Test: Environment- 2 - UPSC MCQ

• Crocodile conservation in India started in early 1970s after some reports of extensive poachings of Crocodile surfaced. After this Indian Government took some serious steps for Crocodile protection. 
• The Gharial was accorded protection under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972.
• Project Crocodile was started in 1975 with the aid of the United Nations Development Programme and Food and Agriculture Organisation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Stretches of the Mahanadi, Ganga, Girwa and other rivers inhabited by gharials were declared protected areas.
• The project included an intensive captive breeding and rearing programme to create a large crocodile population that would be ultimately translocated.
• An acute shortage of gharial eggs was overcome by their purchase from Nepal, each egg costing Rs 200. A male gharial was flown in from a zoo in Frankfurt, West Germany, to get the breeding programme going.
• Sixteen crocodile rehabilitation centres and five crocodile sanctuaries -- National Chambal Sanctuary (ncs), Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (kws), Satkosia Gorge Wildlife Sanctuary, Son Gharial Sanctuary and Ken Gharial Sanctuary -- were established between 1975 and 1982.
• A Crocodile Breeding and Management Training Institute was set up in Madras in 1980 to train managers of crocodile stations. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The gharial is listed as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List as a result of catastrophic population declines, which have seen the population decline by up to 98% since the 1940s. There are now though to be fewer than 250 adult individuals remaining in the wild. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse ecosystems). Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem.
• Other examples are grassland (between forest and desert), estuary (between fresh water and salt water) and riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• It may be narrow (between grassland and forest) or wide (between forest and desert).
• It has conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
• Usually, the number and the population density of the species of an outgoing community decreases as we move away from the community or ecosystem.
• A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms which are entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
• Ecotone regions like mangroves, wetlands, estuaries etc have far greater productivity than natural ecosystem like a forest ecosystem, ocean ecosystem, pond ecosystem, riverine ecosystem etc.
  • This is because of the wide-ranging species from the adjacent ecosystem being present in the ecotone.
• Edge effect:
  • Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone).
  • Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called edge effect.
  • The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species. In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds. For example, the density of birds is greater in the ecotone between the forest and the desert.

• As genetic research becomes more sophisticated, so does our ability to use plants and animals to develop new drugs or modify crops to meet food security needs.
• Often, in the search for new bioresources, researchers draw on local people’s traditional knowledge about the properties of a particular plant, animal or chemical compound. When researchers use traditional knowledge without permission, or exploits the cultures they’re drawing from – it’s called biopiracy.
• Biopiracy happens when researchers or research organisations take biological resources without official sanction, largely from less affluent countries or marginalised people.
• Biopiracy is not limited to drug development. It also occurs in agricultural and industrial contexts. Indian products such as the neem tree, tamarind, turmeric, and Darjeeling tea have all been patented by foreign firms for different lucrative purposes.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Located in the Himalayan foothills in western Assam, Manas was originally a game reserve since 1928 and became a Tiger Reserve in 1974, a World Heritage Site in 1985, and a Biosphere Reserve in 1989 then was declared as a National Park in 1990. The park is contiguous with the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal, and in 2003 it was declared part of the Chirang-Ripu Elephant Reserve which serves as the international corridor for elephant migration between India and Bhutan. The Manas river flows through the west of the park and is the main river within it.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Panna National Park is located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It was declared as a National Park in the year of 1981. The park is known worldwide for its wildlife including tigers, deer, antelope, vultures, wolves, Chinkara, Cheetal and lots more. Ken River flows through this reserve and creates beautiful waterfalls on its way to the valley. The biodiversity in this national park is extremely rich.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Papikonda National Park spreads over 1012.86 square kilometres in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. The park lies on the left and right banks of the river Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats. The River Godavari enriches Papikonda Park with its natural beauty. The majority of the area of the park is covered with moist deciduous forest and include animal species such as tigers, mouse deer, gaur etc.
• Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Silent Valley National Park is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2, which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2. This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. It is a beautiful representation of the last remaining rainforest of Kerala. Silent Valley is home to the largest population of Lion-tailed macaques, an endangered of primate. Kuntipuzha River divides the park into a narrow eastern sector of width 2 kilometres and a wide western sector of 5 kilometres. The river is characterized by its crystal clear water and perennial nature.

