Quantum mechanisms such as superposition and entanglement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 24

Both the statements are correct: Quantum technology is a rapidly advancing field that leverages the principles of quantum mechanics to develop new technologies with unprecedented capabilities.

  • Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that studies the behavior of particles at the quantum level, where classical physics no longer applies.
  • Quantum technology harnesses the unique properties of quantum systems, such as superpositionand entanglement, to perform tasks that were previously thought impossible or significantly enhance existing capabilities
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 25

Recently the Einstein Probe (EP), a new astronomical satellite was launched for the observation ofcosmic phenomena like black holes, colliding neutron stars, and exploding stars. It is related to which ofthe following countries?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 25

Recently, China launched the Einstein Probe (EP), a new astronomical satellite, for the observation of cosmic phenomena like black holes, colliding neutron stars, and exploding stars.

About

  • The probe is named after Einstein for his theory of general relativity on black holes and gravitational waves.
  • The probe will be used to search for X-ray signals accompanying gravitational wave events around the celestial bodies and to pinpoint them.
  • The Einstein Probe was launched using the “Long March-2C carrier rocket”.
  • The satellite is shaped like a lotus in full bloom. The lotus-inspired design incorporates 12 ‘petals’ housing wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and two ‘stamens’ containing follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT).

International Collaboration

  • Einstein Probe is a collaboration led by the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) with the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Max Planck Institute for Extraterrestrial Physics (MPE), Germany.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 26

With reference to the Light-emitting diodes (LEDs), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. LEDs have lower energy efficiency than fluorescent lamps.
  2. LEDs have a longer Lifespan than fluorescent lamps.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 26

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

Advantages of LEDs

  • Long Lifespan: LED bulbs can last up to 25,000 hours or more, which means less frequent replacements and reduced maintenance costs. o LEDs have an extremely long lifespan relative to every other lighting technology (including fluorescent lights).
  • Energy Efficiency: They convert a higher percentage of electrical energy into light, reducing energy waste and lowering electricity bills.
  • LEDs can produce up to 300 lumen (amount of visible light emitted per second) versus incandescent bulbs’ 16 lumen and fluorescent lamps’ 70 lumen.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 27

Human papillomavirus (HPV) can lead to the development of which of the following diseases?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 27

Human papillomavirus (HPV):

  • HPV is the name of a very common group of viruses that affects skin. They do not cause any problems in most people, but some types can cause genital warts or cancer.

  • Symptoms: HPV does not usually cause any symptoms. Most people who have it do not realise and do not have any problems. But sometimes the virus can cause painless growths or lumps around vagina,penis or anus (genital warts)
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 28

With reference to the Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO),consider the following statements:

  1. It is a Joint project between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the European Space Agency (ESA).
  2. It consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in India and Germany.
  3. India will contribute in the development and operation of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network”.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 28

Statement 1 and 2 are not correct and Statement 3 is correct.

Square Kilometre Array Observatory

  • The SKA Observatory is an intergovernmental organization bringing together 14 countries; Australia, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Italy, New Zealand, Spain, South Africa, Sweden, Switzerland, The Netherlands and the United Kingdom.
  • Headquarters: United Kingdom
  • Mandate: Its aim is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform the understanding of the Universe.
    • It will explore the formation and evolution of galaxies, fundamental physics in extreme environments and the origins of life.
  • The observatory consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in South Africa and Australia, and associated facilities to support the operations of the telescopes. Indian Engagement in SKAO
  • India, through the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) has been involved in the development of SKA since its inception in the 1990s.
  • India’s main contribution is in the development, and operation, of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network” or the software that will make the telescope work.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 29

With reference to the Polygraph Test, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a lie detector test based on the physiological responses of a person.
  2. The results of the tests cannot be considered to be confessions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 29

Both the statements are correct.

What is the Polygraph Test?

