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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 for UPSC 2025 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 preparation. The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 MCQs are made for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 below.
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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs:

1. Arsia Mons - Located in the Tharsis region of Mars

2. Mangalyaan - Made India the first country to orbit Mars on its first attempt

3. Indravati National Park - Situated in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh

4. Ken-Betwa Link Project - Located entirely outside any protected area

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 1

1. Arsia Mons - Located in the Tharsis region of Mars
This pair is correctly matched. Arsia Mons is indeed situated in the Tharsis region on Mars, which is known for its large shield volcanoes.

2. Mangalyaan - Made India the first country to orbit Mars on its first attempt
This pair is correctly matched. Mangalyaan, also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission, made India the first country to successfully place a spacecraft into Mars' orbit on its first attempt.

3. Indravati National Park - Situated in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh
This pair is correctly matched. Indravati National Park is located in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh and is known for its rich biodiversity and as a tiger reserve established under Project Tiger.

4. Ken-Betwa Link Project - Located entirely outside any protected area
This pair is incorrectly matched. The Ken-Betwa Link Project is not located entirely outside protected areas. It involves construction within the Panna Tiger Reserve, which raises environmental concerns due to its impact on wildlife habitats.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Registration System (CRS) in India:

1. The Civil Registration System is governed by the Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, which was amended in 2023 to enhance uniformity and comparability in registration processes.

2. The CRS is categorized under the State List of the Constitution of India.

3. The Office of the Registrar General, India (ORGI) is responsible for compiling data on causes of death from the Chief Registrar of Births and Deaths in various states and union territories.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 2

- Statement 1 is correct. The Civil Registration System is indeed governed by the Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969. This Act was amended in 2023 to improve the uniformity and comparability of registration processes across different states and union territories.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Civil Registration System is categorized under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India, not the State List. This categorization allows both the central and state governments to legislate on matters related to civil registration.

- Statement 3 is correct. The Office of the Registrar General, India (ORGI) is responsible for compiling data on causes of death, which is collected from the Chief Registrar of Births and Deaths in various states and union territories. This data is crucial for public health planning and policy-making.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 3

Consider the following pairs:

1. Civil Registration System (CRS) - Responsible for recording only births and deaths.

2. Spathaspina noohi - A species belonging to the beetle family Curculionidae.

3. Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple - Located in Kochi, Kerala.

4. Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969 - Initially implemented in all states and union territories starting from April 1, 1970.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 3

1. Civil Registration System (CRS) - Responsible for recording only births and deaths. - Incorrect. The CRS is responsible for the official recording of vital events such as births, deaths, and stillbirths. Therefore, saying "only births and deaths" is incorrect as it includes stillbirths as well.

2. Spathaspina noohi - A species belonging to the beetle family Curculionidae. - Correct. Spathaspina noohi is indeed a newly discovered beetle species in the weevil family (Curculionidae).

3. Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple - Located in Kochi, Kerala. - Incorrect. The Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, not Kochi.

4. Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969 - Initially implemented in all states and union territories starting from April 1, 1970. - Correct. The RBD Act was enacted in 1969 and implemented in most states and union territories starting from April 1, 1970.

Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding the judiciary in India:

1. The in-house procedure for handling judicial misconduct is conducted with full public transparency and accountability.

2. Previous cases of misconduct in the judiciary have often been handled with a lack of transparency and public oversight.

3. The current system of judicial accountability involves both judicial and independent external oversight.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 4

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The in-house procedure for handling judicial misconduct in India is known for its lack of transparency and accountability, as it is conducted internally by judges without public oversight or the requirement to disclose outcomes. This mechanism is criticized for its opacity and the absence of procedural safeguards that would otherwise ensure public confidence in the judiciary's integrity.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. Historical precedents in India, such as allegations against certain judges, have illustrated a pattern of handling misconduct with secrecy and minimal public oversight. This has been a point of criticism and highlights the systemic issues within the judiciary's accountability mechanisms.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The current system of judicial accountability in India lacks independent external oversight. It relies primarily on internal procedures conducted by fellow judges, which do not include independent bodies or external checks that might ensure greater transparency and accountability.

