UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 7 - UPSC MCQ

The establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels is a compulsory provision under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, of 1992. Hence option 1 is not correct.

Voluntary Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992:

• Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
• Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
• Giving representation to the chairperson of the village panchayats in the intermediate panchayats or in the case of a state not having intermediate panchayats, in the district panchayats.
• Giving representation to the chairperson of the intermediate panchayats in the district panchayats.
• Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
• Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.

Hence options 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct.

• The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit. Established in 1983 with commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communications sector and sustained the same later.
• The INSAT system with more than 200 transponders in the C, Extended C and Ku-bands provides services to telecommunications, television broadcasting, satellite newsgathering, societal applications, weather forecasting, disaster warning, and Search and Rescue operations.
• While not a primary navigation system, INSAT can provide augmentation to satellite-based navigation systems. It offers location and timing information to enhance navigation accuracy in applications such as civil aviation and maritime navigation. GSAT-8 / INSAT-4G is an Indian Ku-band satellite carrying 18 transponders similar to that of INSAT-4A and INSAT-4B. It carries 2 BSS transponders and a GAGAN (Navstar Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) payload (satellite navigation for aviation). The satellite was originally planned to be launched during 2008-09, but was postponed until 2011.
• GSAT-7 or INSAT-4F is a multi-band military communications satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• ‘Dharamshala Declaration 2022’ was released in September 2022 at a three-day national conference on tourism.
• The Dharamshala Declaration aims to recover tourism to the pre-pandemic level by 2024 and position India as a major tourism destination during its presidency of G-20 next year. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It affirms commitment toward developing “sustainable and responsible tourism” and positions India as a “global leader in the tourism sector by 2047”. In the medium term (that is 2030), tourism-related goals are USD 250 billion GDP contribution; 137 million jobs and 56 million foreign tourist arrivals. In the long term, it aims to revive India’s tourism and targets to achieve USD 1 Trillion by the sector in 2047. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Composting is the aerobic method of decomposing solid waste.
• It involves micro-organisms to stabilise the organic matter like fungi during the first week and bacteria in the rest of the period(particularly actinomycetes bacteria)
• However, it doesn't use virus during the entire process
• Bioremediation is the process of decomposition of waste using micro-organisms like oil zapper bacteria and various other fungi for a breakdown of organic and inorganic materials. It again does not use virus for the purpose
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Recently, the global higher education think-tank Quacquarelli Symonds has released the QS Asia University Rankings: Asia 2024, including 148 universities from India in the comprehensive list of 856 universities across Asia. Top Ranking Universities: Peking University (China) topped the list, followed by the University of Hong Kong (Hong Kong) and National University of Singapore (NUS) (Singapore). Indian Universities' Performance: IIT Bombay retains its top ranking in India and is ranked 40th in Asia. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Seven Indian institutions are among the top 100 in Asia, with five of them being Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, and Delhi University. India Surpasses China: India has surpassed China in the number of universities featured in the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2024, indicating a significant increase compared to the previous year, with 37 new entries from India, while China had only seven new entries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the No Confidence Motion in India to determine their correctness.

1. The first No Confidence Motion was moved during the tenure of Jawaharlal Nehru.

   • This statement is correct. The first No Confidence Motion in India was indeed moved against Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in 1963 by Acharya Kripalani.

2. None of the No Confidence Motions since independence have been successful.

   • This statement is incorrect. The most notable successful No Confidence Motion was in 1979, which led to the fall of Prime Minister Morarji Desai's government.

3. As per the rules of procedure of Lok Sabha, after the no-confidence motion is admitted, the President shall specify the date on which the debate will begin.

   • This statement is incorrect. According to the rules of procedure of the Lok Sabha, after a no-confidence motion is admitted, it is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the President, who specifies the date for the debate to begin.