  • The Polygraph Test is commonly known as a lie detector test.
  • It is based on the assumption that physiological responses (heartbeat, changes in breathing, sweating, etc.) triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise. Are the results of the tests admissible as evidence?
  • In ‘Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr’ (2010) the Supreme Court said, that the results of the tests cannot be considered to be “confessions”.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 30

With reference to the Aditya-L1 mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The spacecraft will enter the corona of the Sun to understand the phenomenon of coronal mass ejection.
  2. It carries the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) to focus upon the Photosphere and Chromosphere of the Sun.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 30

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

What is the Aditya-L1 mission?

  • Aditya-L1 is the first space-based Indian observatory to study the Sun.
  • The solar mission will not see the spacecraft actually go to the sun, it will instead create a space observatory at a point from which the sun can be observed even during an eclipse.
  • The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1), around 1.5 million km from the Earth, of the Sun-Earth system.
  • The mission has a life of five years during which its payloads are expected to provide the information to understand the phenomenon of.;
    • Coronal heating; coronal mass ejection; pre-flare and flare activities and their characteristics;
    • Dynamics of space weather; and propagation of particles and fields.
  • It is equipped with seven payloads (instruments) on board with four of them carrying out remote sensing of the Sun and three of them carrying in-situ observation.

What are the seven payloads?

  • The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) will study the Corona, imaging and spectroscopy, and Coronal mass ejections.
  • The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) will focus upon the Photosphere and Chromosphere imaging- narrow and broadband. It will also measure the solar irradiance variations.
  • The Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) and High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) will study the soft and hard X-ray flares from the Sun over a wide X-ray energy range.
  • The Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX) and Plasma Analyser Package For Aditya (PAPA) will analyze the electrons and protons in the Solar wind or particles. It will also study the energetic ions.
  • The Advanced Tri-axial High Resolution Digital Magnetometers will study the interplanetary magnetic field at L1 point.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 31

With reference to the Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO),consider the following statements:

  1. It is a Joint project between ISRO and NASA.
  2. It consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in South Africa and Australia.
  3. India will contribute in the development and operation of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network”.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 31

Square Kilometre Array Observatory

  • The SKA Observatory is an intergovernmental organization bringing together 14 countries; Australia, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Italy, New Zealand, Spain, South Africa, Sweden, Switzerland, The Netherlands and the United Kingdom.
  • Headquarters: United Kingdom
  • Mandate: Its aim is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform the understanding of the Universe.
    • It will explore the formation and evolution of galaxies, fundamental physics in extreme environments and the origins of life.
  • The observatory consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in South Africa and Australia, and associated facilities to support the operations of the telescopes. Indian Engagement in SKAO
  • India, through the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) has been involved in the development of SKA since its inception in the 1990s.
  • India’s main contribution is in the development, and operation, of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network” or the software that will make the telescope work.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 32

With reference to the Radiocarbon Dating, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a scientific method that can accurately determine the age of organic materials.
  2. Scientists estimate the age by measuring cosmic rays absorbed by dead organisms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 32

Statement 1 is correct: Radiocarbon dating, or carbon-14 dating, is a scientific method that can accurately determine the age of organic materials.

  • It was developed in the late 1940s by Willard Libby, the technique is based on the decay of the carbon-14 isotope.

Statement 2 is not correct: It starts with cosmic rays—subatomic particles of matter that continuously rain upon Earth from all directions.

  • When cosmic rays reach Earth’s upper atmosphere, physical and chemical interactions form the radioactive isotope carbon-14.
  • Living organisms absorb this carbon-14 into their tissue. Once they die, the absorption stops, and the carbon-14 begins very slowly to change into other atoms at a predictable rate.

By measuring how much carbon-14 remains, scientists can estimate how long a particular organic object has been dead.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 33

Which Indian Institute of Technology pioneered the technology transfer for the first India-made swine fever vaccine?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 33

In News

  • The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati pioneered the technology transfer for the first India-made swine fever vaccine.

