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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs with respect to cell organelles and their functions:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 1
  • A cell consists of three parts: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and, between the two, the cytoplasm Within the cytoplasm lie intricate arrangements of fine fibers and hundreds or even thousands o miniscule but distinct structures called organelles.
  • Cell membrane: Every cell in the body is enclosed by a cell (Plasma) membrane. The cell membran separates the material outside the cell, extracellular, from the material inside the cell, intracellular. It maintains the integrity of a cell and controls passage of materials (ions and molecules) into and ou of the cell. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Nucleus and Nucleolus: The nucleus, formed by a nuclear membrane around a fluid nucleoplasm, is th control center of the cell. Threads of chromatin in the nucleus contain deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), th< genetic material of the cell. The nucleolus is a dense region of ribonucleic acid (RNA) in the nucleus an< is the site of ribosome formation.
  • Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm is the gel-like fluid inside the cell. It is the medium for chemical reaction. 1 provides a platform upon which other organelles can operate within the cell. All of the functions for cel expansion, growth and replication are carried out in the cytoplasm of a cell.
  • Cytoplasmic organelles are "little organs" that are suspended in the cytoplasm of the cell. Each type o organelle has a definite structure and a specific role in the function of the cell. Examples of cytoplasmi organelles are mitochondrion, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and lysosomes.
    • The Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi body are single membrane bound structures. The membrane has the same structure (lipid-protein) as the plasma membrane but ribosomes do not have membranes. Ribosomes are involved in synthesis of proteins in the cell, Golgi bodies in secreting and the ER in transporting and storing the products. These three organelles operate together.
    • Ribosomes are present either as free particles in cytoplasm or attached to ER. Also found stored in nucleolus inside the nucleus. 80S types found in eukaryotes and 70S in prokaryotes (S- svedberg unit of measuring ribosomes). Ribosomes are sites in a cell lin which protein synthesis takes place. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • The Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, functions as a factory in which proteins received from the ER are further processed and sorted for transport to their eventual destinations: lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. In addition, as noted earlier, glycolipids and sphingomyelin are synthesized within the Golgi. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
    • Lysosomes are present in almost all animal cells and some non-green plant cells. They perform intracellular digestion. Lysosomes are called 'suicidal bags' as enzymes contained in them can digest the cell's own material when damaged or dead. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 2

With reference to Green Budgeting, consider the following statements:

  1. It means using the tools of budgetary policy-making to help achieve environmental goals.
  2. It requires environmental impact assessments to accompany new budget measures.
  3. The Paris Collaborative, a multidisciplinary platform for research and analysis on Green Budgeting is convened by G20.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 2

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Paris Collaborative on Green Budgeting was launched in 2017 by Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

Green Budgeting

  • Environmentally responsive or green budgeting means using the tools of budgetary policy*making to help achieve environmental goals. This includes evaluating environmental impacts of budgetary and fiscal pohcies and assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and international commitments. Green budgeting can also contribute to informed, evidence-based debate and discussion on sustainable growth.
  • Incorporating environmental dimensions into fiscal frameworks, including the annual budget document, evaluation of tax and expenditure policies and longterm sustainabihty analysis, will help governments to become more accountable for their environmental commitments and support them in transforming towards sustainable and resilient societies.
  • Green budgeting will support governments in achieving environmental goals by:
  • Evaluating environmental impacts of budgetary and fiscal pohcies
  • Assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and international commitments
  • Contributing to informed, evidence-based debate and discussion on sustainable growth
  • Green budgeting tools help gather evidence on how budget measures impact environmental and climate objectives. The tools may include:
  • Green budget tagging — Classifying budget measures according to their environmental and/or climate impact
  • Environmental impact assessments — Requiring environmental impact assessments to accompany new budget measures 
  • Ecosystem services, including carbon pricing — Putting a price on environmental externalities, such as greenhouse gas emissions, often through taxes and emissions trading systems, to facilitate achievement of national environmental and climate goals
  • Green perspective to spending review — Incorporating consideration of the impact of measures on national environmental and climate goals alongside considerations of efficiency
  • Green perspective in performance setting — Integrating performance objectives related to national environmental and climate goals
  • The Paris Collaborative on Green Budgeting (PCGB), launched in 2017, is convened by the OEGD and serves as a multi-disciplinary platform for focused research and analysis to help governments at all levels emhed consideration of climate and environmental goals within their budget frameworks.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 3

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Nunataks’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 3

Nunataks: The higher peaks and mounds surrounded by ice from all sides are called nunataks. They look like scattered small islands amid extensive ice masses. That is why they are also called glacial islands. They decrease in size due to erosion caused by glacial lateral erosion and frost action.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gender Budget is a separate budget for women that include women specific schemes.
  2. The gender Budget Statement was first introduced in India during the Union Budget 2020-2021.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 4
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gender Budgeting is not a separate budget for women but entails dissection of the Government budgets to establish its gender differential impacts and to ensure that gender commitments are translated into budgetary commitments.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Gender Budget Statement (GBS) was first introduced in the Indian Budget in 2005-06.

Gender Budgeting

  • It is a powerful tool for achieving gender mainstreaming so as to ensure that benefits of development reach women as much as men.
  • It is not an accounting exercise but an ongoing process of keeping a gender perspective in policy/ programme formulation, its implementation and review.
  • It is not a separate budget for women but entails dissection of the Government budgets to establish its gender differential impacts and to ensure that gender commitments are translated in to budgetary commitments.
  • Since 2005-06, the Expenditure Division of Ministry of Finance has been issuing a note on Gender Budgeting as a part of Budget Circular every year. This Gender Budgeting statement comprises 2 parts:
  • Part A reflects Women Specifi c Schemes i.e. those which have 100% allocation for women
  • Part B reflects Pro Women Schemes i.e. those where at least 30% of allocation is for women. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Panchayat Development Index:

  1. The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) is a single dedicated domain on Governance and Administration of the panchayats.
  2. It aims to enhance the overall well-being and quality of life of rural communities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 5

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) is a Multidomain and multi-sectoral index that is intended to be used to assess the overall holistic development, performance & progress of panchayats. The Panchayat Development Index takes into account various socio-economic indicators and parameters to gauge the well-being and development status of the local communities within the jurisdiction of a panchayat.
The index typically considers factors such as:

  • Infrastructure
  • Health and Education
  • Economic Indicators
  • Social Indicators
  • Governance and Administration
  • Environmental Sustainability

Statement 2 is correct: The Panchayat Development Index shall provide public representatives, policy makers, government agencies, and local authorities with valuable insights into the areas that require attention for improvement within the rural areas under the jurisdiction of the panchayats. It helps in identifying disparities, achievement of development goals, and formulating targeted policies and interventions to enhance the overall well-being and quality of life of rural communities. The specific indicators and weights used in calculating the Panchayat Development Index can vary based on the goals and priorities of the governing body or organization that develops and utilizes the index.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 6

Consider the following statements: :