Based on the evaluation:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

2. Only one

• Under Article 146 of the Constitution of India, appointments of officers and servants of the Supreme Court shall be made by the Chief Justice of India or such other Judge or officer of the Court as he may direct:
• provided that the President may by rule require that in such cases as may be specified in the rule, no person not already attached to the Court shall be appointed to any office connected with the Court, save after consultation with the Union Public Service Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Section 3(1) of the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985 which directs that no Court shall entertain any civil or criminal proceeding against any person who is or was a Judge for any act, thing or word committed, done or spoken by him, or in the course of, acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official and judicial duty or function. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Salaries, gratuity, pension, allowances etc. in respect of Judges of Supreme Court are governed by the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1958.  Salaries etc. of Judges of High Courts are governed by High Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1954. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Dhokra art: (Context: PM Modi gifted Dokra Art with Ramayana Theme from Chattisgarh to South Africa’s President Cyril Ramaphosa)
• Dokra art is a non-ferrous metal casting art that uses the lost-wax casting technique. This technique has been in use for over 4,000 years in India and is still practiced by artisans in central and eastern India. It is in great demand in domestic and foreign markets because of its primitive simplicity, folk motifs, and forceful form. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an art that connects the collectors as well as the creators with the Indus Valley Civilisation that flourished in a large part of northwestern India and modern-day Pakistan. The most famous creation of this art, called Dhokra, also belongs to the Mohenjo-Daro, the hub of Indus Valley Civilisation, and is referred to as the Dancing Girl, a lost-wax casting sculpture made of bronze that dates back to over 4600 years ago. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The  report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Adaptation is a process of reducing countries and communities’ vulnerability to climate change by increasing their impact absorption ability. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The adaptation gap is the difference between implemented adaptation and societally set goals. The report which looks at progress in planning, financing and implementing adaptation actions, finds that the adaptation finance needs of developing countries are 10-18 times as big as international public finance flows. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The modeled costs of adaptation in developing countries are estimated at US$215 billion per year this decade. The adaptation finance needed to implement domestic adaptation priorities is estimated at US$387 billion per year.  Despite these needs, public multilateral and bilateral adaptation finance flows to developing countries declined by 15 per cent to US$21 billion in 2021. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Laser Land leveling (LLL) is a methodology of leveling land surface (±2 cm) from its average elevation utilizing laser machine-equipped drag buckets to achieve precision in land levelling. Laser Land leveling is necessary for good agronomic, soil, and crop management practices. It enhances output in crop yield and improves the quality of produce while conserving irrigation water and facilitating field operations. Level terrain also aids in the mechanization of numerous field tasks. Hence statement I is correct.
• Unevenness in the soil surface topography in a farm field has a major effect on crop management and crop yield. Fields that are not level have uneven water coverage, which means that more water is needed to wet up the whole field for land preparation and plant establishment. The additional water required takes additional time to irrigate the field or rainfed farms must wait until the next rainfall event.
• This extra time in water management reduces the effective time available to complete tasks and grow the crop. Fields that are not level have uneven crop stands, increased weed burdens, and uneven maturing of crops. All of these factors contribute to reduced yield and quality, which reduces the potential income from the crop. Effective land leveling will improve crop establishment, reduce the amount of effort required to manage the crop, and will increase both grain quality and yields. Hence statement II is correct.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are Negotiable Money Market Instruments, introduced in June, 1989.

Eligible issuers: The CDs can be issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks; the RRBs (The Regional Rural Banks); the SFBs (The Small Finance Banks (SFBs); and All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs).

Maturity period: The banks can issue the CDs with maturity period of not less than 7 days and not more than one year, from the date of issue. The banks are not permitted to grant loans against the CDs. However, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may relax this restriction through a separate notification. While the deposits kept with the banks are not ordinarily tradable, when such deposits are mobilised by a bank by the issue of a CD, then such deposits get securitised and, therefore, become tradable. Thus, the CDs represent essentially securitised and tradable term deposits.

The Indian companies can list their debt securities on the foreign stock exchanges directly. However, earlier, the legal framework in India did not permit the direct listing of the equity shares of the companies incorporated in India on the foreign stock exchanges. The only available routes for the companies incorporated in India to access the equity capital markets of foreign jurisdictions was through the ADR (The American Depository Receipt)/GDR (The Global Depository Receipt). Recent development: The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2020, has been passed by the Parliament. It includes the provisions that provide for the Indian companies to list securities directly on the overseas stock exchanges. The proposed Amendment is enabling in nature.

The Debt Service Ratio is measured by the proportion of the total external debt service payments (i.e., principal repayment plus interest payment) to the current receipts (minus official transfers) of the Balance of Payments (BoP). It indicates the claim that the servicing of the external debt makes on the current receipts and is, therefore, a measure of strain on the BoP, due to the servicing of debt service obligations.

• The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) works like the Reverse Repo. However, under the SDF route, the RBI would not be required to provide G-Secs as collateral to the banks. Hence, it would enable the RBI to absorb huge amount of liquidity from the economy, without G-Secs acting as collateral.
• The Finance Act (2018), introduced as a part of the Budget, amended the RBI Act, 1934, to enable the RBI to use the new tool of the SDF. Subsequently, the liquidity management framework adopted by the RBI, in February, 2020, has decided to use the SDF in India. Presently, the Reverse Repo is 3.35%, while the SDF rate has been fixed higher at 3.75%.