• In July 2005, at the initiative of the United States, G-8 Leaders recognized the devastating effects of illegal logging on wildlife and committed to helping countries enforce laws to combat wildlife trafficking. The United States Government launched a global Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) to focus political and public attention on the issue and facilitate action for effective wildlife law enforcement and regional cooperation.
• The Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) aims to focus public and political attention and resources on ending the illegal trade in wildlife and wildlife products. CAWT is a unique voluntary public-private coalition of like-minded governments and organizations sharing a common purpose. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Seven major U.S.-based environmental and business groups with global interests and programs have joined the Coalition: Conservation International, Save the Tiger Fund, the Smithsonian Institution, Traffic International, WildAid, Wildlife Conservation Society, and the American Forest & Paper Association. Membership of CAWT is open to Governments, NGOs and corporations committed to combating wildlife trafficking.
• The Coalition complements and reinforces existing national, regional and international efforts, including the work of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, which monitors and regulates international trade in endangered and threatened species and their derivatives. The CAWT organisation is not directly involved in any enforcement activities.
• India has become a member of the US-led Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) in 2006. India and United States have been collaborating in the area of wildlife conservation. India has joined the CAWT in coherence with its national legislation as well as the International Conventions to which it is a party. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• While many different types of trash enter the ocean, plastics make up the majority of marine debris for two reasons. 
• First, plastic’s durability, low cost, and malleability mean that it’s being used in more and more consumer and industrial products. Second, plastic goods do not biodegrade but instead, break down into smaller pieces.
• In the ocean, the sun breaks down these plastics into tinier and tinier pieces, a process known as photodegradation. Most of this debris comes from plastic bags, bottle caps, plastic water bottles, and Styrofoam cups.
• Marine debris can be very harmful to marine life in the gyre. For instance, loggerhead sea turtles often mistake plastic bags for jellies, their favourite food. Albatrosses mistake plastic resin pellets for fish eggs and feed them to chicks, which die of starvation or ruptured organs.
• Seals and other marine mammals are especially at risk. They can get entangled in abandoned plastic fishing nets, which are being discarded largely due to inclement weather and illegal fishing. Seals and other mammals often drown in these forgotten nets—a phenomenon known as “ghost fishing.” Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Other fishing types --Bottom fishing is angling with heavy weight at the bottom of water. It can be done from boats and from the land and its aim is catching the fish that lives at the bottom.-Kite fishing is using kites to carry line and fishhook to the places that are not easily reachable. It was invented in China and it is still used on New Guinea and other Pacific Islands.- Fly fishing uses artificial flies as lures with specially constructed fly rods and fly lines. Artificial flies are usually hand made in variety of shapes.

• A mass extinction event is when species vanish much faster than they are replaced. This is usually defined as about 75% of the world's species being lost in a 'short' amount of geological time - less than 2.8 million years.
• Five great mass extinctions have changed the face of life on Earth. We know what caused some of them, but others remain a mystery.
  • The Ordovician-Silurian mass extinction occurred 443 million years ago and wiped out approximately 85% of all species. Scientists think it was caused by temperatures plummeting and huge glaciers forming, which caused sea levels to drop dramatically. This was followed by a period of rapid warming. Many small marine creatures died out.
  • The Devonian mass extinction event took place 383 million years ago and killed about three- quarters of the world's species, most of which were marine invertebrates that lived at the bottom of the sea. This was a period of many environmental changes, including global warming and cooling, a rise and fall of sea levels and a reduction in oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. We don't know exactly what triggered the extinction event.
  • The Permian - Triassic mass extinction, which happened 250 million years ago, was the largest and most devastating event of the five. Also known as the Great Dying, it eradicated more than 96% of all marine species and about three of every four species on land died out. The world’s forests were wiped out and didn’t come back in force until about 10 million years later. Of the five mass extinctions, the Permian-Triassic is the only one that wiped out large numbers of insect species. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • The Triassic mass extinction event took place 200 million years ago, eliminating about 80% of Earth's species, including many types of dinosaurs. This was probably caused by colossal geological activity that increased carbon dioxide levels and global temperatures, as well as ocean acidification.
  • The Cretaceous mass extinction event occurred 65 million years ago, killing 78% of all species, including the remaining non-avian dinosaurs. This was most likely caused by an asteroid hitting the Earth in what is now Mexico, potentially compounded by ongoing flood volcanism in what is now India.