1. Kosalas were ruling Magadha when Alexander invaded India.

2. Battle of the Hydaspes was fought between Alexander and King Ambhi of Taxila.

3. Porus along with King Ambhi, defeated Alexendar and ended his Indian conquest.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Nanda dynasty ruled over Magadha when Alexander invaded India.The Nanda dynasty was the fifth ruling dynasty of Magadha in northern Indian subcontinent during the fourth century BCE and possibly also during the fifth century BCE. The Nandas overthrew the Shishunaga dynasty, and expanded the empire to include a larger part of northern India. While describing Alexander the Great's invasion of Punjab (327–325 BCE), the Greco-Roman writers depict this kingdom as a great military power. The prospect of a war against this kingdom, coupled with the exhaustion resulting from almost a decade of campaigning, led to a mutiny among Alexander's homesick soldiers, putting an end to his Indian campaign.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought in 326 BC between Alexander the Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdom on the banks of the Jhelum River in the Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent. The battle resulted in a Greek victory and the surrender of Porus.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: King Ambhi and Porus did not put up a joint front against Alexander and the Khyber pass remained unguarded. Ambhi submitted to Alexander, whereas Porus whose Kingdom laid between Jhelum and Chenab was defeated in the Battle of the Hydaspes. Although Alexander defeated Porus, he was impressed by the bravery and courage of the Indian prince. So he returned his kingdom to him and made him his ally.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 7

From 2016, RBI introduced a new methodology for calculation of the Base Rates based on marginal cost of funds rather than average cost of funds. This methodology is based on which of the following factors:

  1. Average Cost of deposits/funds
  2. Cost of maintaining CRR and SLR
  3. Operational Costs of Banks
  4. Return/profit on Net worth (investment)
  5. Tenor Premium (based on the time period for which loan is given)

Select the correct answers using the codes below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 7

Option (c) is correct: Average cost of funds and Return/profit on Net worth (investment) are not used in the calculation of MCLR.

MCLR: MCLR calculation methodology is based on the following four factors:

  • Marginal cost of deposits/funds
  • Cost of maintaining CRR and SLR Operational Costs of Banks
  • Tenor Premium (based on the time period for which loan is given)

The basic difference between the previous Base Rate and the MCLR based rate is the Change of calculation of cost of deposits from average to marginal. The banks shall review and publish their MCLR every month.

Marginal cost of lending rates (MCLR)

  • It is the minimum interest rate below which no bank is permitted to lend money. It is determined by banks internally, depending upon the loan repayment time.
  • The Reserve Bank of India introduced the MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates on 1 April 2016. It replaced the base rate structure, which had been in place since July 2010.
  • The rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the repayment of a loan.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022:

  1. It was conceptualised and designed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances.
  2. It is aiming at organization-wise comparison to identify strengths and areas for improving grievance redressal.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 8

Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022

  • Recently, the Union Minister of Public Grievances, and Pensions, launched the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022.
  • It was conceptualised and designed by the Depart menl of Administrative Reforms and Pubhc Grievances (DARPG), Govt, of India.
  • Its objective to present an organisation-wise comparative picture and provide valuable insights about strengths and areas of improvement regarding the grievance redressal mechanism. Eighty-nine Central Ministries and Departments were assessed and ranked based on a comprehensive index in the dimensions of (1) Efficiency, (2) Feedback, (3) Domain and (4) Organisational Commitment and corresponding 12 indicators.
  • To compute the index, data between January and December 2022 was used from the Centralised Pubhc Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).
  • Key facts about Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS)
  • It is an onhne platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the pubhc authorities on any subject related to service delivery. It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and States.
  • Every Ministry and State have role-based access to this system. It is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Writs and their uses:

Statement-I: The writs play a crucial role in safeguarding the fundamental rights and liberties of individuals.
Statement-II: They are enshrined in Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 9

Writs and their uses

  • In the Indian Constitution, writs play a crucial role in safeguarding the fundamental rights and liberties of individuals.
  • Writs are powerful legal remedies that can be sought from the courts to protect and enforce these fundamental rights.
  • They are enshrined in Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution, which grant the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, the authority to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding transgenic crops in India:

  1. Cotton is the only transgenic crop that is being commercially cultivated in India.
  2. Cry2Ai is a gene found in cotton that is believed to make the crop resistant to the pink bollworm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 10
  • The process of developing transgenic crops is an elaborate one as inserting transgenic genes into plants to elicit a sustained, protective response is a mix of both science and chance.
  • There is an array of crops — brinjal, tomato, maize, chickpea — in various stages of trials that employ transgenic technology. However, cotton remains the only transgenic crop that is being commercially cultivated in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • India’s biotech regulator Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) gave approval to conduct BRL-1 trial for resistance against Pink Bollworm. The genetically modified cotton expresses Cry2Ai gene for resistance against Pink Bollworm. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 11

With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following pairs:

1. Habeas Corpus - It is used when a person or entity is denied a right or benefi t that they are entitled to by law.
2. Mandamus - It ensures that a person is not unlawfully detained.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 11
  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Habeas Corpus - It ensures that a person is not unlawfully detained.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Mandamus - It is used when a person or entity is denied a right or benefi t that they are entitled to by law.

Writs

  • The Constitution of India recognizes fi ve types of writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto. Each of these writs serves a specifi c purpose and can be invoked under different circumstances.

Habeas Corpus:

  • Habeas corpus literally means “to have the body.” This writ ensures that a person is not unlawfully detained or imprisoned. It enables the court to inquire into the legality of a person’s detention and, if found unlawful, orders their immediate release.
  • The writ of habeas corpus acts as a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention.

Mandamus:

  • Mandamus means “command” in Latin. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court, public authority, or government offi cial, directing them to perform their legal duty or public duty.
  • It is used when a person or entity is denied a right or benefi t that they are entitled to by law, and the writ commands the concerned authority to fulfi ll their obligation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 12

With reference to the ideological differences/similarities between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar, consider the following statements:

  1. Gandhi advocated the Parliamentary System of Government for independent India, but Ambedkar had very little respect for the Parliamentary System of Governance. 
  2. Gandhi believed in the separation of State and religion, but Ambedkar never endorsed the idea of separation of politics and religion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 12

Ideological differences/similarities between Gandhi and Ambedkar:

  • Ambedkar advocated the Parliamentary System of Government for independent India, but Gandhi had very little respect for the Parliamentary System of Governance. Gandhi believed that democracy tends to get converted into mass democracy with a propensity for domination by the leaders.
  • Ambedkar denounced the Vedas and other Hindu scriptures. He believed that the caste system and untouchability were the manifestations of the Hindu religious scriptures. On the contrary, Gandhi held that caste system in Hinduism has nothing to do with religious precepts and spirituality. For Gandhi, caste and Varna were different, and caste was perversive degeneration.
  • Ambedkar believed in freedom of religion, free citizenship and separation of State and religion. Gandhi also endorsed the idea of freedom of religion, but never approved a separation of politics and religion.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. During the Quit India Movement, the Congress Working Committee was declared unlawful association under the Sedition Act of 1870.
  2. The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 13
  • Gandhi had carefully built the tempo through individual Civil Disobedience Movements or Satyagraha, organizational revamping and a consistent propaganda campaign. The government, however, was in no mood to either negotiate with the Congress or wait for the movement to be formally launched.
  • In the early hours of August 9th, 1942, in a single sweep, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations. The Congress Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.
  • The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under Rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The removal of established leaders left the younger and militant elements to their own initiative. With the major leaders out of the picture, young Aruna Asaf Ali, till then relatively unknown, presided over the Congress Committee Session on August 9th, and hoisted the flag.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 14