Inflation leads to an increase in the prices of the goods, which could discourage the consumers from buying them. The reduced demand for the goods would cause loss to the companies.

Hence, to counter inflation and to ensure that the demand for the goods does not decrease, the companies resort to ‘Shrinkflation’. As part of shrinkflation, the companies do not increase the prices of the goods; rather they shrink the size of the products.

• As per the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI has the right to transact government business of the Union in India. State Government transactions are carried out by the RBI in terms of the agreement entered into with the State Governments under the Act. As of now, such agreements exist between the RBI and all the State Governments, except the Government of Sikkim.
• There is a provision for providing short- term credit up to 3 months to the Central Government, state governments and the UTs in the form of the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) to bridge temporary mismatches in cash flows, as laid down in the RBI Act, 1934. Direct monetization of deficit refers to a scenario where a central bank prints currency to accommodate massive fiscal deficit of the government. With the enactment of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, it was totally barred.
• The RBI manages public debt on behalf of the Central and the State Governments. It involves issue of new rupee loans, payment of interest and repayment of these loans and other operational matters, such as debt certificates and their registration.

Economic stimulus is the action by the government to encourage private sector economic activity by engaging in targeted, expansionary monetary or fiscal policy, based on the ideas of Keynesian economics. Economic stimulus is commonly employed during the times of recession. Policy tools often used to implement economic stimulus include Tax cuts, lowering interest rates, increasing government spending and quantitative easing, to name a few.

• To facilitate the distribution of bank- notes and rupee coins, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has authorised select Scheduled Banks (Either private or public) to establish the Currency Chests. These are the storehouses where bank-notes and rupee coins are stocked on behalf of the RBI for distribution to bank branches in their area of operation. As on March 31, 2020, there were 3,367 currency chests.
• The currency chests are expected to distribute bank-notes and rupee coins to other bank branches in their area of operation. Though the Currency Chests are usually situated on the premises of different banks, they are administrated by the RBI. The representatives of the RBI inspect the Currency Chests time-to-time. The money present in the Currency Chest belongs to the RBI.

• The Asian Clearing Union (ACU) is a payment arrangement whereby the participants settle payments for intra- regional transactions among the participating central banks on a net multilateral basis.
• The main objectives of the ACU are to facilitate payments among member countries for eligible transactions, thereby economizing on the use of foreign exchange reserves and transfer costs, as well as promoting trade and banking relations among the participating countries.
• The ACU was established with its head-quarters at Tehran (Iran) in 1974, at the initiative of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP). The Central Banks and the Monetary Authorities of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka are currently the members of the ACU.

The cool temperate eastern margin (Laurentian) climate is an intermediate type of climate, between the British and the Siberian types of climate. It has the features of both the maritime and the continental climates. The Laurentian type of climate is found only in two regions. One is north-eastern North America, including eastern Canada, north-east USA and Newfoundland. The other region is the eastern coastlands of Asia, including the eastern region of Siberia, North China, Manchuria, Korea and northern Japan. This climate has cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers. Winters temperatures may be well below the freezing point. Summers are as warm as the tropics. New York and Peking are the examples of this climate.

• Lord Wellesley, as Governor General in 1798, expressed concern over the poor conditions in the Indian part of Calcutta. He identified issues like crowding, excessive vegetation, dirty tanks, and poor drainage, which were believed to contribute to diseases. Wellesley advocated for town planning to create open spaces for public health.
• In 1803, Lord Wellesley issued a Minute emphasizing the need for town planning. He established committees to address the urban challenges, leading to the clearance of bazaars, ghats, burial grounds, and tanneries. This marked the beginning of town clearance and planning projects to improve public health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• After Wellesley's departure, the Lottery Committee was established in 1817 which took charge of town planning in Calcutta. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It was created with the objective of raising funds for the development of towns in India. The establishment of this committee was a part of the British colonial government's efforts to modernise and develop urban areas in India.
• The lottery committee, funded through public lotteries, commissioned a new map of the city. Its major activities included road building in the Indian part and clearing the riverbank of encroachments.

