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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

1. Factory Price is the input cost the producer has to incur in the process of producing something.

2. Market Cost is derived after deducting the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 1

Statement 2 is incorrect: Basically, ‘factor cost’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing something (such as cost of capital, i.e., interest on loans, raw materials, labour, rent, power, etc.).

Factors affecting the price of a commodity

  • This is also termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production cost/price’. This is nothing but ‘price’ of the commodity from the producer’s side.
  • While the ‘market cost’ is derived after adding the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product, it means the cost at which the goods reach the market, i.e., showrooms (these are the cenvat/central excise and the CST which are paid by the producers to the central government in India).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 2

With reference to the ancient temple architecture of Central India, consider the following statements:

1. These temples are mostly made of white marble.

2. The Dashavtara temple is made in the Panchayatan style.

3. Most of the temples of this region are either east facing or north facing.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 2

The Temples of Central India:

  • Ancient temples of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan share many traits. The most visible is that they are made of sandstone.
  • The Dashavtara temple at Deogarh (in Lalitpur District, Uttar Pradesh) was built in the early sixth century CE. This makes it a classic example of a late Gupta period type of temple. This temple is in the Panchayatan style of architecture, where the main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four smaller subsidiary shrines at the four corners (making it a total number of five shrines, hence the name, Panchayatan).
  • Most of the temples in this region are either east facing or north facing.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 3

Consider the following:

  1. Provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners
  2. Vocational training and skill development
  3. Separate accommodation for individual women and transgender inmates
  4. Use of technology in prison administration to establish high-security jails

How many of the proposals is/are included under Model Prisons Act 2023?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 3

The Model Prisons Act 2023 includes several progressive reforms and proposals for the management and administration of prisons in India. Let's analyze the given proposals:

1. Provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners
   - This is included under the Model Prisons Act 2023. The act emphasizes the reformative aspects of prison administration, including provisions for parole, furlough, and remission.

2. Vocational training and skill development
   - This is also included. The act promotes vocational training and skill development for prisoners to aid their rehabilitation and reintegration into society.

3. Separate accommodation for individual women and transgender inmates
   - This provision is included under the Model Prisons Act 2023 to ensure the safety, security, and specific needs of women and transgender inmates.

4. Use of technology in prison administration to establish high-security jails
   - This is included as well. The act encourages the use of technology in prison administration, including the establishment of high-security jails to improve the overall security and management of prisons.

All four proposals are included under the Model Prisons Act 2023. Therefore, the correct answer is:

3. All four

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 4

Consider the following passage: This Greek ruler concluded an important treaty with Chandragupta Maurya. He ceded to Chandragupta the territories of Arachosia (the Kandahar area of south-east Afghanistan), Gedrosia (south Baluchistan), and Paropomisadai (area between Afghanistan and the Indian subcontinent). Chandragupta is said to have reciprocated by gifting 500 war elephants to this ruler. Alongside this treaty, the general rights of intermarriage between the Greeks and the Indians were also acknowledged.

Which of the following ruler has been referred in the above-given passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 4
  • Sandracottus is actually a Greek form of the Sanskrit name Chandragupta. Graeco-Roman sources also speak highly of the trans-Vindhyan military exploits of Sandracottus. Plutarch mentions that Sandracottus over-ran and subdued the whole of ‘India’ with an army of 600,000 men.
  • Seleucus I Nicator was one of the generals of Alexander the Great. Despite not receiving his share of the fallen king's empire until several years later, Seleucus I Nicator was one of the more capable of the successors to Alexander's empire. Seleucus and his descendants established what became known as the Seleucid Empire. Greek sources mention a treaty signed between Seleucus Nikator and Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Historians estimate the year of Chandragupta’s rise to power in a band stretching from 324 BC to 313 BC; however, it is generally accepted that he ascended the throne in 321 BC. Even accepting the least recent year for his accession would, however, place him after Alexander had left India — and just before the Greek emperor’s death in Babylon. Thus, no treaty would have been possible with him.
  • Plutarch was a Greek-Roman philosopher, historian, biographer, essayist, and priest at the Temple of Apollo in Delphi. He was not a ruler or a general.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 5

With reference to phenomena of formation of the rainbow, consider the following statements:

  1. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
  2. The sunlight undergoes refraction and dispersion in the water droplets to form the colors of a rainbow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 5
  • Statement 1 is correct: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colors reach the observer's eye.
  • Since it involves the total internal reflection of sunlight, the light is reflected back in the direction it originally came from. Hence you can only see a rainbow if your back is facing the sun.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding speciation:

1. Speciation is the process by which new species are formed and evolution is the mechanism.
2. The most common way a population undergoes speciation is by geographic isolation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is correct: The number of species surviving in the world today is the outcome of two processes viz. speciation and extinction.
  • Speciation is the process by which new species are formed and evolution is the mechanism by which speciation is brought about.
  • A species comprises of many populations. Often different populations of a species remain isolated due to some geographic barrier such as mountain, ocean, river, etc.
  • Geographic isolation occurs when a physical barrier develops between two populations of a species.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The most common way a population undergoes speciation is by geographic isolation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 7

With reference to the Montagu Chelmsford reforms, consider the following statements:

  1. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
  2. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for the Sikhs, Indian Christians and the Dalits. 
  3. It provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 7

The Montagu Chelmsford Reforms:

  • In line with the government policy contained in Montagu‘s statement of August, 1917, the government announced further constitutional reforms in July, 1918, known as the Montagu Chelmsford, or the Mont Ford Reforms. Based on these, the Government of India Act, 1919, was enacted.
  • The Act introduced dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government.
  • It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for the Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and the Europeans.
  • It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature, consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.
  • It provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 8

In India, Internal Debt comprises

  1. Non-interest-bearing rupee securities issued to International Financial Institutions.
  2. Loans raised in the open market
  3. Treasury bills issued to State Governments

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 8

Internal Debt comprises loans raised in the open market, compensation and other bonds, etc. It also includes borrowings through treasury bills including treasury bills issued to State Governments, Commercial Banks and other Investors, as well as non-negotiable, non-interest bearing rupee securities issued to International Financial Institutions.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 9

Consider the following statements

  1. Originally, the Constitution of India expressedly mentioned five privileges.
  2. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
  3. Till now, the Parliament of India has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges.