Key Points

  • This vaccine, developed in collaboration with Assam Agricultural University, harnesses a reverse genetic platform.
  • It offers a swift and cost-effective method for pig vaccination against classical swine fever.
  • The technology has been successfully transferred to BioMed Pvt Ltd for commercial production.
  • Researchers from the Department of Biosciences and Bioengineering at IIT Guwahati have played a crucial role in the development of this vaccine.
  • Utilizing the Newcastle disease virus (NDV) as a carrier, this innovative method facilitates rapid and cost-effective development of immunity against swine fever in pigs.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 34

What is the name of the satellite launched by China for environmental monitoring?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 34

In News

  • China launched the satellite Yunhai-3 02 for environmental monitoring from the Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center in Shanxi Province.

Key Points

  • The launch was conducted using a Long March-6 rocket on March 27, 2024, at 6:51 a.m. Beijing Time.
  • The satellite's main tasks include atmospheric and marine environment detection, space environment monitoring, disaster prevention and reduction, and scientific experiments.
  • This launch signifies the 514th flight mission of the Long March carrier rocket series.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 35

What is the name of the first Indian missile?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 35

Key Points

  • Prithvi was the first Indian missile.
  • It was a surface-to-surface ballistic missile.
  • It was inducted into the Forces Command in 2003.
  • It was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
  • It was developed by Defence Research Development Organization.
  • Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the brain behind this project.
  • He was the former President of India, famously known as the Missile Man of India.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 36

India's first human space mission "Gaganyaan" will be launched in which year?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 36

Key Points

  • According to Union Minister of State for Space Jitendra Singh, India's first human space flight mission under the 'Gaganyaan program' is scheduled to launch in the fourth quarter of 2024.
  • Gaganyaan, India's first human space mission, is set to launch in 2024.
  • Two uncrewed Gaganyan missions, uncrewed mission 'G1'(in the last quarter of 2023) and the second uncrewed mission 'G2' in the second quarter of 2024
  • The second mission will carry "Vyommitra", a spacefaring human-robot developed by ISRO, in the second quarter of 2024.

Important Points

  • India will become the fourth nation in the world to launch a Human Spaceflight Mission after USA, Russia and China.
  • The major missions viz., Test vehicle flight for the validation of Crew Escape System performance and the 1st Uncrewed mission of Gaganyaan (G1) are scheduled during the beginning of 2nd half of 2022. 
  • The astronaut training facility is getting established in Bengaluru and in advanced stage of completion.
  • Basic Aeromedical training and flying practice completed as part of the Indian leg of training.
  • The design of all systems of Gaganyaan has been completed. 
  • The configuration and design of ground infrastructure have been completed and modifications needed are being implemented.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 37

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle _____________ carrying three satellites on 14 February 2022.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 37

Key Points

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C52, carrying three satellites on 14 Feb 2022 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
  • It was carrying EOS-04, a radar imaging satellite.
  • The other two satellites include one student satellite (INSPIREsat-1) from IIST, and a technology demonstrator satellite (INS-2TD) from ISRO.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 38

Which Indian institution developed an intensive care unit (ICU) grade ventilator under the name of ‘Project Praana’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 38

Important Points

  • A team of engineers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) had developed an intensive care unit (ICU) grade ventilator under the name of ‘Project Praana’.
  • Recently, the team has successfully completed the prototyping of the ventilator, which is now in the process of being commercialised.
  • The affordable ventilator uses only components made in India or components which are easily available in the domestic markets.
  • The team developed the ventilator in a record 35 days.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 39

India's first super computer PARAM 8000 was launched in year ______

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 39

Key Points

  • PARAM 8000:
    • The PARAM 8000 was the first machine in the series and was built from scratch.
    • Vijay P. Bhatkar is best known as the architect of India's national initiative in supercomputing where he led the development of Param supercomputers.
      • He developed the first Indian supercomputer, the PARAM 8000, in 1991.
    • PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
    • PARAM means "supreme" in the Sanskrit language.
    • As of November 2020, the latest and fastest machine in the series is the PARAM Siddhi AI which ranks 63rd in the world.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 40

Which of the following about swine flu is correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 40

It is a respiratory disease caused by virus that is endemic in pigs. The symptoms are the same as the seasonal flu -- cough, sore throat, and body aches. Swine flu is transmitted from person to person by inhalation or ingestion of droplets containing virus from people sneezing or coughing; it is not transmitted by eating cooked pork products. The recent outbreak of swine flu in India is due to influenza virus H1N1.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 41

Consider the following statements.