Thus, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option C: 2 Only the correct answer. The solution explains the reasoning behind each statement's validity, aligning with the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the discovery of Portulaca bharat and the PRASHAD scheme:

1. Portulaca bharat is a newly discovered species of flowering plant found in the Western Ghats, known for its opposite, slightly concave leaves and pale-yellow flowers.

2. The PRASHAD scheme aims to enhance spiritual tourism by developing key pilgrimage sites and was launched by the Ministry of Culture.

3. Portulaca bharat is vulnerable to climate change due to its narrow endemism and specific habitat requirements.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 5

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. Portulaca bharat is indeed a newly discovered species of flowering plant, but it was found in the Aravali hills near Jaipur, not the Western Ghats. The plant exhibits opposite, slightly concave leaves and pale-yellow flowers that turn creamish-white towards the apex, but its habitat is specific to the Aravali hills, not the Western Ghats.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The PRASHAD scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism, not the Ministry of Culture. It focuses on enhancing spiritual tourism by developing key pilgrimage sites across India.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Portulaca bharat is vulnerable to climate change due to its narrow endemism and specific habitat requirements. It is currently known from only one location, the Galtaji hills, with just 10 individuals found, making it susceptible to environmental changes and habitat degradation.

The correct answer is Option C: 3 Only, as this statement accurately reflects the information regarding the vulnerability of Portulaca bharat due to its specific habitat needs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 6

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II:
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 6


Statement-I is correct because the atmosphere is indeed heated more by incoming solar radiation rather than terrestrial radiation. Solar radiation is the primary source of energy that heats the Earth's atmosphere.
Statement-II is also correct because greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide are efficient absorbers of long-wave radiation. These gases absorb the Earth's emitted infrared radiation, trapping heat in the atmosphere, which contributes to the greenhouse effect and global warming. Thus, Statement-II explains why the atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides an explanation for Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Genomic Atlas published in the Cell journal has sequenced the genomes of 2,762 Indians from 23 states and union territories, creating the most comprehensive genomic map of India to date.

Statement-II:
The legislative reforms in the Civil Nuclear Sector aim to enhance private and foreign investment in India's nuclear industry.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 7


Statement-I talks about the Genomic Atlas study in India, which is accurate based on the provided information. It highlights the sequencing of Indian genomes for comprehensive mapping. Statement-II refers to legislative reforms in the Civil Nuclear Sector aimed at enhancing investments, which is also correct based on the details given. However, these statements are independent of each other and do not explain or relate to one another, making option B the correct choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Botrytis cinerea, also known as noble rot, enhances the sweetness and aroma of wines under controlled vineyard conditions.
Statement-II:
India has imposed restrictions on jute imports from Bangladesh to protect the domestic jute industry and address strategic concerns.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 8


Statement-I correctly highlights the role of Botrytis cinerea in enhancing the sweetness and aroma of wines, which is significant in winemaking. Statement-II accurately mentions India's imposition of restrictions on jute imports from Bangladesh to safeguard its domestic jute industry and address strategic concerns. The connection between the two statements lies in the context of agricultural products and industry regulations, making both statements correct with a logical relationship where Statement-II explains the need for the restrictions mentioned in Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the recent legislative reforms in India's nuclear sector:

1. Amendments to the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA) aim to align with the 1997 Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage.

2. The proposed changes will allow private companies to operate nuclear power plants in India.

3. The reforms include clarifying the definition of 'supplier' to protect Indian sub-vendors from liability unless explicitly mentioned in contracts.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 9

1. Amendments to the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA) aim to align with the 1997 Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage.

- This statement is correct. The amendments are intended to bring India's nuclear liability laws in line with international norms, specifically the Convention on Supplementary Compensation, which India joined in 2016.

2. The proposed changes will allow private companies to operate nuclear power plants in India.

- This statement is correct. The amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, propose allowing private companies to operate nuclear power plants, a role currently restricted to state-owned entities, thus opening the sector to private participation.

3. The reforms include clarifying the definition of 'supplier' to protect Indian sub-vendors from liability unless explicitly mentioned in contracts.

- This statement is correct. One of the key reforms is to clarify the definition of 'supplier' to alleviate concerns among Indian sub-vendors about potential liabilities, providing protection unless they are explicitly mentioned in contracts.