With respect to the Rural development in India, consider the following:

  1. Geo-tagging of assets
  2. Social Audit of Mahatma Gandhi NREGS and PMAY-G
  3. Aadhaar Based Payment System
  4. Direct Benefit Transfer

How many of the above steps have been undertaken to strengthen transparency and accountability of rural development schemes in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 14

Rural Development

  • Ministry of Rural Development has evolved a comprehensive multi-level and multiformat system of monitoring and evaluation of the implementation of rural development programmes, including Performance Review Committee Meetings, District Development Co-ordination and Monitoring Committee (“DISHA") meetings. National Level Monitors (NLMs), Area Officers Schemes, Common Review Mission, Concurrent Evaluation and Impact Assessment Studies.
  • Social Audits are also conducted by some schemes like Mahatma Gandhi NREGS and PMAY-G. Third-Party evaluation of the schemes is also carried out regularly and actions, as appropriate, are taken on the findings.
  • In addition to above, steps have also been taken to strengthen transparency and accountability using transaction based IT systems for MIS which include geo-tagging of assets. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), National electronic Fund Management System (Ne-FMS), Aadhaar Based Payment System (ABPS), Software for Estimate Calculation using Rural rates for Employment (SECURE) and establishment of independent social audit units and appointment of Ombudsman.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 15

With reference to landscape evolution in deserts, consider the following statements:
1. Pediments are depositional landforms.
2. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 15
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of the mountainfront through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.
  • Statement 2 is correct: An inselberg is an isolated hill that stands above welldeveloped plains and appears not unlike an island rising from the sea. The early German explorers of southern Africa were impressed by such features, and they dubbed the domed or castlelike highlands inselbergs. Spectacular examples include Uluru/Ayers Rock and the Olga Rocks in central Australia. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains. Inselbergs are relict features. They have maintained their relief as the adjacent surrounding landscape was lowered.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 16

Consider the following:
1. Radioactivity
2. Rotational and tidal friction
3. Primordial heat from the origin of the earth

Which of the above sources of energy drive the endogenic geomorphic processes within the Earth?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 16

The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces is not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 17

Who among the following rulers shifted the Mauryan pillars from Topra and Meerut to Delhi ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 17

Originally from Topra (near Haryana) and Meerut, respectively, the Mauryan columns were brought to the capital by Feroz Shah Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi in the 14th Century.
Legend goes that the emperor was fascinated by these pillars when he noticed them during his military campaigns. Tarikh-i- Firoz Shahi recalls that the king said that the pillars were the walking sticks of Bhima from the Mahabharata. Filled with admiration, Tughlaq decided to bring them to Delhi as trophies of his conquest.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

1. Costs that do not refle ct as the part of market price are considered as externalities.  

2. Externalities can lead to market failure and are unidirectional in nature.

3. Negative externalities occur when the action of one party confers benefi ts to other party.

How many of the statements given above is/ are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 18
  • Statement 1 is correct: Externalities lead to market failure because a product or service’s price equilibrium does not accurately refl ect the true costs and benefi ts of that product or service.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Equilibrium, which represents the ideal balance between buyers’ benefit s and producers’ costs, is supposed to result in the optimal level of production.
  • However, the equilibrium level is fl awed when there are signifi cant externalities, creating incentives that drive individual actors to make decisions which end up making the group worse off. This is known as a market failure.
  • Statement 3 is correct: A negative externality initiated in production which imposes an external cost on others may be received by another in consumption or in production. 

Externality

  • An externality stems from the production or consumption of a good or service, resulting in a cost or benefi t to an unrelated third party.
  • Equilibrium is the ideal balance between buyers’ benefi ts and producers’ costs, while market failure is the ineffi cient distribution of goods and services in the market.
  • Externalities lead to market failure because a product or service’s price equilibrium does not accurately refle ct the true costs and benefi ts of that product or service.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 19

Consider the following regarding decomposition:
1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humifi cation
5. Mineralisation 

How many of the above are the important steps in the process of decomposition?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 19

Option (a) is correct: The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humifi cation and mineralisation.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 20

With reference to the Ecosystem, consider the following statements:
1. Ecosystems thrive on biodiversity, which refers to the variety of different species and their interactions within an ecosystem.
2. Forests act as carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and mitigating climate change.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 20

Biodiversity

  • Ecosystems thrive on biodiversity, which refers to the variety of different species and their interactions within an ecosystem. Biodiversity provides stability to ecosystems and contributes to their resilience.
  • Different species play unique roles, such as pollination, seed dispersal, and pest control, which are crucial for ecosystem function.

Regulation of Environmental Conditions

  • Ecosystems help regulate environmental conditions. Forests, for example, act as carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and mitigating climate change.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 21

Consider the following statements with respect to the sacred grovjeis  Gink India:
1. They are patches of natural vegetation preserved by indigenous societies on religious and cultural grounds.
2. They have been legally protected as ‘community reserves’ under the Wildlife jNl^otection Act, 1972.
3. They are maintained by rural communities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 21

Sacred Groves

  • Sacred groves are patches of natural vegetation preserved by ancient/indigenous societies on religious and cultural grounds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • They are rich in biodiversity and act as habitats of many endangered and threatened plant species.They consists of a dense cover of vegetation including climbers, herbs, shrubs and trees, with the presence of a village deity and is mostly situated near a perennial water source.
  • They are considered to be symbols of the primitive practice of nature worship and support nature conservation to a great extent.
  • They are maintained by rural communities. No governments have been involved in their maintenance so far. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Many are protected and maintained by the village community by evolving certain taboos and restrictions. Some are also maintained by individual families. In some cases, individual and ancient trees also act as sacred groves, with the idol of a deity under the tree.
  • People believe that any damage to the sacred grove would harm any living fauna there or cutting any tree or climber of the grove may cause diseases and failure of agricultural crops.
  • Many villages have set apart sanctified land to propitiate the Vanadevadas, or forest spirits. The entire grove is considered sacred in certain areas and worshipped.
  • Sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’ in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 22

Which of the following rivers flows through Switzerland?

  1. Rhine
  2. Danube
  3. Rhone

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 22

​​​​​​​Recent Context: Switzerland and India have reached consensus on Free-Trade Agreement after 16 years of negotiation.