  1. ‘MySecurity.in’ is a web portal that will be a platform for innovation in the field of security related web applications.
  2. It will be launched by Ministry of Home affairs.
  3. Any individual, company, student, NGO etc can develop and deploy on this portal such security applications which may be useful to the people.
Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 41

Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah has decided to launch a web portal ‘MySecurity.in’ that will be a platform for innovation in the field of security related web applications. Any individual, company, student, NGO etc can develop and deploy on this portal such security applications which may be useful to the people. It will enable the general public to get access to a large number of security related applications.

The main objective of launching the web portal ‘MySecurity.in’ is to promote innovation in developing security related applications as well as offer to the people safe and trusted applications for their security needs. People will have options to choose the applications best suited for their requirements. Application developers, meeting the basic screening criteria, will be allowed hardware and middleware resources in a cloud based environment to deploy their applications. An expert group constituted by MHA will also evaluate the application on parameters like usefulness, innovation, public acceptance, technology used, maintenance, updation, feedback mechanism etc.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 42

Consider the following statements about NISAR

  1. Its purpose is to measure the changes on earth’s land surface, ice surface, glaciers, earthquakes and volcanoes.
  2. The data will be used to understand climate change and predict natural disasters.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 42

NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission will be launched in 2020. Its purpose is to measure the changes on earth’s land surface, ice surface, glaciers, earthquakes and volcanoes. The data will be used to understand climate change and predict natural disasters. NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band). Hence it can capture resolution even less than a centimeter of earth’s surface.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 43

What is the purpose of India’s Mars orbiter mission?

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 44

What is Japanese Encephalitis ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 44

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain. Japanese encephalitis is a disease caused by the mosquito-borne Japanese encephalitis virus. The Japanese encephalitis virus is a virus from the family Flaviviridae. Domestic pigs and wild birds (especially herons) are reservoirs of the virus; transmission to humans may cause severe symptoms. The symptoms include high fever, headache, vomiting, confusion and, in severe cases, seizures, paralysis and coma. The disease can result in brain damage. Children and elderly people are especially at risk of developing a severe form of encephalitis. Mortality of this disease varies but is generally much higher in children.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 45

Which of the following is/are true about ballast water management?

  1. Ballast water is used in aeroplanes for cooling their auxillary engines.
  2. Ballast water management is regulated by IMO.
  3. Ballast water is a concern due to transfer of non-native aquatic species by ballast exchange.
Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 45

Ballast water is used in ships for stability purpose.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 46

Which of the following statement is/are false?

  1. Cryonics is the preservation of humans and animals.
  2. Cryotronics is the practical application of cryoelectronics.
  3. Liquid hydrogen is used as a cryogenic fuel.
  4. Cryoelectronics is the field of research regarding super conductivity at low temperature.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 47

Which of the statement is/are true about MAGLEV Technology?

  1. It is Magnetic Suspension technology to keep object suspended with no support.
  2. This technology is used in planes and ships.
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 48

Which of the following is true about Cobalt-60 ?

  1. It is a natural isotope of cobalt.
  2. It has very short half-life period of 5.27 years.
  3. It is used in medical radio-therapy.
Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 48

It is artificially created isotope of cobalt.

Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 49

Which of the following disease has been completely eradicated from Earth?

  1. Rinderpest
  2. Small Pox
  3. Polio
Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 50

Which of the following national missions is entrusted with Ministry of Science & Technology?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 - Question 50

The Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology has been entrusted with the responsibility of coordinating two out of eight national missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). These are National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC).

16 videos|4 docs|70 tests
Information about Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for Practice Test: Science and Technology- 2, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice
Download as PDF

How to Prepare for UPSC

Read our guide to prepare for UPSC which is created by Toppers & the best Teachers
Download the FREE EduRev App
Track your progress, build streaks, highlight & save important lessons and more!