All three statements accurately reflect the legislative changes being proposed and discussed in India's nuclear sector, making Option D the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 10

What is the primary objective of the Ramsar Convention?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 10

The Ramsar Convention focuses on the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands globally. Its key objectives include identifying and designating wetlands of global importance, ensuring the effective management of these sites, and promoting international cooperation for wetland protection. This treaty aims to safeguard these vital ecosystems and the biodiversity they support, emphasizing the need for collaborative efforts to address wetland conservation challenges worldwide.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 11

Consider the following pairs related to India's environment and textile industry:

1. Neglected and Underutilised Species (NUS) - Small millets, buckwheat, and amaranth

2. Odisha Millet Mission - Initiative to promote rice cultivation

3. Regenerative Farming - Focuses on restoring soil health and increasing biodiversity

4. PM MITRA Scheme - Supports the development of Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel Parks

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 11

1. Neglected and Underutilised Species (NUS) - Small millets, buckwheat, and amaranth: This pair is correctly matched. NUS includes crops like small millets, buckwheat, and amaranth, which are often overlooked but have high nutritional value and adaptability to changing climates.

2. Odisha Millet Mission - Initiative to promote rice cultivation: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Odisha Millet Mission aims to integrate small millets and other minor crops into local food systems to enhance nutritional diversity, not rice cultivation.

3. Regenerative Farming - Focuses on restoring soil health and increasing biodiversity: This pair is correctly matched. Regenerative farming indeed focuses on restoring and enhancing soil health, increasing biodiversity, and improving ecosystem resilience.

4. PM MITRA Scheme - Supports the development of Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel Parks: This pair is correctly matched. The PM MITRA Scheme is designed to establish Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel Parks to streamline the entire textile value chain, reducing logistics costs and increasing competitiveness.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

1. India contributes nearly 8% of the global biodiversity despite occupying only 2% of the world's landmass.

2. Orphan crops, such as small millets and amaranth, are increasingly recognized for their potential to enhance climate resilience and food security in India.

3. The Odisha Millet Mission is a government initiative aimed at promoting monoculture practices to increase agricultural output.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 12

- Statement 1 is correct. India is indeed a megadiverse country, contributing significantly to global biodiversity. It holds approximately 8% of the global biodiversity while covering only 2% of the world's landmass, which underscores its rich and varied biological resources.

- Statement 2 is also correct. Orphan crops, which include small millets, buckwheat, amaranth, and other indigenous crops, are being increasingly recognized for their role in enhancing food security and climate resilience. These crops are often neglected in mainstream agriculture but are valuable due to their nutritional benefits and adaptability to changing climates.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Odisha Millet Mission is not aimed at promoting monoculture practices. Instead, it is an initiative to integrate millets and other minor crops into local food systems to enhance agrobiodiversity and ensure nutritional diversity. The focus is on reviving traditional farming techniques and promoting neglected crops, rather than increasing agricultural output through monoculture.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only. This makes Option B the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 13

What is the primary objective of Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 13

The main goal of Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) is to mitigate the effects of climate change by cooling the planet. This technique involves injecting tiny reflective particles into the upper atmosphere to mimic the natural cooling effects of volcanic eruptions. By reflecting sunlight away from the Earth's surface, SAI aims to counteract the warming effects of greenhouse gases and reduce global temperatures.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

1. The Kashmir Merino breed was developed in the 1960s by integrating native breeds such as Poonchi, Gaddi, and Bakerwal with exotic breeds like Australian Merino.

2. The gene-editing technique CRISPR-Cas9 used on the Kashmir Merino specifically targeted the myostatin gene to increase wool quality by 30%.

3. The gene-edited Kashmir Merino sheep is known for its ability to thrive in harsh climatic conditions and its high resistance to diseases prevalent in the Kashmir Valley.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 14

Statement 1 is correct. The Kashmir Merino breed was indeed developed in the 1960s at the Government Sheep Breeding and Research Farm in Reasi, Jammu, by integrating native breeds such as Poonchi, Gaddi, and Bakerwal with exotic breeds like the Australian Merino. This effort aimed to enhance productivity in terms of wool and meat.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing technique was used on the Kashmir Merino, it specifically targeted the myostatin gene, which is a known suppressor of muscle growth, resulting in a 30% increase in muscle mass, not wool quality.