  • Political features
    • Landlocked country of central Europe.
    • Bordered to France (west), Germany (north), Austria and Liechtenstein (east), and Italy (south).
  • Geographical features
    • Major Rivers: River Rhine, Rhone.
    • Highest Point: Dufourspitze.
    • Major mountain ranges: Alps, Jura.
  • Danube River, river, the second longest in Europe after the Volga. It rises in the Black Forest mountains of western Germany and flows for some 1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth on the Black Sea. Along its course it passes through 10 countries: Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the steps taken during the Indian National Movement for the betterment of the depressed classes and the untouchables?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi set up the All-India Anti-Untouchability League for the upliftment of the untouchables.
  2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar advocated annihilation of the caste system to remove untouchability.
  3. Mahatma Gandhi renamed the Depressed Classes League as the Harijan Sevak Sangh.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 23

Steps taken during the National Movement for the upliftment of the depressed classes and the untouchables:

  • While in jail, Gandhi set up the AllIndia Anti-Untouchability League in 1932, and started the weekly Harijan in 1933. After his release, he shifted to the Satyagraha Ashram in Wardha, as he had vowed in 1930 not to return to the Sabarmati Ashram, unless Swaraj was won.
  • Gandhi distinguished between abolition of untouchability and abolition of caste system as such. On this point, he differed from Ambedkar, who advocated annihilation of the caste system to remove untouchability. Gandhi felt that whatever the limitations and defects of the Varnashram system, there was nothing sinful about it, as there was about untouchability. Untouchability, Gandhi felt, was a product of distinctions of high and low, and not of the caste system itself.
  • When Gandhi named the depressed classes and the untouchables as Harijan‘, Ambedkar denounced it as a clever scheme. Thus, when the Depressed Classes League was renamed as Harijan Sevak Sangh (by Gandhi), Ambedkar left the organization by claiming that for Gandhi removal of untouchability was only a platform, not a sincere programme.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 24

Consider the following events in Ancient India:

1. Darius invades North West India.

2. The Nanda dynasty established by Mahapadma Nanda.

3. Xerxes employed Indians in long war against the Greeks.

4. Invasion of north-west India by Alexander the Great.

Which among the following depicts the correct chronological order of above mentioned events from past to present?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 24

The correct chronological order of events from past to present is:

  • Option 1: The Achaemenian rulers of Iran who expanded their empire at the same time as the Magadhan princes took advantage of the political disunity on the north-west frontier. The Iranian ruler Darius penetrated into North West India in 516 B.C. and annexed Punjab West of the Indus and Sindh.This area constituted the 20th province or Satrapy of Iran, the total number of Satrapies in Iranian empire being 28.
  • Option 3: Xerxes, the successor of Darius employed Indians in the long war against the Greeks. It appears that India continued to be a part of Iranian empire till Alexander's invasion of India.
  • Option 2: Mahapadma Nanda conquered the Shishunaga dynasty in Magadha and established the Nanda dynasty in 345 BCE. It lasted upto 321 BC. Mahapadma Nanda, is thought to have come from a low-caste background.
  • Option 4: The invasion of north-west India by Alexander the Great and the defeat of King Porus happened in 326 BCE, which makes it the last event in the chronology.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 25

With reference to the State Election Commission, consider the following statements:

1. It is a constitutional body established under the provisions of the Indian Constitution.
2. It is under the control of the state government.
3. It has power to conduct elections to the local bodies, such as urban and rural local bodies within the state.
4. The Chief State Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the Governor of the state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 25

State Election Commission 

  •  In India, the State Election Commission (SEC) plays a vital role in ensuring free and fair elections at the state level. It is a constitutional body established under the provisions of the Indian Constitution. 
  •  The role of the State Election Commission is primarily focused on conducting elections to the local bodies, such as municipal corporations, municipal councils, panchayats, and other urban and rural local bodies within the state.

Features and functions of the State Election Commission in India:

Constitutional Status 

  • The State Election Commission derives its authority from Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution of India. 
  • These articles provide for the establishment and composition of the State Election Commission and its powers and functions.

Independent Body 

  • The State Election Commission is intended to be an independent and autonomous body.
  • It is not under the control of the state government. 
  • The Chief State Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the Governor of the state, and they are usually retired senior civil servants or judicial officers.

Conducting Elections 

  • The primary responsibility of the State Election Commission is to conduct elections to local bodies in the state. 
  • This includes preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, issuance of notifications for elections, and supervision of the entire election process.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 26

With reference to the water cycle, consider the following statements:
1. Almost 95% of the total water on the earth is chemically bound to rocks and does not form any part of a cycle.
2. The driving forces for the water cycle are solar radiation and gravity.
3. In the water cycle, evaporation is higher than precipitation over land.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 26

Water cycle (hydrological cycle).

  • Water received from the atmosphere on the earth returns back tthe atmosphere as water vapour resulting from direct evaporation and through evapotranspiration, the continuous movement of water in the biosphere is called the water cycle (hydrological cycle).
  • Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, rivers and streams evaporates from the sun’s heat energy. Plants alstranspire huge amounts of water. Water remains in the vapour state in the air and forms clouds which drift with the wind. Clouds meet with the cold air in the mountainous regions above the forests and condense tform rain precipitate which comes down due tgravity.

Distribution of water:

  • Water is not evenly distributed throughout the surface of the earth. Almost 95 % of the total water on the earth is chemically bound trocks and does not cycle. Out of the remaining 5%, nearly 97.3% is in the oceans and 2.1% exists as polar ice caps. Thus only 0.6% is present as fresh water in the form of atmospheric water vapours, ground and soil water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The driving forces for the water cycle are 1) solar radiation and 2) gravity. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Evaporation and precipitation are twmain processes involved in water cycle. These twprocesses alternate with each other.

  • On an average 84% of the water is lost from the surface of the through oceans by evaporation. While 77% returns tit from precipitation. Water runoff from lands through rivers toceans makes up 7% which balances the evaporation deficit of the ocean. In other words, Precipitation in oceans is less than Evaporation. Whereas On land, evaporation is 16% and precipitation is 23%. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with respect to the flora and fauna found in the Thar desert ecosystem:
1. Phog and Sewan grass are typical shrubs found in the desert.
2. The gazelle is the only species of the Indian antelope of which the females have horns.
3. Rann of Kutch is a breeding site in the Indian subcontinent for the flamingoes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 27
  • The Thar Desert, alsknown as the Great Indian Desert, is an arid region in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent that covers an area of 200,000 km2 in India and Pakistan. The Thar Desert is about 4.56% of the total geographical area of India. More than 60% of the desert lies in the Indian state of Rajasthan; the portion in India alsextends intGujarat, Punjab, and Haryana.
  • The climate of this region is characterised by excessive drought, the rainfall being scanty and irregular.
    • The winter rains of northern India rarely penetrate intthe region. November tMarch is characterized by extreme varia- tions of temperature and the temperature is frequently below freezing point at night.
    • During April tJune the heat are intense, frequent scorching winds prevail with great desiccating.
  • The natural vegetation consists of tropical thorn forests and tropical dry deciduous forests, sandy deserts with seasonal salt marshes and mangroves are found in the main estuaries. Typical shrubs are phog growing on sand dunes. Sewan grass covers extensive areas called pali. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Thar desert possesses most of the major insect species. 43 reptile species and moderate bird endemism are found here. Nniche of the Thar is devoid of birds. The black buck was once the dominant mammal of the desert region, now confined only tcertain pockets. The gazelle is the only species of the Indian antelope of which the females have horns. Nilgai the largest antelope of India and the wild ass, a distinct subspecies, is now confined tthe Rann of Kutch which is a breeding site in the Indian subcontinent for the flamingoes. Other species like desert fox, great Indian bustard, chinkara and desert cat are alsfound. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the Data Security Council of India: 1. It is a statutory body on data protection in India. 2. This council runs certification programmes for cyber forensic professionals.Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-forprofit, industry body on data protection in India, setup by nasscom, committed to making the cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. To further its objectives, DSCI engages with governments and their agencies, regulators, industry sectors, industry associations and think tanks for policy advocacy, thought leadership, capacity building and outreach activities.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The aim of the council is to strengthen thought leadership in cyber security and privacy, DSCI develops best practices and frameworks, published studies, surveys and papers. It builds capacity in security, privacy and cyber forensics through training and certification programs for professionals and law enforcement agencies and engages stakeholders through various outreach initiatives including events, awards, chapters, consultations and membership programs. DSCI also endeavors to increase India’s share in the global security product and services market through global trade development initiatives. These aim to strengthen the security and privacy culture in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 29

Consider the following statements.