How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 9
  • Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: The Supreme Court ruled that MPs and MLAs can’t claim immunity for bribery. Article 105(2) and 194(2) protections have been overturned.
    • The case involved Sita Soren (daughter-in-law of JMM chief Shibu Soren) accused of taking bribes for the vote.
  • S2: The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
  • S1 and S3: Originally, the Constitution (Article 105) expressedly mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. With regard to other privileges, it provided that they were to be the same as those of the British House of Commons, its committees and its members on the date of its commencement (ie, 26 January, 1950), until defined by Parliament.
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 provided that the other privileges of each House of Parliament, its committees and its members are to be those which they had on the date of its commencement (ie, 20 June, 1979), until defined by Parliament. This means that the position with regard to other privileges remains same. In other words, the amendment has made only verbal changes by dropping a direct reference to the British House of Commons, without making any change in the implication of the provision.
  • It should be noted here that the Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources, namely, 1. Constitutional provisions, 2. Various laws made by Parliament, 3. Rules of both the Houses, 4. Parliamentary conventions, and 5. Judicial interpretations.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to cultural impacts of Indo-Iranian contact:

1. Punch marked coins came into use in India as a result of contact with Iran.

2. Kharosthi script which unlike Arabic is written from right to left was brought to India by Iranian scribes.

3. Ashokan pillars drew inspiration from Iranian pillars.

How many of the above mentioned statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 10

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Achaemenid rulers of Iran,who expanded their empire at the same time as Magadhan princes took advantage of the political disunity on the north-west frontier. The Indo-Iranian contact lasted for about 200 years.It gave an impetus to IndoIranian trade and commerce. Iranian coins are found in the North-west frontier region which points to the existence of Indo-Iranian But it is wrong to think that the punch-marked coins came into use in India as a result of contact with Iran.
However,various Mahajanapadas issued punch-marked coins in the sixth century BC.
Puranas, Karshapanas, and Panas, the first Indian punch-marked coins, were produced in the 6th century BC by the numerous Janapadas and Mahajanapadas of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Iranian scribes brought into India a form of writing which came to be known as the kharosthi script. It was written from right to left like the Arabic.
Some Ashokan inscriptions in north-west India were written in third century B.C. in this script, which continued to be used in the country till 3rd century A.D.
Statement 3 is correct: Iranian influence on Maurya sculpture is clearly perceptible.The monuments of Ashoka's time, especially the bell-shaped capitals, owed to Iranian models. Iranian influence may also be traced in the preamble of Ashoka's edicts as well as in certain terms used in them. For instance, for Iranian term ‘dipi’, the Ashokan scribe used the term ‘lipi’. Inscription of proclamations on pillars was prevalent in the west Achaemenid empire.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 11

With reference to the limited Satyagraha on an individual basis, consider the following statements:

  1. The demand was to achieve complete independence.
  2. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the first to offer the Satyagraha.
  3. The aim of launching was to express people‟s feelings that they were not interested in the War.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 11

The government had taken the adamant position that no constitutional advance could be made till Congress came to an agreement with the Muslim leaders. It issued ordinance after ordinance, taking away the freedom of speech and that of the press, and the right to organize associations. Towards the end of 1940, the Congress once again asked Gandhi to take command. Gandhi now began taking steps that would lead to a mass struggle within his broad strategic perspective. He decided to initiate a limited Satyagraha on an individual basis by a few selected individuals in every locality. The aims of launching individual Satyagraha were –

  • To show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness;
  • To express people‘s feeling that they were not interested in the War and that they made no distinction between Nazism and the double autocracy that ruled India; and
  • To give another opportunity to the government to accept Congress‘ demands peacefully.

The demand of the Satyagrahi would be the freedom of speech, not complete independence, against the war through an anti-war declaration. If the government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it, but move into villages and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement that came to be known as the Delhi Chalo Movement‘.
Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer the Satyagraha and Nehru, the second.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 12

In the field of forensic science, which chemical is commonly used to detect the presence of blood at crime scenes?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 12
  • Luminol is a chemical compound with the molecular formula C8H7N3O2. It contains carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms.
  • Luminol exhibits chemiluminescence, a phenomenon where a chemical reaction produces light. The reaction involves the oxidation of luminol, typically catalyzed by the presence of iron or other catalysts found in blood.
  • Hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein in red blood cells, acts as a catalyst for the reaction. When luminol comes into contact with blood, the iron in hemoglobin catalyzes the oxidation of luminol, resulting in the release of energy in the form of light.
  • The emitted light is in the blue part of the spectrum and is often faint. However, even small amounts of blood can produce a detectable glow. The chemiluminescent reaction enhances the visibility of bloodstains, especially in low-light or dark conditions.
  • Luminol is particularly useful in crime scene investigations where investigators need to identify and locate potential bloodstains that may not be visible under normal lighting. This includes situations where attempts have been made to clean or conceal blood.
  • The use of luminol raises ethical considerations related to the potential destruction of evidence. The chemiluminescent reaction involves the oxidation of blood, which could hinder subsequent DNA analysis. Therefore, its application is carefully considered in conjunction with other forensic techniques.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

1. The process for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is governed by Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Chief Justice of India may receive a motion from at least four out of seven judges of the Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 13

Impeachment of Judges:

  • The process for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is governed by Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Initiation: The process can be initiated in either of the two ways:
  • The President may receive a motion from at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha regarding the removal of a judge.
  • The Chief Justice of India may receive a motion from at least four out of seven judges of the Supreme Court.

Investigation Committee

  • Similar to the process for the President, an investigation committee is formed to investigate the charges against the judge.
  • The committee comprises three members, including the Chief Justice of India or any other judge of the Supreme Court and two distinguished jurists.

Address to the President

  • The investigation committee submits its report to the President, who will then decide whether to proceed with the removal process or not.

Parliamentary Vote

  • If the President fi nds the charges against the judge valid, the removal motion is taken up in both Houses of Parliament.
  • Similar to the President’s impeachment, the removal motion must be supported by a special majority in each House.

President’s Order

  • After the motion is passed in both Houses, the President issues an order removing the judge from offi ce.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The India is an indestructible union of destructible States.
Statement-II: Union of India is divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 14

Both the statements are correct: Article 1 describes India as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. 

Notes:

Union of India

  • This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity.
  • According to Constitution, ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons:
  • One, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and
  • Two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.
  • The federation is a Union because it is indestructible.
  • The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
  • The ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
  • The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre.
  • The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 15

Which of the following factors are responsible for the declining Female Labour Force Participation Rate in the economy?

1. Delayed entry of rural women into the Labour market due to pursuing higher education.

2. Absence of quality jobs.

3. Relatively higher responsibilities of unpaid work.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 15

The arguments advanced in support of the declining female LFPR are from both the supply and demand side are:

Supply side factors:

  • More women in rural areas are now pursuing higher education has delayed their entry into the labour market.
  • The household incomes have risen in rural areas on account of higher wage levels which is dragging women out of the labour market.
  • Cultural factors, social constraints and patriarchal norms restricting the mobility and freedom of women.
  • The relatively higher responsibilities of unpaid work and unpaid care work.

Demand side factors:

  • Absence of job opportunities and quality jobs and significant gender wage gap are restraining factors.
  • Structural shift away from agricultural employment, and increased mechanisation of agriculture.
  • The decline in animal husbandry, and in urban areas a fall in international demand for products of labour-intensive industries
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 16

Consider the following dynasties:

1. Sisunaga

2. Haryanka

3. Nanda

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above dynasties from past to present?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 16

Haryanka Dynasty(544-413 BC): Haryanka is the name of a new dynasty founded in Magadha by Bimbisara after overthrowing the Brihadrathas.
Sisunaga Dynasty(413-345 BC): According to the Buddhist tradition Udayin and his three successors were all unworthy to rule. So the people got disgusted and elected Sisunaga as the king, the minister of the last king, and hence called it the Sisunaga Dynasty.
Nanda Dynasty(345-322 BC): Kalasoka, the son and the successor of Sisunaga, was succeeded by a barber (according to some accounts) named Mahapadma Nanda, who founded a new dynasty known as the Nandas.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 17

Consider the following statements.