Statement 3 is correct. The Kashmir Merino sheep is well-suited to thrive in harsh climatic conditions and has high adaptability and resistance to diseases prevalent in the Kashmir Valley. This makes it an ideal breed for the region's environment.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs related to India's first gene-edited sheep:

1. Kashmir Merino - Developed in the 1960s

2. Gene-editing Technique - CRISPR-Cas9

3. Targeted Gene - Myostatin Gene

4. Origin - Exclusively from exotic breeds

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 15

1. Kashmir Merino - Developed in the 1960s: This pair is correctly matched. The Kashmir Merino breed was indeed developed in the 1960s at the Govt. Sheep Breeding and Research Farm in Reasi, Jammu. It was created by cross-breeding local breeds such as Poonchi, Gaddi, and Bakerwal with exotic breeds like Australian Merino to enhance its productivity in terms of wool and meat.

2. Gene-editing Technique - CRISPR-Cas9: This pair is correctly matched. CRISPR-Cas9 is the gene-editing technique used to create India's first gene-edited sheep. This technique allows for precise editing of the genome, and in this case, it was used to target the myostatin gene.

3. Targeted Gene - Myostatin Gene: This pair is correctly matched. The gene-editing targeted the myostatin gene, which is a known suppressor of muscle growth. By editing this gene, a 30% increase in muscle mass was achieved, which is significant for producing quality meat.

4. Origin - Exclusively from exotic breeds: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Kashmir Merino is not exclusively from exotic breeds. It is a product of cross-breeding between local breeds (such as Poonchi, Gaddi, and Bakerwal) and exotic breeds like Australian Merino, thus combining traits for improved adaptability and productivity.

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 4 is not correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs:

1. INS Tabar - Indian stealth frigate

2. HMS Prince of Wales - Australian naval vessel

3. Articles 124 and 217 - Related to the removal of judges in India

4. Global Gender Gap Report - Published by the United Nations

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 16

1. INS Tabar - Indian stealth frigate: This pair is correctly matched. INS Tabar is indeed an Indian stealth frigate, participating in exercises like PASSEX with the UK.

2. HMS Prince of Wales - Australian naval vessel: This pair is incorrectly matched. HMS Prince of Wales is a British aircraft carrier, not an Australian naval vessel.

3. Articles 124 and 217 - Related to the removal of judges in India: This pair is correctly matched. Articles 124 and 217 of the Indian Constitution pertain to the appointment and conditions for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India.

4. Global Gender Gap Report - Published by the United Nations: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum, not the United Nations.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding urbanisation and public transportation in India:

1. While metro rail projects have received increased funding, the current public transport system still primarily relies on road-based transport solutions.

2. The PM e-Bus Sewa initiative has been sufficient in meeting the demand for urban buses across India's rapidly expanding cities.

3. Kochi's reintroduction of trams is an example of a cost-effective alternative transit solution aimed at reducing operational costs and dependency on subsidies.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 17

- Statement 1 is correct. Despite increased funding for metro rail projects, the majority of India's public transport infrastructure still heavily relies on road-based solutions, such as buses, due to the vast and varied geographical and urban landscape.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The PM e-Bus Sewa initiative is a positive step towards improving public transport, but the current operational capacity of urban buses is still insufficient to meet the growing demands of India's rapidly urbanizing population. Thus, the initiative alone has not been sufficient.

- Statement 3 is correct. Kochi's planned reintroduction of trams is indeed seen as a model for sustainable urban mobility. Trams are considered cost-effective alternatives because they typically have lower operational costs and reduced dependency on subsidies compared to other forms of public transportation such as metros.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 18

What is the primary purpose of India's PM e-Bus Sewa and PM e-Drive initiatives in the context of urban transportation?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 18

India's PM e-Bus Sewa and PM e-Drive initiatives aim to enhance public transport in urban areas. These initiatives focus on providing efficient and sustainable transportation solutions to cater to the increasing urban population. By promoting electric buses and driving innovation in urban transportation, these initiatives aim to address the challenges posed by rapid urbanization and the strain on existing public transport systems.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges and opportunities in India's global economic integration:

1. The protectionist policies adopted post-2010 led to an increase in India's export shares and economic growth.

2. The period from 2000 to 2010 was characterized by lower import tariffs, which significantly improved India's global exports and GDP.

