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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 1

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mangroves?

  1. Mangrove plants have Pneumatophores roots which help to enhance deposition of sediment in area.
  2. Mangroves grow in areas with low- oxygen soil.
  3. They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pneumatophores help in obtaining oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate.
  • Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone.
  • Mangroves grow in areas with lowoxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate.
  • Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
  • They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud.
  • The Sundarbans delta is the largest mangrove forest in the world and is intersected by a complex network of tidal waterways, mudflats and small islands of salt-tolerant mangrove forests. It lies at the mouth of the Ganges.
  • Mangroves have breathing roots also called aerial roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air.
  • The mangrove mud is rather anaerobic (oxygen poor) and unstable and different plants have root adaptations to cope with these conditions.
  • Pneumatophores - Pneumatophores are erect roots that are some form of upward extension of the underground root system. 
  • Because these roots are exposed at least part of the day and not submerged underwater, the root system can obtain oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate. Pneumatophores also accumulate sediments in protected sites and form mangrove peats.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about E-Shram Portal:

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. It is a registration portal for unorganized workers.
  3. Registration on this portal is paid with a nominal charge of ₹50.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 2
  • The Ministry of Labour & Employment has launched e-SHRAM portal, a National Database of the Unorganised Workers on 26th August, 2021.
  • The e-Shram portal is a centralized database that helps to implement social security services for unorganized workers.
  • It also helps to share information with stakeholders and provide a comprehensive database for national crises.
  • The portal uses Aadhaar to deliver social security benefits and ensure that the benefits are portable to migrant and construction workers at their workplaces.
  • Registration on portal is free.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 3

With reference to the Ring of Fire, consider the following statements:

  1. The Ring of Fire is a region characterized by high volcanic activity but no seismic activity.
  2. The Ring of Fire is primarily located in the Indian Ocean and is home to numerous coral reefs.
  3. It is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic plate movements.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 3
  • Only statement 3 is correct.
  • The Ring of Fire is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to the movement of tectonic plates. It is where several tectonic plates meet, resulting in significant geological activity, including the formation of volcanoes and seismic events.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about the Strait of Gibraltar:

  1. It is one of the narrowest straits in the world.
  2. It separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Mediterranean Sea.
  3. It was formed as a result of volcanic activity in the last 100 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 4

Let's analyze each statement about the Strait of Gibraltar:

1. It is one of the narrowest straits in the world.
   - This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar is indeed one of the narrowest straits, with a width of about 13 kilometers (8 miles) at its narrowest point.

2. It separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Mediterranean Sea.
   - This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Europe (Spain) from Africa (Morocco).

3. It was formed as a result of volcanic activity in the last 100 years.
   - This is false. The Strait of Gibraltar was not formed by volcanic activity, nor was it formed in the last 100 years. It is a much older geological feature, formed millions of years ago due to tectonic processes.

Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.

The correct answer is:

2. Only two

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 5

Consider the following freedom fighters:

  1. Ram Prasad Bismil
  2. Ashfaqulla Khan
  3. Sachindra Nath Bakshi
  4. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

How many among the above were the founders of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 5
  • The HRA was founded by a group of young men who were disillusioned by Gandhi’s tactics and what they felt was zealous preaching of “non-violence.”
  • Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan, both of whom had a flair for poetry, were among the group’s founders. Others included Sachindra Nath Bakshi and trade unionist Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. Figures such as Chandra Shekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh would also join the HRA. Their manifesto released on January 1, 1925, was titled Krantikari (Revolutionary).
  • It proclaimed, “The immediate object of the revolutionary party in the domain of politics is to establish a federal Republic of United States of India by an organized and armed revolution.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about the BhashaNet portal:

  1. It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
  2. It provides an ecosystem to enable citizens to easily create, communicate, transact, process and retrieve information with ease in digital medium without language barrier.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 6
  • Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) have launched the BhashaNet portal during the Universal Acceptance Day event with support from the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
  • It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
  • Universal Acceptance (UA) is a technical requirement that ensures that all domain names, email addresses, and top-level domains (TLDs) are treated equally.
  • This means that all UA domain names can be used by any internet-enabled device, application, or system, regardless of script, language, or character length.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 7

Consider the following:

  1. 3D printing
  2. Quantum computing
  3. Detection of contamination of food

How many of the areas/fields mentioned above is nanotechnology used?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 7
  • Both 3D printing and nanotechnology often join forces to provide novel structures and application methods. Nanomaterials are utilized to enhance the features of printed materials such as electrical conductivity and sensing properties while 3D printing technologies are utilized to obtain nanosized structures that are not feasible by any other method.
  • The convergence of nanotechnology and quantum science is rapidly expanding and proving to be mutually beneficial to both fields. Quantum nanoscience is a vital research area that intersects nanoscale science and quantum science, providing essential insights for developing nanotechnologies. It leverages quantum mechanics to explore and exploit coherent quantum effects in engineered nanostructures, offering possibilities for new nanodevices and nanoscale materials. Nanoscale materials and devices are used for quantum metrology and sensing, building blocks for quantum computing, and sources and detectors for quantum communication. They enable investigations into quantum behavior and unconventional states in nano- and opto-mechanical systems, low-dimensional systems, molecular devices, nano-plasmonics, quantum electrodynamics, scanning tunneling microscopy, and more.
  • The benefits of nanotechnology for the food industry are many and are expected to grow with time. This new, rapidly developing technology impacts every aspect of the food system from cultivation to food production to processing, packaging, transportation, shelf life and bioavailability of nutrients.
  • Nanomaterials are used as sensors to detect contamination and regulate the food environment. They can detect microbial and other food contaminants. Therefore, they are used as sensors in food production and at packaging plants. They can monitor the condition of food during transport and storage. They can detect nutrient deficiency in edible plants, and dispensers containing nutrients can deliver them to plants when needed. Therefore, nanomaterials can be used as nanosensors and nanotracers with almost unlimited potential by the food industry. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Other applications of nanotechnology include:
    • Nanoscale additives to or surface treatments of fabrics can provide lightweight ballistic energy deflection in personal body armor or can help them resist wrinkling, staining, and bacterial growth.
    • Clear nanoscale films on eyeglasses, computer and camera displays, windows, and other surfaces can make them water- and residue-repellent, antireflective, self-cleaning, resistant to ultraviolet or infrared light, antifog, antimicrobial, scratch-resistant, or electrically conductive.
    • Nanoscale materials are beginning to enable washable, durable “smart fabrics” equipped with flexible nanoscale sensors and electronics with capabilities for health monitoring, solar energy capture, and energy harvesting through movement.
    • Lightweighting of cars, trucks, airplanes, boats, and spacecraft could lead to significant fuel savings. Nanoscale additives in polymer composite materials are being used in baseball bats, tennis rackets, bicycles, motorcycle helmets, automobile parts, luggage, and power tool housings, making them lightweight, stiff, durable, and resilient.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 8

We feel burning pain when stung by Ant. Which of the following acid is responsible for the burning pain?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 8