  1. The responsibility of conducting monetary policy is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  2. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability without worrying about growth.
  3. The flexible inflation targeting framework by RBI does not have statutory basis.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 29

Only statement 1 is correct.

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
  • In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 30

In the context of the World Press Freedom Index 2023, consider the following statements:

  1. India was ranked 161 out of 180 countries.
  2. Norway, Finland and Denmark occupied the top three positions.
  3. It is released by Paris based Reporters without Borders (RSF).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 30
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the I op three positions.

World Press Freedom Index 2023

  • India was ranked 161 out of 180 countries. Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the top three positions.
  • It is released by Paris based Reporters Without Borders (RSF), one of the world’s leading NGOs in defense and promotion of freedom of information. It is published on World Press Freedom Day (3 May).
  • Evaluation is done using live contextual in dicators: political context, legalframework, economic context, sociocultural context and safety.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 31

Consider the following statements with respect to TRAFFIC:
1. It is an organization that was established in 1976 by WWF and IUCN.
2. It specializes in providing information analytics on illegal trade networks and new trends in trafficking.
3. It has launched Project Spotlight to monitor the illegal trade in freight using sniffer dog detection.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 31
  • TRAFFIC is an organization that was established in 1976 by WWF and IUCN as a wildlife trade monitoring network to undertake data collection, analysis, and provision of recommendations to inform decision-making on wildlife trade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • For over 40 years TRAFFIC performed that function as a leader in wildlife trade research, as a joint program of WWF and IUCN.
  • TRAFFIC became an independent non-profit organization in 2017, with WWF and IUCN sitting on its Board of Directors along with independent Board members.
  • TRAFFIC is renowned globally for its expertise and influence in the wildlife trade and conservation arena, as a provider of objective and reliable information.
  • Its expert staff implement innovative projects and create new tools to deliver the mission of protecting nature and supporting sustainable development, by resolving wildlife trade challenges.
  • TRAFFIC specializes in providing information analytics on illegal trade networks and supply chains, targeting the kingpins, illegal markets, and new trends in trafficking. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Project Spotlight - To support enforcement detection of wildlife contraband within shipments at ports, airports, and border crossings, TRAFFIC is developing a transferrable technology to expedite sniffer dog detection of illegal wildlife hidden in freight. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The technology is an affordable, generic version of target odour filtering systems that rapidly extract and concentrate odours from freight containers for a dog’s detection. The aim is to make open-source technology for conservation applications and wildlife law enforcement using locally sourced materials.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 32

Consider the following statements with reference to the Science and Engineering Research Board:
1. It is an executive body formed by a resolution of the government.
2. It tries to position science and technology as the fulcrum for social and economic change in the country.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 32
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament.
    Supporting basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board. The Board structure, with both financial and administrative powers vested in the Board, would enable quicker decisions on research issues, greatly improving thereby our responsiveness to the genuine needs of the research scientists and the S&T system.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The vision of the board is to position science and technology as the fulcrum for social and economic change by supporting relevant, competitive and quality scientific research and development. The mission of the board is to raise the quality and footprint of Indian science and engineering to the highest global levels in an accelerated mode, through calibrated support for research and development.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 33

With reference to the Kamakhya temple of Assam, consider the following statements:

1. It is built at the Nilachal hills in Guwahati and is famous for the Tantric practices.

2. It is the centre of the Kulachara Tantra Marga and the site of the Ambubachi Mela.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 33
  • By the; twelfth to the fourteenth centuries, a distinct regional style developed in Assam. The style that came with the migration of the Tais from Upper Burma, mixed with the dominant Pala style of Bengal, and led to the creation of what was later known as the Ahom style in and around Guwahati.
  • The Kamakhya temple, a Shakti Peeth, is dedicated to Goddess Kamakhya and was built in the seventeenth century.
  • The Kamakhya temple at the Nilachal hills in Guwahati (Assam) is one of the oldest and the most revered centres of the Tantric practices, dedicated to the Goddess Kamakhya. The temple is the centre of the Kulachara Tantra Marga and the site of the Ambubachi Mela, an annual festival that celebrates the menstruation of the Goddess.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 34

With reference to the Communal Award, consider the following statements:

  1. In the Provincial Legislatures, the seats were to be distributed on the communal basis.
  2. 10 percent of the total seats of all Provinces were to be reserved for women.
  3. The provision of „double vote‟ for the depressed classes was included in the Award.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 34

The Communal Award was created by the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932. Main Provisions of the Communal Award:

  • Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, depressed classes, women, and even the Marathas were to get separate electorates. Such an arrangement for the depressed classes was to be made for a period of 20 years.
  • In the Provincial Legislatures, the seats were to be distributed on the communal basis.
  • The existing seats of the Provincial Legislatures were to be doubled.
  • The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage.
  • Except in the North West Frontier Province, 3 per cent seats were to be reserved for women in all Provinces. 
  • The depressed classes to be declared/accorded the status of minority. 
  • The depressed classes were to get double vote‘, one to be used through separate electorates and the other to be used in the general electorates.
  • Allocations of seats were to be made for labourers, landlords, traders and industrialists.
  • In the province of Bombay, 7 seats were to be allocated for the Marathas.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 35

Consider the following:

1. Deposits of foreign Governments

2. Deposits of Central/State Governments

3. Inter-bank deposits

How many of the above are insured by Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 35

The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961' (DICGC Act) and 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961' framed by the Reserve Bank of India.
Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme -All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks, Regional Rural Banks and cooperative Banks.
DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring, etc., except the following types of deposits.

  • Deposits of foreign Governments;
  • Deposits of Central/State Governments;
  • Inter-bank deposits
  • Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State cooperative banks;
  • Any amount due on account of any deposit received outside India
  • Any amount which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of the RBI.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 36

Consider the following statements:

  1. Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
  2. Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
  3. The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 36

Statement 1:

Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.

This statement is correct. Ramakrishna Paramahansa indeed emphasized that serving humanity is a way to serve God. He believed in the idea that all beings are manifestations of the Divine, and thus, serving them is akin to serving God.

Statement 2:

Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.

This statement is correct. Swami Vivekananda was indeed a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa. Vivekananda played a significant role in spreading the teachings of Ramakrishna and founded the Ramakrishna Mission.

Statement 3:

The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

This statement is incorrect. While personal spiritual growth and salvation are part of its focus, the Ramakrishna Mission is more widely known for its emphasis on social service, education, and humanitarian work. The mission blends the quest for personal salvation with active service to society, following the principle of serving God through serving humanity.

Therefore, the number of correct statements is two.

The answer is 2. Only two

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chalukya kingdom’s prominence surged under Pulakesin II.