  1. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolve better in warm water than cold water.
  2. The rise in water temperature accelerates metabolism, and the organisms need more food to maintain this metabolic rate.
  3. High water temperatures does not harm the animals living at the bottom of oceans, lakes or rivers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 17

Only statement 2 is correct.

  • In a warming world, marine creatures are in danger of suffocating. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolve better at colder temperatures, so that means the warmer the water, the less oxygen is available to breathe.
  • Conversely, higher temperatures also cause an increase in metabolism, which in turn means animals have to breathe even more than usual.
  • The rise in temperature accelerates metabolism, and the organisms need more food to maintain this metabolic rate.
  • Algal blooms are more common in hotter waters too. Such blooms can further deplete oxygen levels and produce toxins harmful for fish, marine mammals and birds, for instance.
  • High water temperatures are most harmful for animals living at the bottom of oceans, lakes or rivers. These benthic species include corals, mussels, sponges, starfish and plants like sea grasses, and are often attached to rock or solid ground. They can’t migrate when it gets too hot.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the Tea Board of India:

  1. It is a statutory body set up under Tea Act 1953.
  2. It comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  3. Its head office is located in the Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 18
  • Recent Context: Tea Board has mandated all tea producers to limit generation of tea waste not exceeding 0.2% of production for quality produce.
    • Presently, tea waste is being used for producing instant tea, bio-fertiliser and caffeine.
    • Board is in process of allowing tea waste being used only for production of instant tea.
  • About Tea Board India
    • Nature: Statutory body set up under Tea Act 1953. Hence, statement 1 is correct. o Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Head Office: Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    • Functions: Financial and technical assistance for cultivation, manufacture and marketing of tea, export promotion etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 19

The Indian constitution guarantees the ‘Protection of Rights’ of every Indian citizen. Consider the following in this context?

1. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
2. Move freely throughout the territory of India
3. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

How many of the above-mentioned are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 19

Right to Freedom

  • Protection of Right to -
    • Freedom of speech and expression
    • Assemble peacefully
    • Form associations/unions
    • Move freely throughout the territory of India
    • Reside and settle in any part of India
    • Practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
    • Protection in respect of conviction for offences
    • Right to life and personal liberty
    • Right to education
    • Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 20

Which of the following describes gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 20

Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 21

With respect to the types of government, consider the following pairs:
1. Monarchy - United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, and Brazil
2. Socialist - Sweden, Norway, and Cuba
3. Authoritarian regime - China and North Korea
4. Federal - United States, Germany, and Japan

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 21
  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Monarchy - United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, and Japan
  • Pair 2 is correct: Socialist government - Sweden, Norway, and Cuba
  • Pair 3 is correct: Authoritarian regime - China and North Korea
  • Pair 4 is incorrect: Federal government - United States, Germany, and Brazil.

Notes

Types of Government

  • Governments come in various forms, each with its own set of characteristics and principles. Here are some common types of government:
  • Democracy: In a democracy, the power is vested in the hands of the people. Citizens participate in decisionmaking through voting and electing representatives. Examples include the United States, Canada, and India.
  • Monarchy: A monarchy is a government where a single individual, usually a king or queen, holds supreme authority. This authority is typically inherited and passed down through generations. Examples include the United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, and Japan.
  • Dictatorship: In a dictatorship, power is concentrated in the hands of one person or a small group, who exercise absolute control over the government and its policies. Examples include North Korea, Cuba under Fidel Castro, and former Iraq under Saddam Hussein.
  • Theocracy: A theocracy is a government where religious leaders hold the highest positions of power, and religious law shapes the policies and governance of the country. Examples include Iran, Vatican City, and Saudi Arabia.
  • Oligarchy: An oligarchy is a government controlled by a small group of individuals who possess wealth, social status, or military power. Their infl uence often suppresses the participation of the broader population. Examples include Russia during the rule of the oligarchs in the 1990s and ancient Sparta.
  • Socialist government: A socialist government aims to establish social and economic equality by advocating for the collective ownership and control of resources and means of production. Examples include Sweden, Norway, and Cuba.
  • Authoritarian regime: An authoritarian regime is characterized by strong central authority and limited political freedoms. The government exercises strict control over society, often suppressing dissent and opposition. Examples include China, North Korea, and Belarus.
  • Federal government: In a federal system, power is divided between a central government and various regional or state governments. This system allows for both centralized decision-making and regional autonomy. Examples include the United States, Germany, and Brazil.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with respect to biota of oceans:
1. Biota of the pelagic region is less rich in species compared to the littoral zone.
2. Dinoflagellates and Kelp forests are part of the biota of the Neritic zone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 22

To determine which of the statements about the biota of oceans is correct, let's examine each statement in detail.

1. Biota of the pelagic region is less rich in species compared to the littoral zone.
   - The pelagic region refers to the open ocean, away from the shore and above the ocean floor. The littoral zone is the coastal area, extending from the high tide mark to the edge of the continental shelf.
   - The littoral zone typically has higher species richness due to the availability of sunlight, nutrients, and diverse habitats. In contrast, the pelagic region, especially the open ocean, often has fewer species because of the limited availability of nutrients and habitat complexity.
   - Therefore, this statement is generally correct.

2. Dinoflagellates and Kelp forests are part of the biota of the Neritic zone.
   - The Neritic zone refers to the coastal waters over the continental shelf, extending from the low tide mark to the edge of the continental shelf. It is characterized by abundant sunlight and nutrients, making it rich in marine life.
   - Dinoflagellates are a type of plankton found in various marine environments, including the Neritic zone.
   - Kelp forests are large brown algae that grow in underwater "forests" in shallow ocean areas, typically within the Neritic zone.
   - Therefore, this statement is correct.

Since both statements are accurate, the correct answer is:

3. Both 1 and 2

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 23

Rotterdam Convention, often seen in news, is related to 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 23

Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent Procedures (PIC) that entered into force on 24th February, 2004, is a legally binding instrument, which was adopted on 10th September 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam. India acceded to the Convention on 24.05.2006.

The Convention seeks to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among State Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm. 

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding Niche:

1. It is the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat.
2. Two species having the same niche can have the same habitat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 24
  • In nature, many species occupy the same habitat but they perform different functions.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat are referred to as “niche” in that common habitat. Habitat of a species is like its ‘address’ (i.e. where it lives) whereas niche can be thought of as its “profession” (i.e. activities and responses specific  to the species).
  • The term niche means the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction. 
  • A niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. This is because if two species occupy the same niche they will compete with one another until one is displaced.
  • For example, a large number of different species of insects may be pests of the same plant but they can co-exist as they feed on different parts of the same plant.
  • Another example is the vegetation of the forest. The forest can support a large number of plant species as they occupy different niches: the tall trees, the short trees, shrubs, bushes and grasses are all part of the forest but because of varying heights they differ in their requirements for sunlight and nutrients and so can survive together.
  • The most important resources in the niches of animals are food and shelter while in case of plants, they are moisture and nutrients (phosphorous and nitrogen).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 25

Consider the following statements with reference to biocredits:

  1. Biocredits are similar to carbon credits and they are designed to offset actions with negative impacts on biodiversity.
  2. To promote biocredits, the Biodiversity Credit Alliance was launched at CoP15 of UNFCCC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 25
  • Recent Context: Biodiversity credits or biocredits are increasingly being pushed as a means for financing work on the various targets set under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022 at the 15th Conference of Parties (CoP15) of Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Through 2023, efforts were made to promote them at different fora. They were discussed at CoP28 of the UNFCCC in Dubai in December 2023. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • While biocredits are similar to carbon credits used to control greenhouse gas emissions. But they are not designed to offset or compensate for actions with negative impacts on biodiversity. Instead, proceeds from the sale of bio credits are used to protect and restore biodiversity where it exists. Hence statement 1 is not correct
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 26

In a nuclear fission reactor, what is the purpose of the control rods?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 26
  • A nuclear reactor is a complex system designed for the controlled release of nuclear energy. Its basic components include 
    • Fuel Assemblies: The core of a nuclear reactor contains fuel assemblies, which are clusters of fuel rods. The fuel rods typically contain uranium-235 or plutonium-239 isotopes.
    • Control Rods: Control rods are inserted or withdrawn from the reactor core to control the rate of the nuclear reaction. They are typically made of materials that can absorb neutrons, such as boron or cadmium. Adjusting the position of control rods regulates the reactor power. 
    • Coolant: Coolant circulates through the reactor core to transfer heat away from the fuel assemblies. Common coolants include water, heavy water (deuterium oxide), or liquid sodium. The coolant absorbs the heat generated during fission reactions.
    • Steam Generator: In pressurized water reactors (PWRs), the coolant transfers heat to a secondary loop, which generates steam. The steam is then used to turn turbines connected to generators, producing electricity.
    • The turbine converts the kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy, which is then used to drive a generator. The generator converts this mechanical energy into electrical energy.
  • These components work together to maintain a controlled and sustainable nuclear reaction, extract heat from the system, and generate electricity safely and efficiently. The specific design and configuration of nuclear reactors can vary based on the reactor type (e.g., pressurized water reactor, boiling water reactor) and the intended application.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Sun temple at Modhera:

1. It was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Chalukya dynasty.

2. Surya Kund is a massive rectangular stepped tank located at the front of the temple.

3. At the time of the summer solstice, the Sun shines directly into the central shrine of the temple.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 27
  • The Sun temple at Vlodhera dates back to the \arly eleventh century and was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty.
  • There is a massive rectangular stepped tank, called the Surya Kund, in front of it. Proximity of sacred architecture to a water body, such as a tank, a river or a pond, has been noticed right from the earliest times. By the early eleventh century, they had become a part of many temples. This hundred-square-metre rectangular pond is perhaps the grandest temple tank in India.
  • The walls of the central small shrine are devoid of carving and are left plain, as the temple faces the east and, every year, at the time of the equinoxes, the Sun shined directly into this central shrine.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 28

With reference to the proposal of the August Offer, consider the following statements:

  1. During the War, an interim government, comprising different parties of India, would be constituted.
  2. There would be an expansion of the Viceroy‟s Executive Council.
  3. No future Constitution to be adopted without the consent of the minorities.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 28

As the War in Europe had undertaken a new turn, the dominant Congress leadership was again in a dilemma. Both Gandhi and Nehru strongly opposed the idea of taking advantage of Britain‘s position. The Congress was ready to compromise, asking the British Government to let it form an interim government during the War period, but the government was not interested. The government came up with its own offer to get the cooperation of India in the War effort. Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August, 1940), which proposed:

  • Dominion Status as the objective for India; · Expansion of the Viceroy‘s Executive Council, which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties);
  • Setting up of a Constituent Assembly after the War, where mainly the Indians would decide the Constitution, according to their social, economic and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with the States, all India services; and
  • No future Constitution to be adopted without the consent of the minorities.

During the War, an interim government, comprising different parties of India would be constituted; it was a proposal of the Cripps Mission.
The Congress rejected the August Offer. Nehru said, ―Dominion Status concept is dead as a doornail.‖ The Muslim League welcomed the veto assurance given to the League, and reiterated its position that partition was the only solution to the deadlock.
For the first time, the inherent right of the Indians to frame their Constitution was recognised and the Congress demand for a Constituent Assembly was conceded. Dominion Status was explicitly offered. In July, 1941, the Viceroy‘s Executive Council was enlarged to give the Indians a majority of 8 out of 12 for the first time, but the British remained in charge of defence, finance and home. Also, a National Defence Council was set up with a purely advisory function.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 29

Which one of the following statement is not correct about Monopolistic Competition Market structure?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 29

Option (b) is correct: Unlike perfect competition, monopolistic competition does not assume the lowest possible cost of production. The companies under a monopolistic competition structure sell very similar products with slight differences they use as the basis of their marketing and advertising.

Competitive Behaviour vs. Competitive Structure

  • A perfectly competitive market has been defi ned as one where an individual fi rm is unable to infl uence the price at which the product is sold in the market.
  • Since price remains the same for any level of output of the individual fi rm, such a fi rm is able to sell any quantity that it wishes to sell at the given market price. It, therefore, does not need to compete with other fi rms to obtain a market for its produce.
  • This is clearly opposite of the meaning of what is commonly understood by competition or competitive behaviour. We see that Coke and Pepsi compete with each other in a variety of ways to achieve a higher level of sales or a greater share of the market.
  • Conversely, we do not fi nd individual farmers competing among themselves to sell a larger amount of crop. This is because both Coke and Pepsi possess the power to infl uence the market price of soft drinks, while the individual farmer does not.
  • Thus, competitive behaviour and competitive market structure are, in general, inversely related; the more competitive the market structure, less competitive is the behaviour of the firms.
  • On the other hand, the less competitive the market structure, the more competitive is the behaviour of fi rms.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding PM Vishwakarma scheme.

  1. PM Vishwakarma scheme aims to help traditional craftspeople and artisans by providing interest-free loans.
  2. The scheme also aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople.
  3. The scheme covers rural and urban areas across India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 30

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved a new Central Sector Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” for a period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28). The scheme aims to strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. The scheme also aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
  • Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit Support upto Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%.  The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Incentive for Digital Transactions and Marketing Support.
  • The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of rural and urban areas across India. Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 31

Consider the following statements with reference to the Vivad se Vishwas II scheme:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. This scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working under its control.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, has launched the scheme, “Vivad se Vishwas II – (Contractual Disputes). The scheme aims to settle contractual disputes of government and government undertakings, wherein an arbitral award is under challenge in a court, a voluntary settlement scheme with standardized terms will be introduced. This will be done by offering graded settlement terms depending on the pendency level of the disputes.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working under its control. Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has developed a dedicated web page for the implementation of this scheme. Eligible claims shall be processed only through GeM. For non-GeM contracts of the Ministry of Railways, contractors may register their claims on IREPS.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 32

Which of the following items are included in the ‘non-Debt Capital Receipts’ of an economy?

  1. Recovery of loans and advances
  2. Issue of bonus shares
  3. Treasury bills
  4. State provident funds
  5. Disinvestment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 32

Capital Receipts

  • The Union Budget, which is presented by the Finance Minister of India, comprises Capital Budget and Revenue Budget. The Capital Budget is further categorized into capital receipts and capital expenditure.