Formic acid or Methanoic Acid is present in a natural state in stinging nettles and is responsible for the burning pain in contact with them. It is also found in the stings and bites of many insects, including bees and ants, which use it as a chemical defence mechanism. When the ant contracts its poison gland, the formic acid stored in this gland passes in the sting and is propelled out in jets (up to a distance of one meter in some species!) toward the attackers of the ant. Since formic acid has a pH of ~2-3, the attackers usually flee or are killed. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. Predictable environment
  2. The complex relationship amongst species
  3. Niche similarity amongst species
  4. More insolation

How many of the above can enhance the biodiversity of the Earth?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 9

Biodiversity

  • Some important reasons that influence the pattern of Biodiversity are as follows:
    • Speciation which is needed for species diversification
    • A relatively more constant and predictable environment that promotes niche specialization and lead to greater species diversity.
    • More insolation contributes to higher productivity, in turn, contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
    • The more complex ecosystem provides more food web i.e. many entry points for any organism. This, in turn, sustains the greater biodiversity.
  • Niche similarity is not good, promotes high competition and leads to loss of biodiversity.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs:  
Technologies : Used for

  1. Gravitational settling : To control air pollution
  2. Phytoremediation : To control noise pollution
  3. Electrostatic precipitators : To control water pollution

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 10
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gravitational settling is used to control air pollution. It is used to remove large diameter suspended particles from a gas by using gravitational force.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Phytoremediation is used to control soil pollution. It uses microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to damage the environment into less toxic form. The microorganisms may be native to the polluted area or they may be invasive.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Electrostatic precipitators are the control measure of air pollution. Works on the principle of electrostatic precipitation, in which electrically charged particulates existing in the polluted gas are isolated from the gas stream under the influence of electrical field.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 11

The Indian Constituent Assembly played a pivotal role in shaping the Constitution of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding member of drafting committee?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

Important Personalities:

  • The Indian Constituent Assembly, through its composition, inclusive representation, and key debates, created a Constitution that reflects the aspirations and values of a diverse nation. The Constitution has provided a strong foundation for India’s democracy, upholding fundamental rights, ensuring social justice, and promoting the welfare of its citizens.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. He played a crucial role in drafting the Constitution and advocating for the rights of marginalized communities. His efforts were instrumental in incorporating provisions related to social justice and equality.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru: As the first Prime Minister of India, Nehru played an influential role in shaping the Constitution. He emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly. His leadership and guidance ensured smooth proceedings and maintained the integrity of the assembly.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Known as the “Iron Man of India,” Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union. His efforts in securing national unity and territorial integrity were essential during the framing of the Constitution.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 12

With reference to the Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. They are voluntary agencies, monitored by the State Legal Aid and Advice Boards.
2. It provides for setting up of Legal Services Authorities at the Central, State and District levels.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 12

Lok Adalats

  • Lok Adalats which are voluntary agencies is monitored by the State Legal Aid and Advice Boards. They have proved to be a successful alternative forum for resolving of disputes through the conciliatory method.
  • The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides statutory status to the legal aid movement and it also provides for setting up of Legal Services Authorities at the Central, State and District levels.
  • These authorities will have their own funds. Further, Lok Adalats which are at present informal agencies will acquire statutory status.
  • Every award of Lok Adalats shall be deemed to be a decree of a civil court or order of a Tribunal and shall be fi nal and binding on the parties to the dispute. 
  • It also provides that in respect of cases decided at a Lok Adalat, the court fee paid by the parties will be refunded.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 13

With reference to the external trade routes in Post-Mauryan period, consider the following:

  1. Kalyana
  2. Sopara
  3. Muziris
  4. Arikamedu

How many of the above were the important ports on the western coast of India ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 13
  • As regards external trade routes, after the discovery of monsoons by Hippatus a Greek navigator in 45 AD, more and more sea voyages were used for trading purposes. Important ports of India on the western coast were (from north to south direction) Bharukachchha Sopara, Kalyana, Muziris, etc. Ships from these ports sailed to the Roman Empire through the Red Sea. Hence, Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Trade with southeast Asia was conducted through the sea. Prominent ports on the eastern coast of India were Tamralipti (West Bengal), Arikamedu (Tamil Nadu Coast) etc. Sea trade was also conducted between Bharukachchha and the ports of Southeast Asia. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

1. Election Commission is the only electoral management body (EMB) in India.
2. As per the independent model of electoral management, members of Electoral management bodies (EMBs) are not accountable to any government ministry or department.
3. A national population or statistics bureau that produces electoral registers as part of the general process of population registration is not considered to be an EMB.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 14

Election Commission as an Electoral management Body

  • An EMB is an organization or body that has the sole purpose of, and is legally responsible for, managing some or all of the elements that are essential for the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments—such as referendums, citizens’ initiatives and recall votes—if those are part of the legal framework. These essential (or core) elements include:
    • determining who is eligible to vote;
    • receiving and validating the nominations of electoral participants (for elections, political parties and/or candidates);
    • conducting polling;
    • counting the votes; and
    • Tabulating the votes.
  • If these essential elements are allocated to various bodies, then all bodies that share these responsibilities can be considered EMBs. An EMB may be a stand- alone institution, or a distinct management unit within a larger institution that may also have non-electoral tasks.
  • In addition to these essential elements, an EMB may undertake other tasks that assist in the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments, such as voter registration, boundary delimitation, voter education and information, media monitoring and electoral dispute resolution. However, a body that has no electoral responsibilities other than, for example, boundary delimitation (such as a boundary delimitation commission), electoral dispute resolution (such as an electoral court), election media monitoring (such as a media monitoring commission), or the conduct of voter education and information (such as a civic education commission) is not considered an EMB because it is not managing any of the essential elements identified above.
  • Similarly, a national population or statistics bureau that produces electoral registers as part of the general process of population registration is not considered to be an EMB.
  • Different EMBs may be established for different electoral processes. In Mexico and Poland, the EMBs are responsible for both presidential and parliamentary elections; in Australia, the national EMB deals with national-level elections, while state-level elections are the responsibility of separate state-level EMBs. In the United Kingdom (UK), the arrangements for the conduct of elections and referendums are separate.
  • Some bodies that are not engaged in any of the essential elements of elections may nonetheless be popularly regarded as EMBs. 
  • The US Federal Election Commission (FEC) defi nes its mission as ‘administering and enforcing federal campaign fi nance laws’. However, such institutions do not qualify as EMBs under the definition above.
  • In addition to the division of functional responsibility for different elements of the electoral process, electoral responsibilities may be divided between bodies at different levels.
  • For example, some elements of the conduct of elections may be managed by a nationallevel electoral commission, a ministry (such as the Ministry of the Interior) or a national government agency, while others are implemented by local-level commissions, regional branches of government departments or local authorities (as in Spain).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 15

Arrange the following historical events on a chronological sequence:

  1. Second Round Table Conference
  2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
  3. Karachi Resolution
  4. Execution of Bhagat Singh