2. The Kharavela rose to power in Kalinga.

3. The expansion of the Kushana empire during Kanishka I’s Reign.

4. Vijayalaya founded the Imperial Chola Dynasty.

What is the correct chronological order of the above events from past to present?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 37
  • Kharavela rose to power in Kalinga in the middle of the 1st century BCE. He dispatched an army to the west without caring for Satakarni; this suggests that early Satavahana power suffered setbacks both at the hands of the Kshatrapas and of Kharavela. It was revived only through the exploits of Gautamiputra Satakarni.
  • The maximum territorial expansion of the Kushana empire took place during Kanishka I's reign. The accession of Kanishka is dated between 78 and 144 CE.
  • An Era based on 78 CE has come to be called the Saka Era, but it is also thought by some to be linked to the accession of Kanishka.
  • The Chalukya kingdom rapidly rose to prominence during the reign of Pulakesin II (AD 610–642). He was the greatest ruler of the Chalukyas. He consolidated his authority in Maharashtra and conquered large parts of Deccan.
  • The Cholas came to power after overthrowing the authority of the Pallavas in South India. The founder of the Chola dynasty was Vijayalaya (9th century AD) but the real architects of the glory of the dynasty were Rajaraja I (AD 985– AD 1014) and his son Rajendra I (AD 1014– AD 1044).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 38

Which one of the following statements about Earthquake waves is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 38

Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser the material, the higher the velocity. Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials with different densities.There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’.
The P-waves are similar to sound waves.
They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material, leading to stretching and squeezing of the material.
An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the Swaves is quite important. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
The surface waves are the last to report on seismographs. These waves are more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 39

Which of the following glaciers are formed due to the coalescence of several mountains or Valley glaciers at the foothill zone?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 39

At the foot of mountain ranges, several glaciers may converge to form an extensive ice mass called a piedmont glacier. The best-known Piedmont glacier is the Malaspina Glacier of Alaska, which is 65 miles long and 25 miles wide, covering an area of more than 1,600 square miles. Combined glaciers of such dimensions are now rare, and in most continents, only valley or Alpine glaciers are seen.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 40

Consider the following countries:

1. Uzbekistan

2. Kazakhstan

3. Tajikistan

4. Kyrgyzstan

5. Azerbaijan

How many of the above are part of the C + C5 grouping?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 40

Recently, China convened an online meeting of trade ministers of the grouping known as C+C5. The grouping includes China and the five Central Asian republics, namely Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Kyrgyzstan. The grouping led by China promotes China-Central Asia cooperation in various fields and international and regional issues of common concern.
The first C+C5 summit was held in virtual format on January 25, 2022, to commemorate the 30th anniversary of diplomatic relations between China and the Central Asian Nations. Trade between China and the five countries reached a record high of $70.2 billion last year. The region provides China with:

  • A readymade market for cheap exports.
  • Reserves of strategic minerals such as Uranium, Copper, Gold etc., and massive oil & gas reserves.
  • Provides China with overland access to markets of Europe and West Asia.

To this landlocked region, China offers access to the Pacific Ocean and East Asia through its Belt and Road Initiative. Beijing has invested billions of dollars in various projects (including oil and gas exploration; processing and manufacturing; rail, road and seaport connectivity; digital technologies; green energy etc.) in Uzbekistan and the other three smaller countries in the region.
Reports also indicate a transport and logistics project linking the Central Asian countries to Lianyungang seaport on the Yellow Sea in China’s Jiangsu province. China is also expanding the Horgos land port in Xinjiang province, improving connectivity with Central Asia and Europe.

India’s trade relations with these countries is hindered mainly because of:

  • Denial of direct land linkage by Pakistan.
  • Uncertainty in Afghanistan.

The Chabahar port of Iran offers an alternative route, but it is not fully developed as of now.

The C5+1 diplomatic platform represents the U.S. government’s whole of government approach to Central Asia, jointly engaging all five Central Asian governments (Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan).

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):

  1. It helps in securing monetary stability and managing liquidity in the economy.
  2. CRR has no floor or ceiling rate.
  3. It ensures safety to the people’s deposits in banks.
  4. It increases the cost of funds for the banks.
  5. Banks earn interest on CRR.
  6. It ensures solvency of Banks.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 41
  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the purposes of CRR is to manage liquidity (RBI can increase CRR to decrease liquidity in the economy) and it also ensures that a part of the hank’s deposit is with the Central Bank and is hence, safe.
  • Statement 2 is correct: “In terms of Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934 the Reserve Bank, having regard to the needs of securing the monetary stabihty in the country, prescribes the CRR for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) without any floor or ceding rate ”. Previously, there was a floor of 3% and ceiling of 20% on the CRR that could be imposed by the RBI: however since 2006 there is no minimum or maximum level of CRR that needs to be fixed by the central bank of India.
  • Statement 3 is correct: One of the basic reasons of keeping GBR with RBI is to provide safety to the pubhc deposits.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Increasing the CRR reduces the lendable resources of banks, which may lead to a scarcity of funds. This can push up interest rates as banks lend at higher rates to manage their reduced liquidity. Conversely, a decrease in the CRR can increase the lendable resources, potentially leading to lower interest rates.
  • Statement 5 is incorrect: Since banks do not earn interest on the CRR, so it is
  • idle money for the banks which increases costs for banks.
  • Statement 6 is correct: It also ensures solvency of hanks i.e. staying in business and proper functioning and liquidity situation.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

  • Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the amount of funds that banks have to maintain with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at all times.
  • if the central bank decides to increase the CRR, the amount avadable with the banks for disbursal comes down. The RBI uses the CRR to drain out excessive money from the system.
  • At present, the RBI does not pay any interest to the banks on the CRR deposits. Prior to 1962, a separate CRR was fixed in respect of demand and time liabilities, however after 1962 the separate CRRs were merged and one CRR came into effect for both demand and time deposits of banks with RBI.
  • The RBI has the authority to impose penal interest rates on the banks in respect of their shortfalls in the prescribed CRR. According to Master Circular on maintenance of statutory reserves updated up to June 2008, in case of default in maintenance of CRR requirement on daily basis, which is presently 70 per cent of the total CRR requirement, penal interest will be recovered at the rate of three 3% per annum above the bank rate on the amount by which the amount actually maintained falls short of.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 42

How many of the following authorities are established under the Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972?
1. National Board for Wildlife
2. Central Zoo Authority
3. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
4. Wildlife Institute of India

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 42
  • National Board for Wildlife - It is established under section 5A of the Wildlife Protection Act and serves as an apex body for the review of all wildlife-related matters and for the approval of projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Central Zoo Authority - It was established under section 38A of the Wildlife Protection Act and consists of a total of 10 members including the Chairperson and a Member-Secretary. The authority provides recognition to zoos and is also tasked with regulating the zoos across the country. It lays down guidelines and prescribes rules under which animals may be transferred among zoos nationally and internationally. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Wildlife Crime Control Bureau - The Wildlife Protection Act under section 38Y provides for the constitution of WCCB to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Wildlife Institute of India - Established in 1982 by government order, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an internationally acclaimed Institution, which offers a training program, academic courses and advisory in wildlife research and management. The Institute is actively engaged in research across the breadth of the country on biodiversity-related issues. Hence, option 4 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 43

ISRO's Project NETRA aims to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 43
  • ISRO initiated a project called Project NETRA, which is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
  • Under NETRA the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control centre. They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
  • Project NETRA consists of high-precision, long-range telescope in Leh and a radar in the North East. Along with them, the Multi-Object Tracking Radar (MOTR) at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, and the telescopes at Ponmudi and Mount Abu.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 44

As per the RBI definition, personal loans are the loans given to individuals that consist of

  1. consumer credit
  2. education loan
  3. loans given for the creation or enhancement of immovable assets
  4. loans given for investment in financial assets

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 44

Personal loans refers to loans given to individuals and consist of (a) consumer credit, (b) education loan, (c) loans given for creation/ enhancement of immovable assets (e.g., housing, etc.), and (d) loans given for investment in financial assets (shares, debentures, etc.).