• The Venus atmosphere is very dense. Venus has the most massive atmosphere of the terrestrial planets, which include Mercury, Earth, and Mars. Its gaseous envelope is composed of more than 96 percent carbon dioxide and 3.5 percent molecular nitrogen. Trace amounts of other gases are present, including carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, water vapour, argon, and helium.
• The composition is also very different from Earth. Venus is not hospitable, at least for organisms we know from Earth. The oxygen is produced on the planet's dayside by ultraviolet radiation from the sun that breaks down atmospheric carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide into oxygen atoms and other chemicals. Some of the oxygen is then transported by winds to the Venusian night side.
• The detection of atomic oxygen on Venus is direct proof for the action of photochemistry - triggered by solar UV radiation - and for the transport of its products by the winds of Venus' atmosphere.The oxygen was found concentrated between two layers of the Venusian atmosphere, at an altitude of about 60 miles (100 km) above the surface. The temperature of the oxygen ranged from about minus 184 degrees Fahrenheit (minus 120 degrees Celsius) on the planet's day side to minus 256 degrees Fahrenheit (minus 160 degrees Celsius) on its night side
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Scientists have discovered a new species of pangolin called Manis mysteria.
• Pangolins are nocturnal mammals that dig burrows and feed on ants and termites, and play a vital role in ecosystem management, mostly in aerating and adding moisture to the soil.
• Pangolins are known for their unique appearance. They have scales made of keratin that cover their entire body. When threatened, they can roll into a ball to protect themselves.
• Pangolins are the only mammals that are wholly covered in scales. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• There are four species of pangolins found in Africa: Black-bellied pangolin, White-bellied pangolin, Giant Ground pangolin, and Temminck’s Ground pangolin. Four species are found in Asia: Indian pangolin, Philippine pangolin, Sunda pangolin, and the Chinese pangolin
• The Chinese, Philippine, and Sunda pangolins are listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• The Indian pangolin is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and as Endangered on the IUCN Red List 1. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
• Habitat:
  • It is adaptable to a wide range of habitats including primary and secondary tropical forests, limestone and bamboo forests, grasslands, and agricultural fields.
  • The Indian Pangolin is found across the Indian subcontinent; Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam also have the presence of Chinese pangolin. All pangolin species are listed in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) Appendix I.

Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013

• Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013 was notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• An Electoral Trust is a Trust set up by companies with the sole objective to distribute the contributions received by it from other Companies and individuals to the political parties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Only the companies registered under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 are eligible to make an application for approval as an Electoral Trust. The electoral trusts have to apply for renewal every three financial years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The scheme lays down a procedure for grant of approval to an electoral trust which will receive voluntary contributions and distribute the same to the political parties. The provisions related to the electoral trust are under Income-tax Act, 1961 and Income tax rules-1962.

Cheetah Reintroduction Project:

• The Cheetah Reintroduction Project in India formally commenced on September 17, 2022, to restore the population of cheetahs, which were declared extinct in the country in 1952. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The project involves the translocation of cheetahs from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in collaboration with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and cheetah experts from Namibia and South Africa. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Several manufacturing states, including Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu, were concerned about potential revenue loss due to the consumption-based nature of the GST. To address these concerns, the government introduced the GST Compensation Cess, designed to offset any potential revenue losses incurred by these manufacturing states.
• In accordance with the GST (Compensation to States) Act of 2017, a compensation cess is imposed on five goods that are deemed to be “sin” or “luxury,” such as Pan Masala, Tobacco, and Automobiles. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It has to be paid by all the taxpayers except those who export the notified goods and those who have opted for the GST composition scheme.
• Any unused money from the compensation fund at the end of the transition period shall be distributed between the states and the center as per any applicable formula. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• All the proceeds received from the GST compensation cess would be credited to a non-lapsable fund known as the Goods and Services Tax Compensation Fund. The funds would then be used for compensating tax revenue loss to States on account of  GST implementation.
• The government has extended the time for levy of GST compensation cess by nearly 4 years till March 31, 2026. The levy of cess was to end on June 30, 2022, but the GST Council, chaired by Union Finance Minister and comprising state FMs, decided to extend it till March 2026 to repay the loans taken in the last two fiscal years to make up for the shortfall in their revenue collection.

• REITS or Real Estate Investment Trust is a company that owns, operates, or finances income-producing real estate properties.  They pool money from the investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects like workspaces, malls, etc. Currently, REITs are only permitted to engage in commercial real estate, not residential real estate. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• REITs work like mutual funds. Mutual funds pool money from multiple investors and then invest in various asset classes like equity, debt, gold, etc. Similarly, REITs pool money from various investors and then invest the corpus in income-generating assets. In the return on their investments, REITs receives rental income and interest payment from these properties, which are further distributed to the investors as dividends. As per the SEBI guidelines, they must distribute 90% of their earnings to the investors.
• The REITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) through the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.
• SEBI-mandated criteria that REITs in India need to fulfill in order to qualify are as follows:
  • At least 80% of investments made by a REIT need to be in commercial properties that can be rented out to generate income. The remaining assets of the trust (up to the 20% limit) can be held in the form of stocks, bonds, cash, or under-construction commercial property.
  • At least 90% of the rental income earned by the REIT has to be distributed to its unitholders as dividends or interest.
  • Stock market listing of REIT is mandatory. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In India too, REITs get a few key tax exemptions that are not available to other types of Real Estate companies:
  • Interest payments and dividends received by a REIT from a Special Purpose Vehicle or SPV are exempted from tax. In this context, SPV is a domestic company in which at least a 50% stake is held by the REIT. A REIT can theoretically hold a 50% or higher stake in multiple SPVs that own individual Real Estate properties on behalf of the REIT. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Any income obtained from renting or leasing Real Estate Assets that are owned by the REIT directly (i.e. not through an SPV) is also exempted from tax.