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 15
  • After deliberating amongst itself for close to three weeks, and after long discussions with delegates who had returned from London's first RTC, and with other leaders representing a cross-section of political opinion, the Congress Working Committee authorized Gandhiji to initiate discussions with the Viceroy. The fortnight-long discussion culminated on 5 March 1931 in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which was variously described as a ‘truce’ and a provisional settlement.’ The Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, a procedure that was hardly popular with officialdom as it placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government.
  • The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or Delhi Pact. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier.
  • The Karachi Resolution was passed by the Indian National Congress at its 1931 Karachi session. The Session was conducted in the shadow of three major events. First, Mahatma Gandhi had just been released from prison following his Salt Satyagraha. Second, the Gandhi-Irwin pact had just been concluded which had brought the civil disobedience movement to an end. And third, the British government had, a week before the session, executed Bhagat Singh and two of his associates in connection with the Kakori Conspiracy case.The Resolution is three pages long and is mostly written in a quasi-legal style. It reiterated the Congress Party’s commitment to ‘Purna Swaraj’ or ‘complete independence’. In addition to fundamental rights which protected civil liberties, the Resolution for the first time put forward a list of socio-economic principles/rights that the Indian state had to adhere to. These included: protections for industrial workers, abolishing of child labour, free primary education and protections for agricultural labour. The Resolution also, which seems to be a Gandhian influence, prohibited intoxicating drinks and drugs.
  • Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death in the Lahore conspiracy case and ordered to be hanged on 24 March 1931. The schedule was moved forward by 11 hours and the three were hanged on 23 March 1931 at 7:30 pm in the Lahore jail.
  • Gandhiji sailed for London on 29 August 1931 to attend the Second Round Table Conference. It was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931. Nothing much was expected from the Conference for the imperialist political and financial forces, which ultimately controlled the British Government in London, were opposed to any political or economic concessions being given to India which could lead to its independence from their control. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding crowding out phenomena:
Statement-I: It is the result of an expansionary fiscal policy stance.
Statement-II: Crowding-out results in a decrease in the real interest rate in the economy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 16

Statement 2 is incorrect: Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy.
Supplementary Notes
Crowding out

  • Crowding out refers to a phenomenon where increased borrowing by the government (expansionary policy) to meet its spending needs causes a decrease in the quantity of funds that is available to meet the investment needs of the private sector .
  • Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy
  • One of the most common forms of crowding out takes place when a large government, such as that of the U.S., increases its borrowing and sets in motion a chain of events that result in the curtailing of private sector spending. The sheer scale of this type of borrowing can lead to substantial rises in the real interest rate, which has the effect of absorbing the economy’s lending capacity and of discouraging businesses from making capital investments. Companies often fund such projects in part or entirely through financing, and are now discouraged from doing so because the opportunity cost of borrowing money has risen, making traditionally profitable projects funded through loans cost-prohibitive.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Congress saw the Simon Commission as a violation of the principle of self-determination and an insult to self-respect.
  2. The anti-Simon Commission Movement immediately lead to a wider political struggle.
  3. After the Nehru Report, communalism began to grow in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 17
  • The catalyst to the new phase of the movement was provided when, in November, 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman, as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protests from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of the Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that the foreigners would discuss and decide upon India‘s fitness for self-government. In other words, this British action was seen as a violation of the principle of self-determination and a deliberate insult to the self-respect of the Indians.
  • At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission ―at every stage and in every form‖. The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress‘s decision. In fact, the Simon Commission united, at least temporarily, different groups and parties in the country.
  • As a gesture of solidarity with the nationalists, the Muslim League even accepted the principle of joint electorates, provided seats were reserved for the Muslims. All important Indian leaders and parties also tried to meet the challenge of the Simon Commission by getting together and trying to evolve an alternative scheme of constitutional reforms. Tens of conferences and joint meetings of leading political workers were held. The end result was the Nehru Report, named after its chief architect, Motilal Nehru, and finalized in August, 1928. Unfortunately, the All Party Convention, held at Calcutta in December, 1928, failed to pass the Report. Objections were raised by some of the communal-minded leaders belonging to the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League. Thus, the prospects of national unity were foiled by the communal groups. Communalism began to grow steadily after this.
  • It should also be noted that there existed a basic difference between the politics of the nationalists and the politics of the communalists. The nationalists carried on a political struggle against the alien government to win political rights and freedom for the country. This was not the case with the communalists, Hindu or Muslim. Their demands were made on the nationalists; on the other hand, they usually looked to the foreign government for support and favours. They frequently struggled against the Congress and cooperated with the government.
  • The Commission‘s arrival in India led to a powerful protest movement in which nationalist enthusiasm and unity reached new heights. On 3rd February, the day the Commission reached Bombay, an allIndia hartal was organized. Wherever the Commission went, it was greeted with hartals and black-flag demonstrations under the sloganSimon Go Back‘. The government used brutal suppression and police attacks to break the popular opposition.
  • The anti-Simon Commission Movement did not immediately lead to wider political struggle, because Gandhi, the unquestioned, though undeclared leader of the national movement, was not yet convinced that the time for struggle had come. But popular enthusiasm could not be held back for long, as the country was, once again, in a mood of struggle.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 18

The term ‘Brumbrella’ was recently seen in the news in the context of which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 18
  • Brumbrella takes its name from a large pitch covering that was used at Edgbaston from 1981 to 2001.
  • It’s the latest in the series of innovations implemented by England in the recent past as they attempt to spice up Test cricket. In this, all fielders were placed in close-catching positions, three on the offside and three on the leg, as the field setup looked like an umbrella.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 19

In the context of gravitational force and electromagnetic force, consider the following statements:

  1. While gravitational force is always attractive, electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
  2. While gravitational force is only dependent on mass, the electromagnetic force is dependent on both mass andcharge.
  3. While gravitational force is dependent upon the distance between the two bodies, the electromagnetic force is independent of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 19
  • The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
  • The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive. The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass.

Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 20

One thick woollen blanket is less warm than two thin woollen blankets joined together to same thickness. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the above phenomenon?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 20
  • There is air trapped in between the wool fibers in case of combined blankets. Hence air together with wool conducts less heat through the blanket as this air prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surroundings. Such is not the case with a single blanket.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 21

Which of the following pairs regarding the pollutants and their sources are correctly matched?