What are Capital Receipts?

  • Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts.
  • Loans from the general public, foreign governments and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) form a crucial part of capital receipts.
  • All capital receipts are tax-free, unless there is a proviso to tax it. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts

Non-debt capital receipts

  • Non-debt receipts are those which do not incur any future repayment burden for the government. Almost 75 per cent of the total budget receipts are non-debt receipts.
  • Examples of non-debt capital receipts: Recovery of loans and advances, disinvestment, issue of bonus shares, etc.

Debt capital receipts

  • Debt Receipts have to be repaid by the government. Around 25 per cent of government expenditure is financed through borrowing. A reduction in debt receipt (or borrowing) can be a big leap for the economy’s financial health. Most of the capital receipts of the government are debt receipts.
  • Examples of debt capital receipts: Market loans, issuance of special securities to public-sector banks, issue of securities, short-term borrowings, treasury bills, securities against small savings, state provident funds, relief bonds, saving bonds, gold bonds, external debt, etc., are all example of debt capital receipts.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 33

Which of the following best describes “Black Mimosa”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 33
  • Mimosa pigra, commonly known as the giant sensitive tree, is a species of plant of the genus Mimosa, in the family Fabaceae. The genus Mimosa contains 400–450 species, most of which are native to South America.
  • Mimosa pigra is on the list on the world's 100 worst invasive species in the Invasive Species Specialist Groups Global Invasive Species Database.
  • In Australia, Mimosa pigra has been declared a noxious weed or given similar status under various weed or quarantine acts. It has been ranked as the tenth most problematic weed and is listed on the Weeds of National Significance. It is currently restricted to the Northern Territory where it infests approximately 80,000 hectares of coastal floodplain.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 34

With reference to Gandhi‟s special instructions during the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. The government servants resign from their posts.
  2. The soldiers do not fire on compatriots.
  3. If the Zamindars are pro-government, then pay only 50% of the mutually agreed rent.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 34

Gandhi‘s special instructions were spelt out at the Gowalia Tank meeting, but not actually issued. They were directed at various sections of the society:

  • Government servants: Do not resign, but declare your allegiance to the Congress.
  • Soldiers: Do not leave the army, but do not fire on compatriots.
  • Students: If confident, leave studies.
  • Peasants: If the Zamindars are antigovernment, pay mutually agreed rent, and if the Zamindars are progovernment, do not pay rent. Princes: Support the masses and accept sovereignty of your people. Princely States‘ people: Support the ruler only if he is anti-government and declare yourselves to be a part of the Indian nation.

Gandhi gave the Mantra: Do or Die‘. ―We shall either free India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery.‖

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ways and Means’ advances:

  1. It is available for both Central and State governments.
  2. Government need to pay interest on ways and means advances.
  3. RBI Act, 1934stipulates that Government cannot borrow from RBI except by Ways and Means Advances (WMAs).

Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to government. This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
  • The WMA scheme was designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government. This facility can be availed by the government if it needs immediate cash from the RBi.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The WMA is a
  • loan facility from the RBI for 90 days which implies that the government has to vacate the facility after 90 days. Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the repo rate. The hmits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA), 2003 and not RBI Act which stipulates that the Gol cannot borrow from RBI except by Ways and Means Advances (WMAs) and not the RBI Act.

Ways and Means Advances (WMAs):

  • WMA are temporary advances given by the RBI to the Centre and state governments to tide over any mismatch in receipts and payments.
  • It was introduced in 1997 and comes under Section 17(5) of the RBI Act of 1934.
  • Under this, the government commits to the RBI about the amount of money it will give as part of its market-borrowing programme, to bring transparency in public expenditure and to pul political responsibility on the government.
  • The RBI will not be the primary subscriber to government securities in the future— committed way back in 1997.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 36

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of wind in deserts:
1. The desert floors heat up slowly due to the presence of vegetation.
2. Wind action results in only depositional features in deserts.
3. Storm winds in hot deserts are never destructive.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike areas with abundant vegetation, hot deserts experience rapid heating of their dry and barren floors. This quick heating contributes to the intense temperature conditions characteristic of these regions. The lack of vegetation allows the desert floors to absorb and retain heat.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Winds cause deflation, abrasion and impact. Deflation includes lifting and removal of dust and smaller particles from the surface of rocks. In the transportation process sand and silt act as effective tools to abrade the land surface. The impact is simply sheer force of momentum which occurs when sand is blown into or against a rock surface. It is similar to sand-blasting operation. The  wind action creates a number of interesting erosional and depositional features in the deserts.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Winds move along the desert floors with great speed and the obstructions in their path create turbulence. There are storm winds which are very destructive. Winds cause deflation, abrasion and impact.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Bank:

1. It was created by the Fortaleza Declaration.

2. It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans and other instruments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 37

Statement 1 is correct: Together with the process of globalisation, world regional forces have also been asserting their power through different short of alignments—the Fortaleza Declaration of Heads of State (late July 2014) from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (the BRICS countries) is another such attempt—the creation of a BRICS Bank, i.e., the New Development Bank (NDB).
Statement 2 is correct: To fulfil the purpose of the bank, It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans, equity investments, and other tailored instruments.
Major highlights of the bank are as given below:

  • The bank will have an initial subscribed capital of $50 billion— equally shared by the five nations.
  • The capital base is to be used for funding infrastructure and ‘sustainable development’ projects in the BRICS countries initially.
  • Other low and middle-income countries will be able to get funding as time progresses.
  • A Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) of $100 billion is to be created to provide additional liquidity protection to member nations during balance of payments problems.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 38

There are the several landmark cases in Indian constitutional history have shaped and reaffi rmed under Article 21. In this context, consider the following cases:

1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) - Right to life
2. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) - Right to livelihood

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 38

Right to life

  • Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): In this case, the Supreme Court held that the right to life under Article 21 is not limited to mere animal existence but encompasses a wider range of rights. The court emphasized that the procedure established by law must be fair, just, and reasonable, and any law depriving a person of life or personal liberty must satisfy the test of reasonableness.
  • Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985): The Supreme Court, in this case, upheld the right to livelihood as an integral part of the right to life. It held that the right to life includes the right to earn a livelihood, and any action that deprives a person of their livelihood without a reasonable justific ation would violate Article 21.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 39

The term like ‘Unicorn’, often seen in news, implies which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 39

Unicorn

  • In the venture capital industry, the term unicorn refers to any startup that reaches the valuation of $1 billion.
  • Only a privately held startup can he a unicorn.
  • The term initially was used to lay emphasis on the rarity of such startups.
  • Disruptive Innovation, high on technology, new ideas, consumer focus are some of the common features of unicorns.
  • As of 27th January 2022, India is home to 84 unicorns with a total valuation of $ 286.27 Bn. Sequoia has been the most active investor in Inchan Unicorns, followed by Tiger Global Management, Accel, and Softbank.
  • A clecacorn is company that has attained a valuation of more than $ 10 Bn. As of January 2022, 46 companies world over have achieved the clecacorn status. India has four startups namely, Flipkart, BYJUs, Paytm and Swiggy, added in clecacorn cohort.
  • Recently, an Inchan startup founder quipped on Twitter that the definition of a ‘Unicorn’ as used in the venture capital industry should now change to $1 billion of funchng raised. The term currently refers to a startup that reaches a valuation of $1 billion.
  • He was commenting on the flurry of unicorns that have been created globally. The term was originally coined by US venture capit ali st Aileen Lee in 2013 when there were just 39 startups globally that fit the definition, which has not changed since then.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 40