• The Forest (Conservation) Act, (FCA) 1980, came into force to address deforestation. While States had already notified forest land, the FCA made it necessary to get the Centre’s permission for using such forest land for “non-forestry purposes” and the creation of an advisory committee to recommend such re-classification. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Till 1996, State Governments, Union Territory Administrations and Central Government used to apply the provisions of the Act only to the forests notified under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or any other local law, and to forests which were under the management or control of the Forest Department.
• However, what constituted a “forest” was dramatically expanded following a Supreme Court judgment in a petition filed by the late Godavarman Thirumulpad. Now, “forest” also included all areas recorded as “forest” in any government record, irrespective of ownership, recognition and classification; all areas that conformed to the “dictionary” meaning of “forest”, and all areas which are identified as “forest” by an expert committee constituted by the Supreme Court following the 1996 order. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has recently released a consultation paper on the proposed amendments in Forest Conservation Act, 1980 with reference to the amendments made in 1988 in this Act.

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it under the said Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NTCA has been fulfilling its mandate within the ambit of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for strengthening tiger conservation in the country by retaining an oversight through advisories/normative guidelines, based on appraisal of tiger status, ongoing conservation initiatives and recommendations of specially constituted Committees.
• The objectives of NTCA are:
  • Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives become legal.
  • Fostering accountability of Center-State in management of Tiger Reserves, by providing a basis for MoU with States within our federal structure.
  • Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
  • Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• As per the section 38 L, sub section 2 of the said Act, the authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• In India, Forest land can be diverted for non-forest purposes such as construction of dams, mining and other developmental activities only if the government permits.
• Since this diversion of forest land results in loss of biodiversity which in turn affects wildlife as well as geographical parameters such as climate and terrain, compensatory afforestation is also mandated under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 that an equivalent area of non-forest land has to be taken up for compensatory afforestation. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• In addition to this, funds for raising the forest are also to be imposed on whomsoever is undertaking the diversion. The land chosen for afforestation, if viable, must be in close proximity of reserved or protected forest for ease of management by forest department.
• Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act seeks to provide an appropriate institutional mechanism, both at the Centre and in each State and Union Territory, to ensure expeditious utilization in efficient and transparent manner of amounts released in lieu of forest land diverted for non-forest purpose which would mitigate impact of diversion of such forest land.

• United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) was established in 2000 as a subsidiary body to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (UNECOSOC) to facilitate the implementation of the forest principles laid down at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The aim of the UN Forum on Forests as a high-level UN body is focusing on the issues of international forest policy is mandated to promote the management, conservation and sustainable development of all types of forests and to strengthen long-term political commitment to this end. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Forum is headquartered in New York and has universal and equal membership composed of all member states of the United Nations and its specialized agencies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• UNFF adopted the United Nations Forest Instrument, which provides countries with a framework for promoting sustainable forest management. The Instrument articulates a series of agreed policies and measures at the international and national levels to strengthen forest governance, technical and institutional capacity, policy and legal frameworks, forest sector investment and stakeholder participation.

• Tropospheric pollution occurs due to the presence of undesirable solid or gaseous particles in the air. The following are the major gaseous and particulate pollutants present in the troposphere: o Gaseous air pollutants: These are oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon, hydrogen sulphide, hydrocarbons, ozone and other oxidants. o Particulate pollutants: These are dust, mist, fumes, smoke, smog etc. 
• Oxides of Sulphur: Oxides of sulphur are produced when sulphur-containing fossil fuel is burnt. The most common species, sulphur dioxide, is a gas that is poisonous to both animals and plants.
• It has been reported that even a low concentration of sulphur dioxide causes respiratory diseases e.g., asthma, bronchitis, emphysema in human beings.
• Uncatalysed oxidation of sulphur dioxide is slow. However, the presence of particulate matter in polluted air catalyses the oxidation of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  2SO₂ (g) +O₂ (g) → 2SO₃(g) The reaction can also be promoted by ozone and hydrogen peroxide.
  SO₂ (g) +O₃ (g) → SO₃(g) + O₂ (g)SO₂(g) + H₂O₂(l) → H₂SO₄(aq)
• Oxides of Nitrogen: Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of air. These gases do not react with each other at a normal temperature. At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they combine to form oxides of nitrogen. NO₂ is oxidised to nitrate ion, NO₃ − which is washed into soil, where it serves as a fertilizer.
• Rate of production of NO₂ is faster when nitric oxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
  NO (g) + O₃ (g) → NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
  The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen.
• Higher concentrations of NO₂ damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living tissues also. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibres and metals.
• Carbon monoxide (CO) is one of the most serious air pollutants. It is a colourless and odourless gas, highly poisonous to living beings because of its ability to block the delivery of oxygen to the organs and tissues.
• It is produced as a result of incomplete combustion of carbon. It binds to haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, which is about 300 times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.
• In blood, when the concentration of carboxyhaemoglobin reaches about 3–4 per cent, the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is greatly reduced. This oxygen deficiency, results into headache, weak eyesight, nervousness and cardiovascular disorder. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Option b is correct:
Amphibians are small vertebrates that need water, or a moist environment, to survive.