  1. Sulphur compounds : Oil Refineries
  2. Nitrogen compounds : Motor vehicle exhaust
  3. Carbon compounds : Automobile exhaust

Select the correct option using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 21

Pollutants and their sources

  • Nitrogen Compound

Source: Motor vehicle exhaust

  • Effects:
    • Irritation in eyes and lungs (NO and N2O) atmospheric reaction
    • Low productivity in plants
    • Acid rain damages material (metals and stone)
  • Sulphur compounds

Source: Power plants and refineries

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problems in humans (SO2 and H2S) volcanic eruptions
    • Loss of chlorophyll in plants (chlorosis)
    • Acid rain
  • Hydrocarbons (benzene, ethylene)

Source: Automobiles and petroleum industries

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problem
    • Cancer causing properties
  • Carbon compound (CO and CO2)

Source: Automobile exhaust, burning of wood and coal

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problems
    • Greenhouse effect
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 22

With reference to the early medieval history of India, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 22

Pair 1 is correct: Karkota (also called Karkotaka) dynasty was founded by Durlabhavardhana (Reign:598-634 AD). Durlabhavardhana won the friendship of Harshavardhana by presenting him a prized tooth-relic of the Buddha for installation in a shrine at Kanauj. The most powerful ruler of the Karkota dynasty was Lalitaditya (Reign: 724-60 AD), who is known as/for:

  • the third son of Durlabhaka alias Pratapaditya.
  • Subjugation of Yashovarman of Kannauj ( 740 AD)
  • Invasion of Karnata, then subject to a queen named Ratta.
  • Occupation of Avanti and Kamboja, conquering a portion of the Punjab.
  • Campaigns in Tukharistan (the upper Oxus valley) and Daradadesa (Dardistan, north-west of Kashmir).
  • Carrying his arms to the land of the Bhauttas (Tibetans) and advancing into the realms of Uttarakuru.
  • Founding cities of Lalitapura and Parihasapura. In the city of Parihasapura, he built temples for Brahmanical goods – Bhutesa (Shiva) and Parihasa Kesava (Vishnu). Also, in this city, he erected stone-image of Garuda and constructed a colossal figure of the Buddha.
  • Erection of an image of Mukta Svamin and the temple of Jyestha Rudra in Huskapura.
  • Building Buddhist viharas at Huskapura.
  • Construction of the Martanda temple of the Sun.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala (Reign: 750-770 AD) in Bengal; he swiftly ended the prevailing conditions of Matsyanyaya (strong devouring the weak), establishing order. Another renowned ruler of the Pala Dynasty was:

  • Dharmapala (Reign: 770- 810 AD), son and successor of Gopala, who extended Pala's rule over substantial parts of north India. An ardent Buddhist, he commissioned the construction of several Buddhist monasteries and founded the renowned University of Vikramshila.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Yashovarman (Reign: 725-752 AD), who ascended the throne of Kannauj:

  • was a reputed warrior.
  • formed an alliance with China against the Arabs.
  • was a patron of Bhababhuti (great Sanskrit litterateur).
  • was a patron of Vakpati (who wrote Gaudavaho: Prakrit poem).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 23

Which of the following statements about parthenogenesis is/are true? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 23
  • Context: Researchers genetically modified the Drosophila melanogaster fruit fly, typically a sexually reproducing species, to reproduce asexually.
  • Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction where an embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many places in south India
Statement-II : The southern part of India played an important role in the maritime trade route due to easy access to the coast.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 24
  • Statement-I is correct: In trade, the barter system was much in vogue, though coins were also in use. Roman coins circulated as bullion. The major early historic ports have evidence of Roman amphora, glassware and other materials suggesting active maritime activities. The wealth brought by the Romans and the arrival of foreign merchants is evidenced in archaeology as well as literature. Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many hoards in the Coimbatore region and in many other places in south India
  • Statement-II is correct: Long distance trade existed, and the connections with the Roman Empire and southeast Asia are evidenced at many archaeological sites. The southern part of India, because of its easy access to the coast and location in the maritime trade route connecting the East and the West, played an important role in overseas contacts.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 25

With reference to the General Elections held in 1945, consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian National Congress won a majority of seats in the Central Legislative Assembly.
  2. The Muslim League assumed power in Bengal, Punjab and Sind.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 25
  • In the elections to the central assembly in December 1945, out of 102 seats, Congress won 57, the League 30, Independents 5, Akalis 2 and Europeans 8. Congress received 91 percent of non-Muslim votes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • In the elections to the provincial assemblies, Congress won 923 of 1585 seats, including 23 of the 38 labour seats, but was defeated by the Muslim League in the Muslim seats.
  • In the NWFP, the League contested all 33 Muslim seats and won 15 of them. 19 Muslim seats were won by the Congress, and 58.75 percent of the Muslim vote went to the non-League parties.
  • In Punjab, the League gained 73 seats, with its share of the Muslim vote being 65.10 percent. The League gained 83.6 percent of the Muslim vote in Bengal. It won 76 percent of the total Muslim vote in India. This was a sharp rise from the 4.8 percent vote in its tally in 1937.
  • The elections of 1946 were a watershed. The results made it clear that the Congress represented the large masses of the country. It was equally clear, however, that the Muslim League spoke for most Muslims.
  • The Congress was to go on to form governments in the provinces of Madras, Bombay, United Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Central Provinces and Berar and NWFP. The League formed ministries in Bengal and Sind.
  • In Punjab, after the 1946 elections, some negotiations between the Muslim League and Akalis were carried out with a possible coalition in mind. This had been unsuccessful, and Akalis joined with Unionists and Congress to form a coalition ministry. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh project and the Agro-Food Atlas:

  1. The Food Atlas is a repository of diverse crops across all the 127 agro-climatic zones of India.
  2. The project depends on the diverse data sources provided by ISRO and NASA among others.
  3. The project also documents social, behavioral and cultural practices that promote and reinforce healthy dietary behaviors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh

  • Ministry of Women and Child Development along with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) announced the Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh (BPKK) in New Delhi on 18th November, 2019.
  • Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh” project has two components – Development of a Food Atlas and Documentation of promising practices for Jan-Andolan for POSHAN Abhiyaan.
  • The Agro-Food Atlas is to act as a repository of diverse crops across 127 agro-climatic zones of the country having three parts- crops currently being grown, agro-ecological conditions (soil, organic carbon content, ground water availability etc) and guidance on how a greater diversity of crops could be encouraged in a particular district or block to promote dietary diversity and nutrition.
  • The project includes diverse data sources like National Sample Survey, Agri-Census, Soil Health Cards, ISRO’s Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA’s) Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectro-Radio meter.
  • Identification of promising practices with the help of a multi-disciplinary group of experts and developments of a tool kit to disseminate best strategies for Social and Behavioural Change Communication, specifi c to population groups in those regions is also a part of it.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A member country need not to present a declaration of balance of paymentsrelated needs to make a purchase in the reserve tranche.
Reason (R): The reserve tranche is a segment of an International Monetary Fund (IMF) member country’s quota that is accessible without any fees or economic reform conditions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 27

Reserve position

  • Reserve position in the IMF is the sum of (a) the “reserve tranche,” that is, the foreign currency (including Special Drawing Rights) amounts that a member country may draw from the IMF at short notice; and (b) any indebtedness of the IMF (under a loan agreement) in the General Resources Account that is readily available to the member country, including the reporting country’s lending to the IMF under the General Arrangement to Borrow (GAB) and the New Arrangement to Borrow (NAB).
  • While a member country must present a declaration of balance of paymentsrelated need to make a purchase in the reserve tranche (reduction in reserve position), the IMF does not challenge a member’s request for reserve tranche purchases. Convertible currencies from a reserve tranche purchase may be made available within days.
  • The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing. It is accessible without any fees or economic reform conditions. A member’s reserve position in the IMF constitutes part of its reserve assets in the international investment position. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 28