Recently, several state governments approached the Supreme Court over the Governor's delay in approving the bills passed by state legislative assemblies. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution does not prescribe a specific timeframe for the Governor to make a decision with respect to a bill.
2. When a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, it is obligatory for the Governor to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
3. If a bill is returned by the Governor and it is passed again with amendments by the state legislature, the governor can withhold his assent to the bill.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 40
  • Recent context: Tamil Nadu Governor has withheld his assent ta batch of 10 Bills, even as at least four opposition-ruled states are before the SC seeking relief from the increasingly common practice of Raj Bhavans halting the elected government’s lawmaking process.
  • While Article 163 of the Constitution deals with the powers of the Governor generally, Article 200 specifically deals with the issue of granting assent tBills. Both the provisions are read together tdetermine the contours of the power the Governor holds on this issue.
  • When a bill is sent tthe governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
    • Give his assent tthe bill, or
    • Withhold his assent tthe bill, or
    • Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has tgive his assent tthe bill. Hence statement 3 is not correct. or
    • Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • In addition, the governor can alsreserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
    • Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
    • Opposed tthe Directive Principles of State Policy. Against the larger interest of the country.
    • Of grave national importance. Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article the Constitution.
  • However, the Constitution does not prescribe a time limit for the Governor tassent, withhold assent or reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President. Hence statement 1 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:

1. It had rich iron deposits near its capital Rajgir.

2. It had two strategic capitals, Rajgir and Pataliputra, that were surrounded by rivers or hills.

3. It had benefited from the rise of towns and the use of metal money.

Which of the above were the causes behind the Magadha's success in ancient India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

The expansion of Magadha, the largest state in India before the Mauryas, was driven by several factors.

  • The rulers of Magadha, such as Bimbisara, Ajatashatru, and Mahapadma Nanda, were ambitious and used various means to conquer their neighbours.
  • Magadha also had geographical advantages, such as rich iron deposits, strategic capitals, abundant timber, fertile soil, and easy river transport.
  • Magadha also benefited from the rise of towns and trade in the mid-Gangetic plains, which provided them with wealth and resources.
  • Magadha enjoyed an advantageous geographical position in the age of iron, because the richest iron deposits were situated not far away from Rajgir, the earliest capital of Magadha. The ready availability of the rich iron ores in the neighbourhood enabled the Magadhan princes to equip themselves with effective weapons which were not easily available to their rivals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The two capitals of Magadha, the first at Rajgir and the second at Pataliputra, were situated at very strategic points. Rajgir was surrounded by a group of five hills, and so it was impregnable in those days when there was no easy means of storming citadels such as cannons. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The princes of Magadha also benefited from the rise of towns and use of metal money. A Pali text speaks of twenty towns in the age of the Buddha. Most of them were located in the mid-Gangetic plains. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 42

Which of the following functions is part of the Reserve Bank of Incha (RBI) acting as ‘Banker’ to Central Government?

  1. Opens current accounts of inchviclual banks in E-Kuber.
  2. RBI acts as advisor to the government on monetary and banking related matters
  3. RBI provides Ways and Means Advances to the government
  4. RBI floats loans and manages them on behalf of the government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: This is a function of being Banker to Banks and not central Government. The current accounts of individual banks are being opened in e-Kuber (CBS of RBI) by Banking Departments of the Regional Offices. These current accounts are also maintained for participation in Centralized and decentralized Payment Systems and are useclfor settling inter-bank obligations, such as clearing transactions or clearing money market transactions between two banks, buying and selling securities and foreign currencies. The Reserve Bank stipulates minimum balances to be maintained by banks in these accounts.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The RBI acts as advisor to the Government, whenever called upon to do so, on monetary and banking related matters.
  • Statement 3 is correct: RBI also provides “Ways and Means Advances" (WMA) — it is a temporary loan facility to the Centre and state/UT governments as a banker to government. Besides it arranges for investments of surplus cash balances of the Governments as a portfoho manager.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: When RBI floats/ raises loans on behalf of government then it is acting as a “Debt Manager" of government and not as a Banker to government. The RBI manages the public debt and issues new loans on behalf of the Central and State Governments. The RBI’s debt management policy aims at minimizing the cost of borrowing, reducing risk, smoothening the maturity structure of debt.

 Functions of RBI

  • As a banker to the government, RBI receives and pays money on behalf of the various Government departments. As it has offices in only 27 locations, the RBI appoints other banks to act as its agents (Agent Banks) for undertaking the banking    business on
  • behalf of the governments.
  • Earlier Scheduled Pubhc Sector banks and only few large private sector banks were allowed to take up Government related business like collection of taxes, pension payments and small savings schemes like PPF, Kisan Vikas Patra, Sukanya Samridhi Yojana etc. But this embargo on private sector banks has been lifted and now all pubhc and private sector Scheduled Commercial Banks can act as Agent Banks of RBI.
  • RBI maintains the account for the central and state government funds like Consohdated Fund, Contingency Fund and Pubhc Account.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 43

With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. The Khilafat Committee launched the Non-Cooperation Movement and Tilak actively participated in it.
  2. Boycott of the Legislative Councils was one of the mandates of this Movement.
  3. The Bardoli Resolution called for picketing of the liquor shops and formation of Volunteer Corps.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 43

The Non-Cooperation Movement:

  • The Khilafat Committee started a campaign of non-cooperation and the movement was formally launched on August 31, 1920. (Tilak had, incidentally, breathed his last on August 1, 1920).
  • In September, 1920, at a special session in Calcutta, the Congress approved a Non-Cooperation Programme till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed, and Swaraj was established. 
  • The programme was to include :
    1. Boycott of government schools and colleges.
    2. Boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through the Panchayats instead.
    3. Boycott of the Legislative Councils. There were some differences over this, as some leaders, like C.R. Das were not willing to include a boycott of the Councils, but bowed to Congress discipline. These leaders boycotted the elections held in November, 1920, and the majority of the voters too stayed away.
    4. Boycott of foreign cloth and use of Khadi instead. Also practice of hand-spinning to be done.
    5. Renunciation of government honours and titles. The second phase could include mass civil disobedience, including resignation from government service and non-payment of taxes.
  • The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February, 1922, and resolved to stop all activities that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work, instead, which was to include popularization of Khadi, national schools, and campaigning for temperance, for Hindu-Muslim unity and against untouchability. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 44

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The gravitational force is greater near the Equator and less at the poles.
Statement II: The distance from the centre of the Earth at the Equator is greater than that at the poles.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 44

Statement I is incorrect: The gravitational force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator.
Statement II is correct: This is because the distance from the centre at the equator is greater than that at the poles.
The gravity values also differ according to the mass of the material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value.
Many other factors influence the reading of gravity at different places. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called a gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the mass distribution of the material in the earth's crust.
Hence, statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 45

Consider the following pairs:

National Park : State
1. Madhav National Park : Chattisgarh
2. Kuno National Park : Madhya Pradesh
3. Sanjay Gandhi National Park : Maharashtra
4. Kanger Valley National Park : Odisha

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 45

Madhav National Park

  • It is situated in Shivpuri District, Madhya Pradesh. and is a part of the upper Vindhyan hills. It was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior. It got the status of a National Park in 1959. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Ecosystem: It has a diverse ecosystem consisting of lakes, dry deciduous & dry thorn forests. The forest is home to tigers, leopards, Nilgai, and Chinkara (Gazella bennettii) and Chousingha (Tetracerus quadricornis) and Deers (Chital, Sambar and Barking Deer) among others.
  • Tiger Corridor: The Park falls within one of the 32 major Tiger Corridors of the country, which are operationalised through the Tiger Conservation Plan. Tiger Conservation Plan is implemented under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • Madhav National Park is a part of the Ranthambhore-Kuno-Madhav (Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan) Tiger Corridor of Central India & Eastern Ghats landscape.