• The species in this group include frogs, toads, salamanders, caecilians and newts. All can breathe and absorb water through their very thin skin.
• Snakes and Turtles are reptiles

• The cold deserts of the Himalayas are dotted with the bright red berries of the seabuckthorn plant, popularly known as Leh berries. It is also referred to as sandthorn, sallowthorn, or seaberry. It produces orange-yellow berries, which have been used over centuries as food, traditional medicine, and skin treatment in Mongolia, Russia, Ukraine, and northern Europe, which are its origin regions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests and the Defence Research and Development Organisation have launched a major national initiative for seabuckthorn cultivation in the high-altitude, cold desert ecosystems.
• The Seabuckthorn, also called the “Wonder plant” and “Ladakh gold” has multi-purpose medicinal and nutritional properties, and also helps in soil conservation and nitrogen fixation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Hardy, drought-resistant and tolerant to extreme temperatures from – 43^o C to + 40^o C, the plant has an extensive root system which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, making it ideal for controlling soil erosion and preventing desertification.
• The seabuckthorn is the only fruit which contains all types of Omega acids (Omega 3, 6 and 9) as well as the rare Omega 7.
• Long considered a humble shrub of the Himalayas, every part of the plant – fruit, leaf, twig, root and thorn – has been traditionally used for medicine, nutritional supplements, fuel and fencing.

• Biodiversity, abbreviated from the terms 'biological' and 'diversity', encompasses the variety of lifeforms found at all scales of biological organisation, ranging from genes to species to ecosystems.
• The greatest biodiversity is found in the tropical regions of the world, particularly among tropical rainforests and coral reefs.
• Biodiversity is increased by genetic change and evolutionary processes and reduced by habitat destruction, population decline and extinction.
• Genetic Diversity is the diversity of genetic characteristics (expressed or recessive) within a species (i.e. between individuals and populations of the same species).
  • This component of biodiversity is important because it allows populations to adapt to environmental changes through the survival and reproduction of individuals within a population that have particular genetic characteristics that enable them to withstand these changes.
• Species Diversity is simply the number and relative abundance of species found in a given biological organisation (population, ecosystem, Earth).
  • Species are the basic units of biological classification and hence, this is the measure most commonly associated with the term 'biodiversity'. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Ecosystem Diversity can be defined as the variety of different habitats, communities and ecological processes.
  • A biological community is defined by the species that occupy a particular area and the interactions between those species. A biological community together with its associated physical environment is termed an ecosystem.