With reference to the ancient Indian history, consider the following statements:

  1. Kodumanal town of Tamil Nadu was well known for bead-making industry.
  2. Tortoise shells, sapphires, silk cloth and diamonds were exported from the Malabar coast.
  3. Major trade between India and the Roman empire was through the Persian Gulf.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 28
  • Here is an excerpt from Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, composed by an anonymous Greek sailor (c. first century CE): ‘They (i.e., the traders from abroad) send large ships to the Indian markettowns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and Malabathrum (possibly cinnamon, produced in these regions). 
  • There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of coin; topaz … antimony (a mineral used as a colouring substance), coral, crude glass, copper, tin, lead … There is exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these markets … Besides this there are exported great quantities of fine pearls, ivory, silk cloth, … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires, and tortoise shells.’
  • Archaeological evidence of a bead-making industry, using precious and semi-precious stones, has been found in Kodumanal (Tamil Nadu). It is likely that the local traders brought the stones mentioned in the Periplus from sites, such as these to the coastal ports. 
  • Majority of the sea trade share between India and the Roman empire was through the Red Sea or the Erythraean Sea. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Statement-II: It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 29

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

  • Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.
  • The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court.
  • The Supreme Court, if satisfi ed that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases itself.
  • Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 30

With reference to the soil profile, consider the following pairs:
Soil Horizon : Soil Component

  1. Horizon A : Loose parent Material
  2. Horizon B : Primarily water
  3. Horizon C : Organic materials

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 30

A soil profile is a vertical cross-section of the soil from the ground surface to the underlying parent material. It is made up of layers, called horizons, that have different physical, chemical, and biological properties. The horizons are formed by the weathering of parent material, the addition of organic matter, and the movement of water and solutes through the soil.

  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Horizon A is the topsoil, and it contains organic materials incorporated with mineral matter, nutrients, and water essential for plant growth. It is not characterized by loose parent material.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Horizon B is a transition zone between Horizon A and Horizon C, containing matter derived from both above and below. It has some organic matter in it, although the mineral matter is noticeably weathered. It does not primarily consist of water.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Horizon C’ is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is the first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms the above two layers.

Underneath these three horizons is the rock which is also known as the parent rock or the bedrock.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 31

With respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements:

1. The idea of incorporating Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution originated from the Irish Constitution.
2. The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 31

Evolution and Sources of the Directive Principles of State Policy

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
  • These provisions, contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS):

  1. Compulsory licensing as one of the flexibilities in the field of patent protection was agreed upon in the WTO Doha Declaration in 2001.
  2. Compulsory licensing waves off the rights of the patent owner on the product.
  3. The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.  

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 32

Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)

  • WTO is a 164-member multilateral body which formulates rules for global exports and imports and adjudicates disputes between two or more than two countries on trade-related issues.
  • India recently sent a letter to the General Council Chair to hold a virtual ministerial meeting on the response of WTO (World Trade Organisation) to the pandemic, including the proposal to waive certain provisions of the TRIPS agreement for COVID-19-related vaccines, therapeutics, and diagnostics.
  • TRIPs came into effect in January 1995.
  • It is a multilateral agreement on intellectual property (IP) rights such as copyright, industrial designs, patents and protection of undisclosed information or trade secrets.
  • Compulsory licensing is one of the flexibilities in the field of patent protection agreed upon in the WTO Doha Declaration on the TRIPS Agreement and Public Health, in 2001.
  • Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patentprotected invention itself.
  • For compulsory licensing, it’s when the generic copy is produced mainly for the domestic market, not for export.
  • It does not wave off the rights of the patent owner. The patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid compensation for copies of the products made under the compulsory licence.
  • The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.

However, the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine the grounds for granting compulsory licences, and to determine what constitutes a national emergency.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 33

Light can be described both as a wave and as a particle. Which of the following phenomena illustrates the particle nature of light?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 33
  • Light can be described both as a wave and as a particle. Wave-particle duality is a theory that describes that light has both wave and particle nature. The key difference between the wave and particle nature of light is that the wave nature of light explains that light can behave as an electromagnetic wave, whereas the particle nature of light explains that light consists of particles called photons.
  • The wave nature of light shows up in the phenomena of interference, diffraction, and polarisation. On the other hand, in the photoelectric effect and Compton effect which involve energy and momentum transfer, radiation behaves as if it is made up of a bunch of particles – the photon.
  • Photo-electric effect:
    • The emission of free electrons from a metal surface when light is shone on it, is called photoemission or the photoelectric effect. This effect led to the conclusion that light is made up of packets or quantum of energy. This strongly supported the particle nature of light and these particles were named photons. Thus, the wave-particle duality of light came into the picture.
    • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 34

Consider the following statements about Pritzker Architecture Prize:

  1. It is awarded annually to honor excellence in urban planning.
  2. The prize has been awarded to architects from over 40 different countries.
  3. Winners of the prize receive $100,000 and a bronze medallion.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 34
  • S1: The Pritzker Architecture Prize is specifically focused on honoring excellence in architecture, not urban planning.
  • S2: Established in 1979 by the Pritzker family of Chicago, it recognizes living architects for their significant contributions to humanity and the built environment.
  • S3: The laureate receives $100,000 and a bronze medallion. Riken Yamamoto, the ninth laureate from Japan, is known for projects like the Hiroshima Nishi Fire Station (2000) and the Koyasu Elementary School (2018), which emphasize transparency and interaction in architectural design.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 35

Reg and Hamada are types of plains in which one of the following regions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 35
  • Wind-eroded plains are called reg, serir and hamada in the Sahara region.
  • Regs are deserts of stones and pebbles. They form large plains with a very lunar appearance. In this type of plain, mushroom-like stones are found.
  • Hamada refers to a nude stony flat surface. Hamada is formed due to joint actions of wind erosion and sheet erosion.
  • Hamada or hammada is a desert high plain or plateau where deflation has removed the fine grained surface materials and left behind a surface of sand-scoured bedrock with or without a veneer of pebbles or boulders.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 36

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Karachi Session of the Congress passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (to be the Congress objective).
  2. The Lahore Session of the Congress gave voice to the new, militant spirit.
  3. 26th January, 1929, was fixed as the first Independence Day. 