3. Recent trends indicate that financial markets in India are more integrated globally than trade markets, leading to a lopsided integration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 19

- Statement 1 is incorrect. The protectionist shift post-2010 resulted in increased import duties, which actually hindered India's export capabilities and slowed down economic growth rather than increasing them.

- Statement 2 is correct. The period from 2000 to 2010, often referred to as the "Golden Decade," was characterized by lower import tariffs and saw significant improvements in India's global exports and GDP growth.

- Statement 3 is correct. Recent trends have shown that India's integration with global financial markets, especially in equities, has been stronger compared to its trade integration. This indicates a one-sided integration favoring financial markets over trade.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, which aligns with Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 20

What is the primary goal of Project Vishnu developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 20

The main objective of Project Vishnu led by DRDO is to advance India's hypersonic missile technologies. This initiative is crucial in strengthening India's strategic deterrence against regional threats, particularly from countries like China and Pakistan. The project involves the development of multi-platform deployment capabilities, enabling launches from land, air, and naval systems.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The crash of Air India flight AI171 on June 12, 2025, in Ahmedabad has led to increased fear and mistrust surrounding air travel, primarily due to misinformation and speculative media coverage.

Statement-II:
India's economic growth has historically been linked with greater global integration, but recent protectionist shifts have hindered export capabilities and growth potential.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 21

Statement-I rightly points out that the AI171 crash generated fear and mistrust in air travel because of widespread misinformation and speculative media reports. Statement-II accurately describes how India’s growth has benefited from global integration and how recent protectionist measures have hampered export growth. Since the two statements deal with different topics, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 22

What does Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) primarily aim to achieve in secure communication?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 22

Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is a key technique in quantum communication that focuses on securely sharing encryption keys between two parties. Unlike encrypting the message itself, QKD ensures that the key remains private and secure between the sender and receiver. This technique is vital in establishing highly secure communication channels resistant to interception, leveraging the principles of quantum physics such as quantum entanglement.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the Samson Option and Israel's nuclear deterrent strategy:

1. The Samson Option refers to Israel's explicit policy of first-use nuclear strikes against non-nuclear adversaries.

2. The doctrine is named after a biblical figure, reflecting the potential for catastrophic mutual destruction even at great cost to Israel itself.

3. Israel has officially declared its nuclear capabilities and maintains a transparent stance on its nuclear arsenal under the policy of amimut.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 23

1. Statement 1: Incorrect. The Samson Option does not refer to an explicit policy of first-use nuclear strikes. Rather, it is an implicit doctrine of massive nuclear retaliation in the face of existential threats, serving as a deterrent rather than a proactive first-use policy.

2. Statement 2: Correct. The doctrine is indeed named after the biblical figure Samson, who brought down a temple on himself and his enemies, symbolizing a willingness to inflict catastrophic damage on adversaries even at significant cost to oneself, which aligns with the understanding of the Samson Option.

3. Statement 3: Incorrect. Israel maintains a policy of amimut, which means deliberate ambiguity regarding its nuclear capabilities. It has not officially declared its nuclear arsenal, and instead, it avoids confirming or denying its nuclear status, thus not maintaining a transparent stance.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 24

What is the primary objective of integrating the Rare Donor Registry with e-Rakt Kosh in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 24

The main aim of integrating the Rare Donor Registry with e-Rakt Kosh in India is to improve the accessibility of rare blood types, thereby enhancing the safety and efficiency of blood transfusions. This initiative is particularly crucial for patients with complex conditions like thalassemia and sickle cell anemia who often require specific and rare blood types. By connecting rare blood donors with hospitals through a unified digital interface, the integration seeks to streamline the process and ensure timely access to necessary blood types, ultimately improving healthcare services across the nation.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Emergency in India led to the suspension of civil liberties and a significant erosion of democratic norms.