Kuno Palpur National Park:

  • It lies in Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh in Central India near the Vindhyan Hills. Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Named after the Kuno River (One of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that cuts across it, Kuno is primarily a grassland region.
  • Flora and Fauna: The protected area of the forest is home to the jungle cat, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, golden jackal, Bengal fox and dhole, along with more than 120 bird species
  • Kuno National Park was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’.

Sanjay Gandhi National Park:

  • It is located in the state of Maharashtra which was formerly known as Borivali National Park. The 2400-year-old Kanheri caves are sculpted out of the rocky cliff which lies within the park. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. Flora: Kadamba, Teak, Karanj, Shisham, and species of acacia, Ziziphus, euphorbias etc are found in this National Park.
  • Fauna: Chital, Rhesus macaque, Bonnet macaque, Black-naped, Bengal Tiger etc.

Kanger Valley National Park:-

  • It is located in the state of Chhattisgarh. The name of Kanger Ghati National Park is derived from the Kangar river, which flows in its length. It got the status of a national park in the year 1982. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
  • It is a typical mixed humid deciduous type of forest, in which the Sal, Saugaun, teak and bamboo trees are available in abundance.
  • The most popular species in this area is Bastar Maina (The state bird of Chattisgarh). Bastar Maina, is a type of Hill maina (gruncula Dhariosoa), which is capable of emulating the human voices.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 46

Consider the following rivers:
1. Nagwati
2. Rukmawati
3. Sabarmati
4. Tapti

How many of the above rivers drain into the Gulf of Khambhat?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 46

Gulf of Khambhat is a trumpet-shaped gulf of the Arabian Sea, indenting northward the coast of Gujarat state, western India, between Mumbai (Bombay) and the Kathiawar Peninsula.
The gulf receives many rivers, including the:

  • Sabarmati
  • Mahi
  • Narmada
  • Tapti

Its shape and its orientation in relation to the southwest monsoon winds account for its high tidal range and the high velocity of the entering tides. Shoals and sandbanks are treacherous to navigation, and all the gulf ports have suffered from silting caused by tides and flood torrents from the rivers.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation (NUCFDC):

  1. The NUCFDC was established based on the recommendation of the Vishwanathan Committee on Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, formed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  2. The NUCFDC is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.
  3. It provides financial assistance through State Channelizing Agencies (SCAs) nominated by the State Governments/UTs.

How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 47
  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: The Home Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC), serving as the umbrella organization for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs).
    • The initiative aims to modernize and strengthen the UCB sector, benefiting both banks and customers.
  • The National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation (NUCFDC) was established based on the recommendation of the Vishwanathan Committee on Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, formed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • NUCFDC is registered with the RBI as a non-deposit-taking Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC), and UCBs can voluntarily subscribe to its capital
  • The key objectives of NUCFDC include expanding the number of credit societies and UCBs, facilitating dialogue between banks and regulators, providing liquidity to UCBs, establishing IT infrastructure for shared use by members to enhance service offerings, and more.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding pollutants in the trophic level:

1. In bioaccumulation, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
2. Biomagnifi cation can occur only if the pollutant is fat-insoluble.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In bioaccumulation, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the fi rst organism in a food chain.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Biomagnification can occur only if the pollutant is fat-soluble.
  • Bioaccumulation: In bioaccumulation, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the fi rst organism in a food chain. Thus, it refers to how pollutants enter a food chain.
  • Biomagnifi cation: In this, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from one trophic level to another.
  • Condition for bioaccumulation is the high level of pollutants in the environment.
  • Condition for bio-magnifi cations is that pollutants must be fat-soluble, long-lived, biologically active, etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 49

About the Local Governance in India, consider the following statements:

1. Local governance ensures the decentralization of power from the central and state governments to the local bodies.
2. It encourages citizen participation in the decision-making process.
3. It is responsible for providing various essential services like water supply, sanitation, education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and more.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 49

Local Governance 

  •  Local governance in India refers to the system of governing at the grassroots level, where local bodies or institutions are responsible for managing and addressing the needs and concerns of the people in their respective areas. 
  •  The two primary tiers of local governance in India are the rural local bodies known as Panchayats and the urban local bodies called Municipalities or Municipal Corporations.

Signific ance of Local Governance in India: 

  • Decentralization of Power: Local governance ensures the decentralization of power from the central and state governments to the local bodies. This helps in better and more effective management of resources and decision-making at the local level, leading to greater responsiveness to local needs and issues.
  • Community Participation: Local governance encourages citizen participation in the decision-making process. It allows people to actively engage with their local representatives and contribute to the development and planning of their communities. 
  • Proximity to the People: Local governments are closer to the people they serve, allowing them to have a better understanding of the local issues and challenges. This proximity enables quicker and more accurate identifi cation of problems and implementation of suitable solutions. 
  • Service Delivery: Local governance is responsible for providing various essential services like water supply, sanitation, education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and more.
  • Effective local governance ensures efficient delivery of these services, leading to an improved quality of life for the citizens. 
  • Accountability and Transparency: Local governance fosters a sense of accountability among elected representatives, as they are directly answerable to their constituents. Moreover, transparency in decision-making processes helps in reducing corruption and promoting good governance. 
  • Problems Associated with Local Governance in India - Financial Constraints, Administrative Capacity, Political Interference, Inequality and Disparities, Limited Autonomy, Lack of Awareness and Participation, and corruption.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Ecosystem structure refers to the physical and biological components that make up an ecosystem.
Statement-II: It encompasses both biotic factors and abiotic factors.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 50

Ecosystem Structure

  • Ecosystem structure refers to the physical and biological components that make up an ecosystem. It encompasses both the living organisms (biotic factors) and the non-living environment (abiotic factors).

Producers

  • Producers, also known as autotrophs, are organisms capable of converting energy from the sun (or in some cases, chemicals) into organic matter through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. They form the foundation of the food chain and include plants, algae, and certain bacteria.

Consumers

  • Consumers, also known as heterotrophs, are organisms that obtain energy by consuming other organisms. They can be divided into different trophic levels based on their feeding habits. Primary consumers (herbivores) feed directly on producers, while secondary consumers (carnivores) feed on primary consumers. Tertiary consumers (top carnivores) occupy the highest trophic level in a food chain.