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 36
  • Gandhi came back to active politics and attended the Calcutta Session of the Congress in December, 1928. He now began to consolidate the nationalist ranks. The first step was to reconcile the militant left wing of the Congress. Jawaharlal Nehru was now made the President of the Congress at the historic Lahore Session of 1929. This event had its romantic side too. Son had succeeded father (Motilal Nehru was the President of the Congress in 1928) as the official head of the national movement. The Lahore Session of the Congress gave voice to the new, militant spirit. It passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) to be the Congress objective.
  • On 31st December, 1929, was hoisted the newly adopted tri-colour flag of freedom. 26th January, 1930, was fixed as the first Independence Day, which was to be so celebrated every year with the people taking the pledge that it was ―a crime against man and God to submit any longer‖ to the British rule.
  • The Congress Session also announced the launching of a Civil Disobedience Movement. But, it did not draw up a programme of struggle. That was left to Mahatma Gandhi, the Congress organization being placed at his disposal. Once again, the nationalist movement, led by Gandhi, faced the government. The country was again filled with hope and exhilaration, and the determination to be free.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 37

Which of the following organizations started the ‘ STAR-C Initiative’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 37
  • The International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), with funding of the Government of France, are implementing the project „Structuring of an International Network of Solar Technology and Application Resource Centres (STAR C)”.
  • The overall objective is to create a strong network of institutional capacities within ISA Member States to enhance quality infrastructure (QI) for the uptake of solar energy product and service markets, particularly in least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing states (SIDS). The first phase of the STAR C project will focus on the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS), the East African Community (EAC) and the Pacific Community (SPC)/Pacific Island Forum (PIF).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 38

With reference to ‘Treasury Bills’, consider the following statements:

  1. Treasury bills are issued by both the Government of India and the State Governments.
  2. They can be purchased by banking entities as well as by individuals.
  3. They can be a part of Bank’s Statutory Liquidity Ratio.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 38
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
    • G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called Risk-free giltedged instruments.
  • Statement 2 is correct: T-Bills are issued by the government and have no risks attached to them. They have high liquidity due to their short maturities of 14 days, 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days. T-Bills can be purchased by individuals, trusts, organizations, and banks. 
  • Statement 3 is correct: T-Bills have a relation with the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in India. Banks in India are required to maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) as liquid assets such as government securities, including T-Bills, to ensure liquidity and solvency.

Supplementary Notes:
Treasury Bills

  • T-Bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to raise funds for a period of up to one year.
  • They are zero-coupon bonds, which mean they do not pay any interest to the holder, but are issued at a discount to their face value.
  • The difference between the face value and the discounted price is the interest earned by the holder of the T-Bill.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 39

Which of the following statements regarding the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 39

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)

  • Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). 
  • Biological Oxygen Demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
  • It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
  • The higher value of BOD indicates low Dissolved Oxygen content of water.
  • BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only; hence it is not considered a much reliable method of measuring pollution load in the water.
  • Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in the water. COD is the measure of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 40

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Palas were the prominent rulers of Bengal, who built numerous temples in the Ahom style.
  2. Terracotta brick temples of Bengal were a unique combination of the Pala style and the Islamic architecture.

Which of the statements given above is/correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 40
  • The Palas are celebrated as the patrons of many Buddhist monastic sites, the temples from that region are known to express the local Vanga style.
  • Many local vernacular building traditions of Bengal also influenced the style of the temples with a tregion. Most prominent of these was the shape of the curving or sloping side of the bamboo roof of a Bengali hut. This feature was eventually even adopted in the Mughal buildings and is known across North India as the Bangla roof.
  • In the Mughal period and later, scores of terracotta brick temples were built across Bengal, in a unique style that had the elements of the local building techniques, seen in bamboo huts, which were combined with older forms reminiscent of the Pala period, and with the forms of arches and domes that were taken from the Islamic architecture.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 41

With reference to isotherms, consider the following statements:

  • Statement -I: The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature.
  • Statement-II: In the southern hemisphere, the isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 41
  • Statement-I is correct: The temperature distribution is generally shown on the map with the help of isotherms. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperatures. In general, the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere.
  • Statement-II is correct: In the northern hemisphere, the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and ocean currents are well-pronounced. In January, the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. The effect of the ocean is well pronounced in the southern hemisphere. Here, the isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes, and the variation in temperature is more gradual than in the northern hemisphere.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 42

Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935:

  1. It introduced a new system of dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government.
  2. It allowed Governors to veto legislative action of the provincial assemblies and legislate on their own.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 42
  • The discussions of the Third Round Table Conference were held in December 1932. It led to the issue of a white paper in 1933, which declared that according to the new constitution, there would be a dyarchy at the center and secretary of state of India. Thus, The Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • The Government of India Act, of 1919 introduced a new system of dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government. The 1935 act provided for the establishment of an All India Federation and a new system of government for the provinces on the basis of provincial autonomy. The federation was to be based on a union of the provinces of British India and the Princely states. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • According to The Government of India Act, 1935, the Governors-General and the Governors were to be appointed by the British government and were to be responsible for it. In the provinces, local power was to be increased and ministers were given the power to control all departments, however, the Governors could veto their legislative actions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to the White Label ATM:

  1. They are ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-banking entities.
  2. Separate ATM cards will be issued to withdraw cash from the ATM.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 43
  • Statement 1 is correct: ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called White Label ATMs(WLA). Nonbank ATM operators are authorised under the Payment & Settlement Systems Act, 2007 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). For a customer, using a WLA is just like using an ATM of any bank. The rationale to allow non-bank entities to set up WLAs has been to increase the geographical spread of ATMs for increased/ enhanced customer service, especially in semi-urban / rural areas.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The cards issued by banks in India can be used at any ATM / WLA in the country. The ATM / ATM cum debit cards, credit cards and prepaid cards, as permitted by the issuer, can be used at ATMs/WLAs for various transactions. In addition to dispensing cash, ATMs / WLAs may offer many other services / facilities to customers. Some of such services include:
    • Account Information
    • Cash Deposit
    • Regular Bill Payment
    • Purchase of Re-load Vouchers for Mobiles (not permitted at WLAs)
    • Mini / Short Statement Generation
    • PIN Change
    • Request for Cheque Book
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding Black corals.

  1. Black corals are located in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
  2. They are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
  3. They are found only in deep waters and they cannot survive in shallow waters.
  4. They act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 44

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

  • Context: The Great Barrier Reef is experiencing its fifth mass coral bleaching event in eight years, driven by global heating and an El Niño climate pattern.
  • Using a remote-controlled submarine, researchers at Smithsonian Institution, Washington, discovered five new species of black corals living as deep as 2,500 feet (760 metres) below the surface in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
  • Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000 metres), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years.
  • Unlike their colourful, shallow-water cousins that rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy, black corals are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
  • Similarly to shallow-water corals that build colourful reefs full of fish, black corals act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators in what is otherwise a mostly barren sea floor.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 45

Which of the following technologies are normally based on the use of sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing?