Statement-II:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment, passed during the Emergency, curtailed the judiciary's powers and expanded Union control over state matters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 25

Statement-I correctly highlights the impact of the Emergency in India, emphasizing the suspension of civil liberties and erosion of democratic norms. Statement-II accurately points out the provisions of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment passed during the Emergency, which indeed curtailed the judiciary's powers and expanded Union control over state matters. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of Statement-I in the context of the Emergency period in India.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs related to the emerging concept of "Thirstwaves" and associated initiatives:

1. Evaporative Demand - Measures the actual water content present in the soil.

2. Thirstwave - Describes periods of extreme evaporative demand lasting three or more consecutive days.

3. Standardized Short-Crop Reference Evapotranspiration (ETos) - Assumes a 12 cm grass surface with unlimited water access.

4. DAJA (Dharti Aaba Jan-bhagidari Abhiyan) - A campaign aimed at achieving full saturation of central welfare schemes in tribal areas.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 26

1. Evaporative Demand - Incorrect. Evaporative Demand measures the potential water absorption capacity of the atmosphere, not the actual water content present in the soil.

2. Thirstwave - Correct. Thirstwave is indeed a term used to describe periods of extreme evaporative demand lasting three or more consecutive days.

3. Standardized Short-Crop Reference Evapotranspiration (ETos) - Correct. ETos is a standard measure that assumes a 12 cm grass surface with unlimited water access and is used to quantify evaporative demand.

4. DAJA (Dharti Aaba Jan-bhagidari Abhiyan) - Correct. DAJA is a campaign aimed at achieving full saturation of central welfare schemes in tribal areas.

Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, but since the question asks how many pairs are correctly matched, and pair 1 is incorrect, only two of the pairs (2 and 3) align with their definitions as given in the context.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments in India have led to an increase in women's political representation, mandating a minimum reservation for women in local governance.

2. Gender-Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in India, implemented since 2005, has been highly effective in addressing gender disparities in urban governance.

3. Countries like Rwanda and South Korea have successfully integrated gender equity into urban governance, resulting in improved health and safety outcomes for women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 27

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Statement 1: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments have indeed resulted in an increase in women's political representation in India by mandating a minimum reservation for women in local governance. This statement is correct.

2. Statement 2: While Gender-Responsive Budgeting (GRB) has been implemented in India since 2005, its impact has been limited. The effectiveness of GRB has been constrained by weak monitoring and a narrow understanding of gender needs, indicating that it has not been highly effective. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

3. Statement 3: Global examples, such as those from Rwanda and South Korea, demonstrate successful integration of gender equity in urban governance, leading to positive outcomes such as improved health and safety for women. This statement is correct.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
DNA polymorphisms are variations in DNA sequences unique to individuals, crucial for forensic identification.

Statement-II:
Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) are repeating sequences of DNA bases that provide robust evidence for genetic relationships and are ideal for criminal investigations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 28


Statement-I correctly identifies DNA polymorphisms as variations in DNA sequences unique to individuals, which are indeed crucial for forensic identification. Statement-II accurately describes Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) as repeating sequences of DNA bases that provide robust evidence for genetic relationships and are highly useful in criminal investigations. Additionally, STRs are indeed ideal for such purposes, aligning with the information provided in the context. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II effectively explains the significance of STRs in genetic research and forensic science.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 29

What is the primary significance of Mahua (Madhuca longifolia) in Central India's tribal communities?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 29

Mahua (Madhuca longifolia) holds significant economic value for Central India's tribal communities. The tree plays a crucial role in sustaining livelihoods by providing various products like food, alcoholic beverages, and innovative items such as the Mahua Nutra Beverage. This economic importance underscores the tree's cultural significance and its contribution to the tribal economy, making it a lifeline for these communities.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The legal profession in India faces stratification issues, particularly concerning the designation of senior advocates under Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961.

Statement-II:
Silica gel desiccants are primarily composed of silicon dioxide and are effective in removing excess moisture from the air.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - June 2025 - Question 30


Statement-I discusses the stratification issues within the legal profession in India, focusing on the designation of senior advocates. This is accurate based on the provided information regarding the systemic inequalities and the challenges posed by the current criteria for designating senior advocates.

Statement-II talks about silica gel desiccants being composed of silicon dioxide and their effectiveness in absorbing excess moisture. This statement is also correct as per the information provided in the text about the composition and functionality of silica gel desiccants in various industries.

While both statements are factually correct based on the information provided, they are independent of each other and do not have a direct explanatory relationship. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

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