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Seabed Authority:

1. It is an autonomous organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.

2. The Authority forms contracts with public corporations only.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 45

Statement 1 is correct: The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization of 168 member states and the European Union established under the 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and the 1994 Agreement on Implementation of Part XI of the UNCLOS. The ISA's dual mission is to authorize and control the development of mineral-related operations in the international seabed, considered the "common heritage of all mankind", and also to protect the ecosystem of the seabed, ocean floor, and subsoil in "The Area" beyond national jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The articles governing the Authority have been made "noting the political and economic changes, including market-oriented approaches, affecting the implementation" of the convention. The Authority operates by contracting with private and public corporations and other entities authorizing them to explore and potentially exploit specified areas on the deep seabed for mineral resources, such as cobalt, nickel, manganese etc.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 46

With reference to the ‘Mauryan empire’, consider the following statements:

1. Trade or exchange held the dominant share of  total state revenue.

2. The crafts were predominantly urban based hereditary occupations.

3. There was no uniform method of administration throughout the Empire.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 46
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Agriculture formed the backbone of the economy. It was the largest  sector in terms of its share in total revenue to the state and employment. Besides food grains, India also grew commercial crops such as sugarcane and cotton, described by Megasthenes as a reed that produced honey and trees on which wool grew. These were important commercial crops.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Crafts were predominantly urban based hereditary occupations and sons usually followed their fathers in the practice of various crafts. Craftsmen worked primarily as individuals, though royal workshops for producing cloth and other products also existed. Each craft had a head called pamukha (pramukha or leader) and a jettha (jyeshtha or elder) and was organised in a seni (sreni or a guild), so that the institutional identity superseded the individual in craft production.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Mauryan Empire contained smaller kingdoms with a range of administrative structures not necessarily similar to that in Magadha. Different parts of the empire like the core, the metropolis and the peripheries were administered in different ways. Thus there did not exist a uniform method of administration in the whole Mauryan Empire. While the core and the metropolis were directly administered by the state; the periphery region was given more autonomy as more importance was given to the collection of taxes and tributes from these regions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 47

Consider the following statements:

  1. Public-private partnership is the most common investment model in infrastructure financing in India.
  2. In the Build-Operate Transfer (BOT) model, the government hands over the constructing and operating rights to a private sector for a pre – determined period of time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 47

Investment Models

  • Public Investment Model: In this, investment is made by central or state governments or by public sector enterprises.
  • Private Investment Model: In this, the government invites private players to invest in specific sectors/ventures. Private players may be domestic or foreign. Governments increasingly try to attract Foreign Direct Investments because of their long-term nature and other benefits like technology transfer, employment generation etc.
  • PPP is a mode of providing public infrastructure and services by Government in partnership with private sector. It is a long-term arrangement between Government and private sector entity for provision of public utilities and services. It has the most common investment model in infrastructure financing in India. There are various types of PPP models:
  • In Build-Operate Transfer (BOT), the government will hand over the constructing and operating rights to a private sector. This will be given for a pre - determined period of time. Once the period is completed, this will be taken back by the government. Role of the private sector partner is to bring the finance for the project and take the responsibility to construct and maintain it. In return, the public sector will allow it to collect revenue from the users.
  • In Build Own Operate (BOO), the government grants the right to finance, design, build, operate and maintain a project to a private entity, which retains ownership of the project. The private entity is not required to transfer the facility back to the government.
  • In Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT), the private sector builds and owns the facility for the duration of the contract, with the primary goal of recouping construction costs (and more) during the operational phase. At the end of the contract the facility is handed back to the government. Build-Own Operate-Transfer (BOOT) structure is suitable when the government has a large infrastructure fi financing gap as the equity and commercial risk stays with the private sector for the length of the contract. This model is often used for school and hospital contracts.
  • In Design, Build, Finance and Operate (DBFO), the private party assumes the entire responsibility for the design, construction, finance, and operate the project for the period of concession.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 48

With respect to the Powers and Privileges of Members of Parliament in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced these provisions to India, which was inspired by Britain’s House of Commons.
2. The powers and privileges of the Houses of Parliament are enshrined in Article 105 of the Constitution.
3. A defamation suit cannot be fi led for a statement made in the House.
4. The Speaker or House handles free speech breaches instead of the court for House Members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 48

Powers and Privileges of Members of Parliament

What does Article 105 say?

  • Article 105 of the Constitution deals with “powers, privileges, etc. of the Houses of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof”, and has four clauses.
  • “Subject to the provisions of this Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament, there shall be freedom of speech in Parliament.
  • No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.
  • In other respects, the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and of the members and the committees of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defi ned by Parliament by law, and, until so defi ned, shall be those of that House and of its members and committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.
  • The provisions of clauses (1), (2) and (3) shall apply in relation to persons who by virtue of this Constitution have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, a House of Parliament or any committee thereof as they apply in relation to members of Parliament.”
  • Simply put, Members of Parliament are exempted from any legal action for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties. For example, a defamation suit cannot be fi led for a statement made in the House.
  • This immunity extends to certain nonmembers as well, such as the Attorney General for India or a Minister who may not be a member but speaks in the House. In cases where a Member oversteps or exceeds the contours of admissible free speech, the Speaker or the House itself will deal with it, as opposed to the court.

So are there absolutely no restrictions on this privilege?

  • There are some, indeed. For example Article 121 of the Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament regarding the “conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge”.

Where did the idea of this privilege of Parliament originate?

  • The Government of India Act, 1935 fi rst brought this provision to India, with references to the powers and privileges enjoyed by the House of Commons in Britain. An initial draft of the Constitution too contained the reference to the House of Commons, but it was subsequently dropped.
  • However, unlike India where the Constitution is paramount, Britain follows Parliamentary supremacy. The privileges of the House of Commons are based in common law, developed over centuries through precedents.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

1. Pidhadeul and Khakra are the main architectural features of the Odisha temples.

2. The Jagannath temple at Puri is dedicated to Shiva.

3. Mandapas are called Deul, and Shikharas are called Jagamohana in the Odisha style of temple architecture.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 49
  • The main architectural features of the Odisha temples are classified in three orders, viz., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra.
  • The Jagannath temple at Puri is an important Hindu temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Vishnu one of the trinity of the supreme divinity in Hinduism. Puri is in the state of 
  • Odisha, on the eastern coast of India.
  • The Somavamsa king Indradyumna of Abanti had built the main temple of Lord Jagannath at Puri.
  • In general, here the Shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top, when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by the Mandapas, called Jagamohana in Odisha.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 50

With reference to the ‘Second Five-year plan’, consider the following statements:

1. P.C. Mahalanobis played an important role in its formulation.

2. The plan emphasised rapid industrialisation, particularly in heavy and basic industries.

3. It put more emphasis on capital goods, which resulted in a scarcity of essential commodities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 50