  1. Ultrasonography
  2. Echocardiography
  3. Radar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 45
  • A sound wave is a vibration that is transmitted through a medium, such as air, water, and metals. Ultrasonic wave (or ultrasound) is defined as “inaudible sound with high frequency for humans” the frequency of which generally exceeds 20 kHz. Ultrasound is sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing.
  • The following technologies are based on ultrasound waves:
    • Echocardiography (ECHO): It is used to examine the heart. It is a safe and noninvasive technique. Echocardiography can be used to detect whether the heart muscle is moving normally and how much blood the heart is pumping out with each beat. This procedure can also detect abnormalities in the heart's structure, such as defective heart valves, birth defects (such as holes in the walls between the heart's chambers), and enlargement of the heart's walls or chambers, as occurs in people with high blood pressure, heart failure, or impairment of the heart's muscular walls (cardiomyopathy). Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Ultrasound scanner: An ultrasound scan is used to examine internal body structures. Ultrasound imaging sends out (emits) high-frequency sound waves, directed at the tissue being examined, and records the reflected sound or echoes to create an image. An ultrasound scan is generally non-invasive.
    • Ultrasonography: It uses high-frequency sound (ultrasound) waves to produce images of internal organs and other tissues. A device called a transducer converts electrical current into sound waves, which are sent into the body’s tissues. Sound waves bounce off structures in the body and are reflected back to the transducer, which converts the waves into electrical signals. A computer converts the pattern of electrical signals into an image, which is displayed on a monitor and recorded as a digital computer image. No x-rays are used, so there is no radiation exposure during ultrasonography. So, it is used for the examination of the fetus during pregnancy. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • RADAR: The term RADAR was coined in 1940 by the United States Navy as an acronym for radio detection and ranging. Radar is a radiolocation system that uses radio waves (and not sound waves) to determine the distance (ranging), angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site. It is used to detect and track aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles, and motor vehicles, and map weather formations, and terrain. A radar system consists of a transmitter producing electromagnetic waves in the radio or microwave domain, a transmitting antenna, a receiving antenna (often the same antenna is used for transmitting and receiving), and a receiver and processor to determine the properties of the objects. Hence option 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 46

Which one of the following correctly describes ‘Akira’ often mentioned in the news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 46
  • Akira is swiftly becoming one of the fastest-growing ransomware families thanks to its use of double extortion tactics, a ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS) distribution model, and unique payment options. The Akira RaaS group performs double extortion tactics and steals victims’ critical data prior to encrypting devices and files. Interestingly, according to reports, Akira operators provide victims the option to pay for either file decryption or data deletion; they don’t force victims into paying for both. According to reports, ransom demands for Akira typically range from US$200,000 to over US$4 million.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 47

With reference to the Critical Tiger Habitats (CTH), consider the following statements:

  1. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve has the largest area under Critical Tiger  Habitat.
  2. As of now, more than 50% of total tiger reserves area is under Critical Tiger Habitat.
  3. The customary and traditional forest rights under Forest Rights Act, 2006 are not recognised in Critical Tiger Habitat.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 47
  • Recent Context: Violations of the Wildlife (Protection) Act and the Forest Rights Act have exacerbated conflicts in Tiger Reserves between the forest bureaucracy and forest-dwellers.
  • In 1973, The Government of India introduced Project Tiger with 9 tiger reserves. Today there are 54 tiger reserves covering 78135 sq. km area. The Government adopted scientific approach to tiger conservation, which has 3 main components - Core/ Critical Tiger Habitats (CTHs), Buffer area to absorb external pressure and Corridor managing the “source-sink dynamics” by restoring habitat connectivity.
  • As of now the CTHs covers 42913 sq. km area, which is 54% of total tiger reserves areas. The Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is India's largest Tiger reserves and spreading over 3727 Sq. Km. The Krishna river traverses through this tiger reserves. The CTH area in this tiger reserves largely consists of the Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary ( 36.62%), with closed and opened forests. Also, it has the largest area under Critical Tiger Habitat. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • In March 2017, the NTCA ( National Tiger Conservation Authority) refused to recognise rights under Forest Rights Act, 2006 (FRA). Later in 2018 the Environment Ministry issued the guidelines about recognition of customary and traditional forest rights under FRA in Critical Tiger Habitat. After this NTCA withdrew its earlier order. Thus now rights under FRA are recognised inside CTHs. Even as per NTCA, 574 villages are present in Core/Critical Tiger Habitats. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Hence option (b) is the correct option.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding nano fertilizers:
Statement I: Nano Urea increases the availability of nitrogen to crops by more than 80% resulting in higher Nutrient Use efficiency.
Statement II: Compared to conventional urea prill, nano Urea has less surface area.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 48
  • Nano Urea is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input which provides nitrogen to plants. Nano Urea is a sustainable option for farmers towards smart agriculture and combat climate change.
  • These fulfil the plant nutrient requirement as a fertilizer since Nano urea is bio-available to plants because of its desirable particle size about 20-50 nm and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill). Hence statement II is not correct.
  • Hence, Nano Urea increases its availability to crop by more than 80% resulting in higher Nutrient Use efficiency. In addition to this, Nano urea helps in minimizing the environmental footprint by reducing the loss of nutrients from agriculture fields in the form of leaching and gaseous emissions which used to cause environmental pollution and climate change. Hence statement I is correct.
  • Nano urea (liquid) contains 4% N as encapsulated nitrogen analogues or forms embedded on an organic matrix. It has a small size (20-50 nm); and more surface area and number of particles per unit area than conventional urea.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended after the 2nd Round Table Conference.
  2. In the North-West Frontier Province, the Khudai Khidmatgars were leading a peasant movement against the government’s land revenue policy.
  3. The Civil Disobedience Movement succeeded in politicizing the people and deepening the social roots of the freedom struggle.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 49
  • The British Government summoned, in London, in 1930, the First Round Table Conference of the Indian leaders and the spokesmen of the British Government to discuss the Simon Commission Report. But, the National Congress boycotted the Conference and its proceedings proved abortive; for a conference on the Indian affairs without the Congress was like staging Ramlila without Rama.
  • The government now made attempts to negotiate an agreement with the Congress, so that it would attend the Round Table Conference. Finally, Lord Irwin and Gandhiji negotiated a settlement in March, 1931. The government agreed to release those political prisoners who had remained non-violent and conceded the right to make salt for consumption, as also the right to peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops; the Congress suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference. Many of the Congress leaders, particularly the younger, left-wing section, were opposed to the GandhiIrwin Pact, for the government had not accepted even one of the major nationalist demands. It had not agreed even to the demand that the death sentence of Bhagat Singh and his two comrades be commuted to life imprisonment. But Gandhiji was convinced that Lord Irwin and the British were sincere in their desire to negotiate on Indian demands.
  • Gandhi prevailed upon the Karachi Session of the Congress to approve the agreement. Gandhiji went to England in September, 1931, to attend the Second Round Table Conference. But, in spite of his powerful advocacy, the British Government refused to concede the basic nationalist demand for freedom on the basis of the immediate grant of Dominion Status.
  • In the meanwhile, peasant unrest had developed in several parts of the country, as the peasants found that the fall in the prices of the agricultural products, because of world depression, had made the burden of land revenue and rent unbearable. In Uttar Pradesh, the Congress agitated for reduction of rent and prevention of eviction of the tenants. In December, 1931, the Congress started a no-rent, no-tax, campaign. In the North-West Frontier Province, the Khudai Khidmatgars were leading a peasant movement against the government‘s land revenue policy. On 24th December, their leader, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, was arrested.
  • Peasant struggles were also developing in Bihar, Andhra, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal and Punjab. On his return to India, Gandhiji had no choice but to resume the Civil Disobedience Movement. The government, now headed by the new Viceroy, Lord Willingdon, who believed that a major error had been made in signing a truce with the Congress, was this time fully determined and prepared to crush the Congress.
  • On 4th January, 1932, Gandhiji and other leaders of the Congress were again arrested and the Congress declared illegal. The normal working of laws was suspended and the administration carried on through special ordinances. The police indulged in naked terror and committed innumerable atrocities on the freedom fighters. Over a lakh of Satyagrahis were arrested; the lands, houses and other property of thousands were confiscated. Nationalist literature was banned, while the nationalist newspapers were again placed under censorship.
  • Government repression succeeded in the end, helped as it was by the differences among the Indian leaders on communal and other questions. The Civil Disobedience Movement gradually waned. The Congress officially suspended the Movement in May, 1933, and withdrew it in May, 1934. Gandhiji, once again, withdrew from active politics. Once again many political activists felt despair.
  • Subhash Bose and Vithalbhai Patel had declared that ―the Mahatma as a political leader has failed.‖ Willingdon, the Viceroy, had also declared : The Congress is in a definitely less favourable position than in 1930, and has lost its hold on the public.‖ But in reality, this was not so. True, the Movement had not succeeded in winning freedom, but it had succeeded in further politicizing the people, and in further deepening the social roots of the freedom struggle.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 50