• Unlike the American Constitution, the Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at thetop and the high courts below it. Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts. This single system of courts enforces both Central laws as well as the state laws. In USA, on the other hand, the federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and the state laws are enforced by the state judiciary. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution. The US Constitution does not have a parallel provision of an advisory opinion. There is neither express power nor an express ban on the use of such power within the constitution. However, the US Supreme Court has maintained a consistent opinion that no such power could be exercised by the court as it violates the principle of separation of powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852-53):

• In 1852, commercial disputes in Rangoon prompted new hostilities between the British and the Burmese. The war was caused by the British commercial greed as they began to exploit the vast forests of upper Burma for timber. They wanted to expand their market for the sale of cotton products as well.
• Lord Dalhousie was the governor-general of India (1848-56) who provoked this war. He dispatched Commodore Lambert to Burma over several minor issues related to the previous treaty. The Burmese had started blocking commercial exploitation through the coasts. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• After the end of the Second Burmese War (1852), Dalhousie annexed Lower Burma with its capital at Pegu. The annexation of Lower Burma proved beneficial to Britain. Rangoon, Britain’s most valuable acquisition from the war, became one of the biggest ports in Asia Lord Amherst was Governor general of Bengal during the first Anglo-Burmerse war.
• First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–46):
  • The outbreak of the first of the Anglo-Sikh wars has been attributed to the action of the Sikh army crossing the River Sutlej on December 11, 1845. This was seen as an aggressive manoeuvre that provided the Lord Hardinge(1844-48) with the justification to declare war. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • The war began in December 1845, with 20,000 to 30,000 troops in the British side, while the Sikhs had about 50,000 men under the overall command of Lal Singh. But the treachery of Lal Singh and Teja Singh caused five successive defeats to the Sikhs. Lahore fell to the British forces on February 20, 1846 without a fight.
  • The end of the first Anglo-Sikh War forced the Sikhs to sign a humiliating Treaty of Lahore, 1846 in 1846.
• First Anglo-Afghan War (1839-42):
  • Following a protracted civil war that began in 1816, the Barakzay clan became the ruling dynasty of Afghanistan, with its most powerful member, Dost Moḥammad Khan, ascending the throne in 1826.
    • With Great Britain and Russia maneuvering for influence in Afghanistan, Dost Moḥammad was forced to balance his country between the two great powers.
  • The British, feeling that Dost Moḥammad was either hostile to them or unable to resist Russian penetration, moved to take a direct role in Afghan affairs. First they negotiated unsatisfactorily with Dost Moḥammad, and then an invasion of Afghanistan was ordered by the governor-general of India, Lord Auckland, with the object of restoring exiled Afghan ruler Shah Shojāʿ to the throne.
• Lord Auckland served as Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842. The first Anglo-Afghan war, which occurred during his reign, dealt a major blow to British prestige in India. He is noted for his mistakes in the Afghan wars and has been dubbed India's most disastrous Governor-General. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

• UGC Regulations Open Doors for Foreign Universities in India: The University Grants Commission (UGC) has recently released regulations that pave the way for foreign universities, ranked among the world's top 500, to establish branch campuses in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The move aligns with the National Education Policy 2020, envisioning a legislative framework for top global universities in India. The guidelines were notified after the draft norms announced by UGC for Foreign universities were made public for feedback.
• Key Aspects of these Regulations:
  • Collaborative Initiatives: Two or more foreign universities can collaborate to establish campuses in India. Each participating institution must meet individual eligibility criteria. Each foreign university has the opportunity to set up more than one campus in the country. Faculty Engagement Requirements: International faculty appointed for Indian campuses must commit to staying in the country for a minimum of one semester. This ensures a sustained and meaningful contribution to the academic environment. Autonomy: Foreign universities are permitted to decide their admission process, fee structure, and also repatriate funds to their parent campuses. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.