Statement 1 is correct: The Second FiveYear plan was built on a strategy of longterm development of the economy. The draft of this Plan was prepared by P. C. Mahalanobis and Nehru, the Prime Ministers of the country at the time. This strategy is often called the NehruMahalanobis growth strategy.
Statement 2 is correct: The Plan Focused on the rapid industrialisation of the economy, particularly heavy & basic industries. It advocated huge imports through foreign loans. It was argued that the development of the industrial sector is a precondition for the development of agricultural and other sectors. Hence, during this phase of planning, capital goods industries like iron and steel, heavy engineering, machine tools and heavy chemical industries were given high priority.
Statement 3 is correct: This strategy, however, had its limitations as it put more emphasis on capital goods, which resulted in a scarcity of essential commodities. The problem became acute in the later years of the Second FYP when there was food scarcity due to bad harvest.
Consequently, in the subsequent Plans, greater attention was given to agriculture. As opposed to the emphasis on the role of capital goods, the emphasis was on the role of consumer goods.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 51

With reference to the Brahmo Samaj, consider the following statements:

  1. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
  2. The agenda was to purify Hinduism based on monotheism.
  3. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 51
  • The Brahmo tradition of Raja Rammohun Roy was carried forward after 1843 by Devendranath Tagore, who also repudiated the doctrine that the Vedic scriptures were infallible, and after 1866 by Keshub Chandra Sen. The Brahmo Samaj made an effort to reform Hindu religion by removing abuses and basing it on the worship of One God‘ (monotheism), and on the teachings of the Vedas and the Upanishads, even though it repudiated the doctrine of the infallibility of the Vedas.
  • It also tried to incorporate the best aspects of modern western thought. Most of all, it based itself on human reason which was to be the ultimate criterion for deciding what was worthwhile and what was useless in the past or present religious principles and practices.
  • For that reason, the Brahmo Samaj denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious writings. Every individual had the right and the capacity to decide with the help of his own intellect what was right and what was wrong in a religious book or principle. Thus, the Brahmos were basically opposed to idolatry, and superstitious practices and rituals, in fact to the entire Brahmanical system.
  • They could worship One God‘ without the mediation of the priests. They actively opposed the caste system and child-marriage, and supported the general uplift of women, including widow remarriage, and the spread of modern education to men and women. The Brahmo Samaj was weakened by internal dissensions in the second half of the 19th century. Moreover, its influence was confined mostly to the urban educated groups.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 52

With respect to the Parliamentary proceedings in India, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Zero Hour is usually used to raise matters that are urgent and can wait for the notice period required under other procedures.
Statement-II: For raising matters during the Zero Hour, MPs give notice before 10 am to the Chairman on the day of the sitting.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 52

Zero Hour

  • The Zero Hour is usually used to raise matters that are urgent and cannot wait for the notice period required under other procedures.
  • For raising matters during the Zero Hour, MPs give notice before 10 am to the Chairman on the day of the sitting.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding the galvanization process:

  1. Its primary purpose is to prevent corrosion of metal surfaces.
  2. Zinc is commonly used as a coating in the Galvanization process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 53
  • Galvanisation or galvanization is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to iron or steel, to prevent rusting. The most common method is hot dip galvanizing, in which steel sections are submerged in a bath of molten zinc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The primary purpose of galvanizing is to provide protection against corrosion for metal surfaces, particularly steel. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • This process offers several advantages:
    • Corrosion Resistance: The zinc coating acts as a sacrificial anode, meaning that it corrodes preferentially to the underlying steel or iron. This sacrificial corrosion helps protect the base metal from rust and corrosion.
    • Durable Coating: Zinc is a highly durable and long-lasting metal, providing a protective layer that withstands environmental exposure, including moisture, humidity, and various atmospheric conditions.
    • Extended Lifespan: Galvanizing significantly extends the lifespan of steel or iron structures and components. The corrosion resistance provided by the zinc coating helps prevent the gradual deterioration of the underlying metal.
    • Low Maintenance: Galvanized surfaces require minimal maintenance. The protective zinc layer continues to provide corrosion resistance even if it becomes scratched or damaged, reducing the need for frequent reapplication of coatings.
    • Cost-Effective: While there is an initial cost associated with the galvanizing process, the long-term cost-effectiveness is high due to the extended lifespan of the galvanized metal and the reduced need for maintenance.
    • Cathodic Protection: The zinc coating acts as a cathode in the electrochemical corrosion process. This cathodic protection helps prevent the corrosion of the underlying steel, which serves as the anode.
    • Uniform Coating: Galvanizing provides a uniform and complete coating on all surfaces, including intricate shapes and hard-to-reach areas. This ensures comprehensive corrosion protection for the entire metal structure.
    • Environmentally Friendly: Zinc is a natural element and is recyclable. The galvanizing process generates minimal waste, and the zinc coating can be recycled at the end of its useful life.
  • Common applications of galvanizing include the protection of structural steel in buildings, bridges, fences, guardrails, and various industrial equipment. Galvanized coatings are also used in the production of pipes, electrical conduits, and automotive components, among other applications.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 54

Consider the following statements about the interior of the Earth:
1. The continental crust is primarily made up of silica and magnesium.
2. The upper portion of the mantle is called the Asthenosphere.
3. The core forms the most of the volume of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 54
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The uppermost layer over the earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all the layers. It is about 35 km on the continental masses and only 5 km on the ocean floors. The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. It is thus called sial (si-silica and alalumina). The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it is called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending up to 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions.
    The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The radius of the earth is 6371 km. The crust forms only 1 percent of the volume of the earth, 84 per cent consists of the mantle, and 15 per cent makes the core.
    The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel and iron and is called nife (ni – nickel and fe – ferrous, i.e. iron). The central core has very high temperature and pressure. The outer core is in liquid state, while the inner core is in solid state.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 55

“Industry 4.0 is based on six design principles to support companies in identifying and implementing Industry 4.0 scenarios.’’

Which of the following is not one of the principles?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 55

Fourth Industrial Revolution

  • The fourth industrial revolution, 4IR or Industry 4.0 embodies the rapid change in technology, industry, and society in the 21st century.
  • Industry 4.0 is a complex Cyber-Physical Systems which synergizes production with digital technologies, the Internet of Things, Artificial Intedigence, Big Data & Analytics, Machine Learning and Cloud Computing. The term 'Industry 4.0’ was coined by the German government in 2011.
  • Aclchtive manufacturing, Internet of Things, Cyber Physical Systems, Augmented Reality/Virtual Reality and data analytics are some of the technologies associated with Industry 4.0.
  • With the help of these technologies, the manufacturing industry wdl be able to make data-driven decisions.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 56

The Mission LiFE, a global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment,  introduced by India at 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 56
  • Context: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) adopted a resolution on sustainable lifestyles submitted by India, and co-sponsored by Sri Lanka and Bolivia.
  • Mission LiFE, introduced by India at UNFCCC COP26 (Oct 2022), aims to encourage individual and community actions for environmental preservation. It operates in three phases: changing demand by nudging individuals towards eco-friendly practices, changing supply by enabling industries to meet this demand, and changing policy to support Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - Question 57

Consider the following statements:

1. The Pandrethan temple of Kashmir is constructed on a plinth built in the middle of a tank.

2. During the Karkota period, most of the Buddhist and Hindu temples were destroyed in Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?