Consider the given statements:

  1. Both Community reserves and Conservation Reserves are the outcome of the original Wild life Protection Act, 1972.
  2. They act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established protected areas.
  3. First Conservation Reserve of India was established in Tamil Nadu.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 50

Statement 1 is incorrect: Both and community reserves and Conservation Reserves are the outcome of the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 in 2002.
Conservation reserves and community reserves of India

  • Statement 2 is correct: Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
  • Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands is privately owned.
  • These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Tiruppadaimarathur conservation reserve in Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu was the first conservation reserve established in 2005.
  • The State Government may notify any community land or private land as a Community Reserve, provided that the members of that community or individuals concerned are agreeable to offer such areas for protecting the fauna and flora, as well as their traditions, cultures and practices.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 51

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. One notable aspect of the early temples was the practice of carving out large rocks to create artificial caves.
  2. Later, the temples had assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 51
  • The early temple was a small square room, called the Garbhagriha, with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image.
  • Gradually, a tall structure, known as the Shikhara, was built over the central shrine. The temple walls were often decorated with sculpture.
  • Later, the temples became far more elaborate – with assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water.
  • One of the unique features of the early temples was that some of these were hollowed out of huge rocks, as artificial caves. The tradition of building artificial caves was an old one.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 52

With reference to Electro-cardiograph, consider the following statements:

  1. The T-wave represents the depolarisation of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria.
  2. The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction.
  3. The P-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 52
  • Electro-cardiograph is used to obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG). ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle.
  • To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart activity.
  • For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
  • Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart.
  • The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarization). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
  • Since the ECGs obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead configuration, any deviation from this shape indicates a possible abnormality or disease. Hence, it is of a great clinical significance.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 53

Bio-invasion may be considered as a form of biological pollution and significant component on global change and one of the major causes of species extinction. Which of the following are the characteristic features of Invasive species that make them so successful?

  1. Relatively large amounts of DNA in their cell nuclei
  2. Specialist in distribution
  3. Possessing characteristic features like “pioneer species” in varied landscapes
  4. Long flowering and fruiting periods 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 53

Invasive Species

  • An alien plant also referred to as exotic, introduced, foreign, non-indigenous or nonnative, is one that has been introduced by humans intentionally or otherwise through human agency or accidentally from one region to another. An alien plant that has escaped from its original ecosystem and is reproducing on its own in the regional flora is considered a naturalized species.
  • The global extent and rapid increase in invasive species is homogenising the world’s flora and fauna and is recognized as a primary cause of global biodiversity loss.
  • Bio-invasion may be considered as a form of biological pollution and significant component on global change and one of the major causes of species extinction.

Characteristic features of Invasive species

  • Invasive species possess characteristic features like “pioneer species” in varied landscapes, tolerant of a wide range of soil and weather conditions, generalist in distribution, produces copious amounts of seed that disperse easily, grows aggressive root systems, short generation time, high dispersal rates, long flowering and fruiting periods, broad native range, abundant in native range.
  • Preliminary data from one interesting study shows that invasive species are likely to have relatively small amounts of DNA in their cell nuclei. Apparently, the cells in these plants are able to divide and multiply more quickly and consequently the entire plant can grow more rapidly than species with higher cellular DNA content. This gives them a leg up in disturbed sites.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 54

With reference to Joint Public service Commission (JPSC), which of the statements given below are not correct?

1. The President appoints the chairman of a JPSC.
2. It is not a constitutional body.
3. The First Joint Public service commission of formed in 1966.
4. It was taken from Government of India Act, 1935.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 54

Joint Public service Commission (JPSC)

  • The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
  • It is an independent constitutional body.
  • The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.
  • Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state.
  • The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.
  • A JSPSC is a statutory body. It is not a constitutional body. After the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966, the two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period.
  • The President appoints the chairman as well as the members of a JSPSC.
  • In 1926 on the recommendation of Lee Commission (1924), the Federal Public Service Commission was established.
  • Government of India Act, 1935 provided for Central Public Service Commissions, State Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission.
  • The Constitution makes provision for a JPSC to cater to needs of two or more states.
  • JPSC is formed by an act of parliament. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
  • It submits reports to the concerned State Governors.
  • President decides composition, tenure, conditions of service, removal. Chairman and Members have a term of six years or till 62, whichever is earlier.
  • They can be suspended or removed by the president, or they can resign by writing to the president. Constitutional Provisions:
  • Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India.
  • Article 316: Appointment and term of offi ce of members of UPSC as well as SPSC.
    Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC and SPSC.
  • Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission.
  • Article 319: Prohibition of holding the offi ce by members of Commission upon ceasing to be such members.
  • Article 320: States the functions of Public Service Commissions.
  • Article 321: Power to extend the functions of Public Service Commissions.
  • Article 322: Expenses of Public Service Commissions. Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 55

Arrange the following organizations in the chronological order of their formation.

  1. The Ramakrishna mission
  2. Atmiya Sabha
  3. Satyasodhak Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 55
  • In 1897, Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission to carry on humanitarian relief and social work. It laid emphasis not on personal salvation but on good or social service.
  • Atmiya Sabha was established in Calcutta in 1815 by Ram Mohan Roy. The association conducted debates and discussions on philosophical subjects, as well as advocated for free and collective thinking and social reform.
  • Truth seeker society (Satya Shodhak) was founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873 with the leadership of the samaj coming from the backward classes, malis, telis, kunbis, sans, dhangar.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 56

Consider the following statements:

  1. Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
  2. India has greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 

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