Decomposers

  • Decomposers play a vital role in breaking down dead organisms and organic waste material, returning essential nutrients to the ecosystem. They include bacteria, fungi, and certain invertebrates like earthworms. Decomposers complete the nutrient cycle by converting complex organic matter into inorganic compounds that can be used again by producers.

Physical Environment

  • The abiotic factors of an ecosystem include temperature, sunlight, water availability, soil composition, air quality, and geological features. These factors infl uence the distribution and abundance of organisms within the ecosystem.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 51

Vegetative Propagation, a form of asexual reproduction can be achieved by which of the following parts of a plant?

  1. Roots
  2. Leaves
  3. Stem

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 51
  • Plant propagation is the process of creating new plants. There are two types of propagation: sexual and asexual. Sexual reproduction is the union of the pollen and egg, drawing from the genes of two parents to create a new, third individual. Sexual propagation involves the floral parts of a plant.
  • Asexual or vegetative propagation involves taking a part of one parent plant and causing it to regenerate itself into a new plant. The resulting new plant is genetically identical to its parent.
  • There are many plants in which parts like the root, stem, and leaves develop into new plants under appropriate conditions. Unlike in most animals, plants can indeed use such a mode for reproduction.
  • This property of vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering or grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes. Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds. Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that has lost the capacity to produce seeds.
  • Hence all the options are correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 52

With reference to the proposal of the Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

  1. The making of the Constitution was to be solely in the Indian hands.
  2. The Mission was sent because of the Japanese threat to invade India.
  3. The Hindu Mahasabha supported the Mission.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 52

In March, 1942, a Mission, headed by Stafford Cripps, was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek the Indian support for the War. Stafford Cripps was a left-wing Labourite, the leader of the House of Commons, and a member of the British War Cabinet, who had actively supported the Indian national movement.

The Cripps Mission was sent:

  • Because of the reverses suffered by Britain in South-East Asia, the Japanese threat to invade India seemed real now and Indian support became crucial.
  • There was pressure on Britain from the Allies (USA, USSR, China) to seek Indian cooperation.
  • The Indian nationalists had agreed to support the Allied cause if substantial power was transferred immediately and complete independence given after the War.

The main proposals of the Mission were as follows:

1. An Indian Union with a Dominion Status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.
2. After the end of the War, a Constituent Assembly would be convened to frame a new Constitution. The members of this Assembly would be partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies, through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
3. The British Government would accept the new Constitution, subject to two conditions:
(i) Any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate Constitution and form a separate Union; and
(ii) The new Constitution-making body and the British Government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power, and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
4. In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the Governor-General‘s powers would remain intact.

The proposals differed from those offered in the past in many respects:

  • The making of the Constitution was to be solely in the Indian hands now (and not mainly‘ in the Indian hands—as contained in the August Offer). A concrete plan was provided for the Constituent Assembly.
  • Option was available to any province to have a separate Constitution—a blueprint for India‘s partition.
  • Free India could withdraw from the Commonwealth.
  • The Indians were allowed a large share in the administration in the interim period. The Cripps Mission proposals failed to satisfy the Indian nationalists and turned out to be merely a propaganda device for the consumption of the US and the Chinese. Various parties and groups had objections to the proposals on different point. Nehru and Maulana Azad were the official negotiators for the Congress.

Congress objected to:

  • The offer of Dominion Status instead of a provision for complete independence;
  • Representation of the Princely States by the nominees and not by the elected representatives;
  • The right to provinces to secede, as this went against the principle of national unity;
  • Absence of any plan for immediate transfer of power and absence of any real share in defence; and
  • The Governor-General‘s supremacy had been retained, and the demand that the Governor-General be only the constitutional head had not been accepted.

The Muslim League:

  • Criticized the idea of a single Indian Union;
  • Did not like the machinery for the creation of a Constituent Assembly and the procedure to decide on the accession of provinces to the Union; and
  • Thought that the proposals denied the Muslims the right to selfdetermination and the creation of Pakistan.

Other groups also objected to the provinces‘ right to secede. The Liberals considered the secession proposals to be against the unity and security of India. The Hindu Mahasabha criticized the basis of the right to secede. The depressed classes thought that partition would leave them at the mercy of the caste Hindus. The Sikhs objected that partition would take away Punjab from them. Gandhi described the scheme as ―a postdated cheque‖; Nehru pointed out that the ―existing structure and autocratic powers would remain and a few of us will become the Viceroy‘s liveried camp followers and look after canteens and the like‖. Stafford Cripps returned home leaving behind frustrated and embittered Indian people, who, though still sympathising with the victims of fascist aggression, felt that the existing situation in the country had become intolerable and that the time had come for a final assault on imperialism.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 53

Which one of the following is the major objective of ‘Operation Samudragupta’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 53

India began its fight against drug trafficking under Operation Samudragupta. This is a joint operation between the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). It is a successful attempt by the government to stop maritime infiltration of contraband.
India is located between two of the largest Opium producing and trafficking regions, namely the “GOLDEN CRESCENT” in the west and “GOLDEN TRIANGLE” in the east.
Golden Crescent Countries: Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan Golden Triangle Countries: Myanmar, Thailand and Laos

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 54

‘Gender Social Norms Index’ is published by which one of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 54

The Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) quantifies biases against women, capturing people’s attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions: political, educational, economic and physical integrity. The index, covering 85 percent of the global population, reveals that close to 9 out of 10 men and women hold fundamental biases against women.
UNDP plays a pivotal role in international development as a knowledge broker, capacity builder, innovator, and facilitator of exchanges in the global development debate. It connects countries to the knowledge, resources and networks they need to achieve development breakthroughs.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 55

Consider the following statements:
1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory body formed under the Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002 to regulate use of India's biological Cq resources. 
2. It would be required to obtain the approval of the NBA before seeking any IPR based on biological material obtained from India.
3. Human genetic material is excluded from the definition of biological resources under the BD Act, 2002.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 55
  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding multilateral environmental agreement that has 194 contracting Parties (Countries) as its members with three objectives – conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of the diversity and ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits of such use.
  • A three tiered structure has been established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 at the national, state and local levels.
    • At the local level, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are to be established by institutions of local self-government for implementation of specific provisions of the Act and Rules. o At the state level, the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) are established to deal with all matters relating to implementation of the Act and the Rules.
    • At the national level, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is established to deal with all matters relating to implementation of the Act and the Rules. Each of these structure are required to be connected for decision making processes on various issues, including on issues of access and benefit sharing (ABS). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • To check misappropriation of Indian biological resources, the Act provides that access to Indian biological resources and associated knowledge are subject to terms and conditions, which secure equitable sharing of benefits. Further, it would be required to obtain the approval of the National Biodiversity Authority before seeking any IPR based on biological material and associated knowledge obtained from India. Hence statement 2 is correct. As per the provisions of BD Act human genetic material is excluded from the definition of biological resources and prior approval of NBA is not needed. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - Question 56

Consider the following statements about the impact of Alexander’s invasion on India:

1. It led to direct trade contacts between the India and Greeks.

2. It aided Chandragupta Maurya to expand his empire in the North-west region of the subcontinent.

3. It gave rise to a new school of art in the North called as Mathura school of art.

How many of the above statements given above are correct?