• The mountainous region of the western and eastern Himalayas is the habitat of Snow leopards in India. They are primarily found in the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Rocky outcrops and ravines provide a perfect habitat for snow leopards to conceal themselves and sneak up on the prey. Their beautiful silvery fur marked with black spots helps them camouflage against the snowline and rocks of the mountain. 
• Until 2017 the snow leopard was listed as an endangered species on the IUCN Red List. However, in 2017 the species’ status was changed to vulnerable. There are about 450-500 snow leopards in the Indian forests.
• Some of the important national parks where one can find snow leopards are:
  • Hemis National Park is the largest national park in India spanning an area of 4,400 sq km. It is also known to be the largest national park in South Asia. The park supports a viable breeding population of about 200 snow leopards.
  • Dachigam National Park is located 22 km away from the Jammu & Kashmir state capital of Srinagar. The park hosts several species of mammals including the large cat – snow leopard, Kashmir stag, hill fox, Himalayan serow and Himalayan black bear.
  • The Great Himalayan National Park is spread across 4 valleys namely, Jiwa Nal valley, Sainj Valley, Tirthan Valley and Parvati Valley. UNESCO declared it as a ‘World Heritage Site’ in the year 2014. This park is one of the best places to spot the exquisite snow leopards in India.
  • Gangotri National Park is a national park in Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand in India. Established in 1989, this high-altitude wildlife sanctuary protects indigenous fauna and fauna. Various endangered species like bharal or blue sheep, black bear, brown bear, Himalayan Monal, Himalayan snowcock, Himalayan thar, musk deer and snow leopard are found in the park. It is also a bird-watching zone. o Govind Pashu National Park s located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand and is named after a prominent Indian freedom fighter Govind Ballabh Pant. The Indian Government started the ‘Snow Leopard Project’ from this park.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem is called nutrient cycling. Another name of nutrient cycling is biogeochemical cycles (bio: living organism, geo: rocks, air, water).
• Nutrient cycles are of two types: Gaseous and Sedimentary.
  • The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Environmental factors, e.g., soil, moisture, pH, temperature, etc., regulate the rate of release of nutrients into the atmosphere.
• Most gaseous cycles are generally considered perfect cycles because in sedimentary cycles, some nutrients are lost from the cycle and get locked into sediments, and so become unavailable for immediate cycling. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle (unlike carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen), the atmosphere is not a reservoir for phosphorous nor do microorganisms fix phosphorus as they do nitrogen. Phosphorus enters the biosphere almost entirely from the soil through absorption by plant roots. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Speciation is how a new kind of plant or animal species is created.
• There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
  • Allopatric speciation:
    •  It occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Peripatric speciation:
    • When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing them from the others.
  • Parapatric speciation:
    • In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
  • Sympatric Speciation:
    • Sympatric speciation is controversial. Some scientists don’t believe it exists.
    • It occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
  • Artificial Speciation:
    • Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.

• Selective catalytic reduction (SCR)-It is currently the most widely applied technology in which Ammonia is used as a reducing agent to convert NOx to nitrogen in the presence of a catalyst in a converter.
• The catalyst is usually a mixture of titanium dioxide, vanadium pentoxide, and tungsten trioxide. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. SCR can remove 60–90% of NOx from flue gases. 
• The process is very expensive and the associated ammonia injection results in an ammonia slipstream in the exhaust.

• Arsenic is a natural component of the earth’s crust and is widely distributed throughout the environment in the air, water and land. It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
• People are exposed to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic through drinking contaminated water, using contaminated water in food preparation and irrigation of food crops, industrial processes, eating contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
• Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic, mainly through drinking water and food, can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning. Skin lesions and skin cancer are the most characteristic effects.
• Arsenic doesn’t have a taste or odor and one can be exposed to it without knowing.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Health effects
  • The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) has classified arsenic and arsenic compounds as carcinogenic to humans.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct
  • The immediate symptoms of acute arsenic poisoning include vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. These are followed by numbness and tingling of the extremities, muscle cramping and death, in extreme cases.
  • The first symptoms of long-term exposure to high levels of inorganic arsenic (for example, through drinking water and food) are usually observed in the skin and include pigmentation changes, skin lesions and hard patches on the palms and soles of the feet (hyperkeratosis). These occur after a minimum exposure of approximately five years.
• As per Central Water Commission (CWC), the most common heavy metal pollutant found in India's rivers is iron.
• Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• The International Standards for drinking water are given below and they must be followed.
• Fluoride: For drinking purposes, water should be tested for fluoride ion concentration. Its deficiency in drinking water is harmful to man and causes diseases such as tooth decay etc.
• Soluble fluoride is often added to drinking water to bring its concentration up to 1 ppm or 1 mg dm–3. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The F– ions make the enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite, [3(Ca₃(PO₄)₂.Ca(OH)₂], the enamel on the surface of the teeth, into much harder fluorapatite, [3(Ca₃(PO₄)₂.CaF₂]. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• However, F– ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of teeth. At the same time, excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) causes harmful effects to bones and teeth, as reported from some parts of Rajasthan.
• Nitrate: The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 ppm. Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause diseases such as methemoglobinemia (‘blue baby’ syndrome). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Lead: Drinking water gets contaminated with lead when lead pipes are used for the transportation of water. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is about 50 ppb. Lead can damage kidney, liver, reproductive system etc.
• Sulphate: Excessive sulphate (>500 ppm) in drinking water causes the laxative effect, otherwise at moderate levels it is harmless.

Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
What is an Ozone Layer?

• The ozone layer is a trace gas in the stratosphere, one of the four layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. It is found between 15 to 35 kilometers above Earth.
• Ozone creation: Ozone is composed of three atoms of Oxygen.The production of ozone in the stratosphere results primarily from the breaking of the chemical bonds within oxygen molecules (O2) by high-energy solar photons. This process, called photodissociation, results in the release of single oxygen atoms, which later join with intact oxygen molecules to form ozone.
• Significance: It functions as a protective gas shield that absorbs ultraviolet radiation, protecting humans and ecosystems from dangerous amounts of UV radiation causing skin cancers. The Montreal Protocol
• History: The Montreal Protocol was adopted in 1987  to protect the ozone layer. The Protocol is to date one of the rare treaties to achieve universal ratification.
• Objective: The landmark multilateral environmental agreement regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).
• The substances controlled by the treaty are listed in Annexes A (CFCs, halons), B (other fully halogenated CFCs, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform), C (HCFCs), E (methyl bromide), and F (HFCs).

• Dibru-Saikhowa is a National Park as well as a Biosphere Reserve situated in the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in the extreme east of Assam state in India. Dibru-Saikhowa, with an area of 340 sq km, is among the most vibrant wildness on earth and is also distinct for its pristine scenic beauty. Situated in the flood plain of Brahmaputra, Dibru-saikhowa is a safe haven for many extremely rare and endangered species of Wildlife.
• It is located at the confluence where three of India's eastern-most rivers, Siang, Dibang and Lohit, meet the mighty Brahmaputra river at a unique tri-junction near the borders of upper Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• This park is a complex of wetlands, grasslands, littoral swamps and semi-evergreen forests, including the largest salix swamp forest in Northeast India. The Park is renowned for natural regeneration of Salix trees.
• Famed for Ferral horses, species of mammals have so far been recorded from the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park. It is an identified Important Bird Area (IBA) having more than 382 species of Birds, some of which are Greater Adjutant Stork, Lesser Adjutant Stork etc.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD)- Flue gas is the gas exiting the atmosphere via a flue, which is a pipe or channel for conveying exhaust gases from a fireplace, oven, furnace, boiler or steam generator. Quite often, flue gas refers to the combustion exhaust gas produced at power plants.
• It is a set of technologies used to remove SO2 from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants. It does not use Ammonia as a reducing agent. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• This is accomplished through either a wet or a dry process. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Dry FGD: In the process of dry scrubbing injection systems, lime is used as a reagent to react and remove gaseous pollutants.
  • A dry injection process injects dry hydrated lime directly into the flue gas duct. o It yields a dry final product, collected in particulate control devices for further treatment.
  • Wet FGD: A shower of lime slurry is sprayed into a flue gas scrubber, where the SO2 is absorbed into the spray and becomes a wet calcium sulfite and wastewater.
  • FGD wastewater can be effectively and efficiently treated using large filter presses or large vacuum belt filters for very large sludge production. Cement manufacture, construction of structural fills, and agricultural applications each utilize significant volumes of FGD products. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Ammonia is used as a reducing agent in Selective catalytic reduction (SCR) • Other pollution control technologies -
• Selective non-catalytic reduction (SNCR)
  • In the SNCR process a reagent, i.e., urea, ammonium hydroxide, anhydrous ammonia, or aqueous ammonia, is injected into flue gases in the furnace within the appropriate temperature zone.
• The NOx and the reagent (urea, etc.) react to form N₂ and H₂O and do not require a catalyst.Electrostatic precipitator - An electrostatic precipitator is a filtration device that removes fine particles, like dust and smoke, from a flowing gas using the force of an induced electrostatic charge minimally impeding the flow of gases through the unit.

• In ecology, the term “niche” describes the role an organism plays in a community. o It is the unique functional role and position of a species in its habitat or ecosystem.
  • No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • A species’ niche encompasses both the physical and environmental conditions it requires (like temperature or terrain) and the interactions it has with other species (like predation or competition). Ecological niches are found in all types of ecosystems.
  • It plays an essential role in the conservation of organisms. If we have to conserve species in their native habitat, we should know the niche requirements of the species.
• Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp boundary between the two in terms of species composition. 
  • The ecocline concept was used by vegetation ecologists describing ecological gradients, both spatial continua and time-series, eg. Wetland. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• An ecotype is a population (or subspecies or race) that is adapted to local environmental conditions. Thus, the adaptations of these ecotypes are based on the interactions of their own special sets of genes with their own environment. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• The President of India recently presented four Padma Vibhushan, eight Padma Bhushan and sixty-one Padma Shri Awards for the year 2020, at the Civil Investiture Ceremony-I held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in 1954. The latter had three classes namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg.
• These were subsequently renamed Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri vide Presidential Notification issued on January 8, 1955.
• Padma Awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher-order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service). The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
• While the Padma Vibhushan is the highest civilian award after the Bharat Ratna. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
• The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes Home Secretary, Secretary to the President and four to six eminent persons as members.
• The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. • Even self-nomination can be made. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
• However, Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these awards. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) is a defined area of 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal to protect the monument from pollution. The Supreme Court of India delivered a ruling on December 30, 1996, regarding industries covered under the TTZ, in response to a PIL seeking to protect the Taj Mahal from environmental pollution.
• It banned the use of coal/ coke in industries located in the TTZ with a mandate for switching over from coal/ coke to natural gas, and relocating them outside the TTZ or shutting down.
• The Central Government in the exercise of the powers conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has constituted the Taj Trapezium Zone Pollution (Prevention and Control) authority in 1998. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The TTZ comprises monuments including three World Heritage Sites the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri. TTZ is so named since it is located around the Taj Mahal and is shaped like a trapezoid. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The geographical limits of the Taj Trapezium Zone is defined in the shape of a trapezoid lying in the Agra Division of the State of Uttar Pradesh and in the Bharatpur Division of the State of Rajasthan.

• Whenever forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes, it is mandatory under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 that an equivalent area of non-forest land has to be taken up for compensatory afforestation. In addition to this, funds for raising the forest are also to be imposed on whomsoever is undertaking the diversion. The land was chosen for afforestation, if viable, must be in close proximity of reserved or protected forest for ease of management by the forest department.
• Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 came into force on 30 September 2018. The Act established a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. The payments made for compensatory afforestation, net present value and others related to the project will be deposited in the fund. The State Funds will receive 90% of the payments while National Fund will receive the remaining 10%. These funds will be regulated by State and National CAMPA. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Rules were notified in August 2018. Hence statement 1 is not correct
• In April 2019, the Ministry of Environment notified that states which have forest land of more than 75% of their geographical area need not provide non-forest land for compensatory afforestation. Instead, land can be taken up in states with lesser forest cover. Further, it was also notified that the minimum area of compensatory land should be five hectares if the land is not contiguous to a forest. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Convention on Long-Range Transboundary Air Pollution (LRTAP) is the only legally binding international instrument aimed at addressing criteria air pollutants. It entered into force in 1983 and has since been amended by eight protocols. These include protocols on sulphur dioxide (1985 Helsinki and 1994 Oslo Protocols), nitrogen oxides (1988 Sofia Protocol), heavy metals, persistent organic pollutants and funding for the scientific work of the Convention.
• The 1985 Helsinki Protocol aims at the Reduction of Sulphur Emissions or their Transboundary Fluxes by at least 30 per cent. Under this, the Parties shall reduce their national annual sulphur emissions or their transboundary fluxes by at least 30 per cent as soon as possible by 1993, using 1980 levels as the basis for calculation of reductions. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The Protocol concerning the Control of Emissions of Nitrogen Oxides or their Transboundary Fluxes was adopted in Sofia in 1988. The Protocol requires Parties to control or reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides. The general reference year is 1987 (with the exception of the United States that chose to relate its emission target to 1978). Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• The Protocol concerning the Control of Emissions of Volatile Organic Compounds or their Transboundary Fluxes was adopted in Geneva (Switzerland) on 18 November 1991. It targets the reduction of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), a major air pollutant responsible for the formation of ground-level ozone. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Permafrost refers to any ground that stays entirely frozen—at or below 32°F (0°C)—for a minimum of two consecutive years.
  • These permanently frozen grounds are typically found in areas with high mountains and at Earth’s higher latitudes, near the North and South Poles.
• Statement 2 is correct: Permafrost consists of a mix of soil, rocks, and sand bound together by ice.
  • Both the soil and ice in permafrost remain frozen throughout the year.