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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 for UPSC 2025 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 preparation. The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 MCQs are made for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 below.
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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 1

What is the primary goal of Auroville as an experimental international township?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 1

The main objective of Auroville as an experimental international township is to explore alternative ways of living and working together peacefully. Founded with the vision of promoting peace, harmony, and sustainable living, Auroville aims to create a community that embodies these ideals. Through its focus on sustainable practices and communal living, Auroville serves as a model for peaceful coexistence and environmental stewardship.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 2

What is the primary objective of the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) aboard the Aditya-L1 mission?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 2

The primary objective of the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) aboard the Aditya-L1 mission is to analyze the dynamic interactions within the solar atmosphere, focusing on energetic phenomena like jets, flares, filament evolution, and eruptions. By studying these interactions, scientists aim to gain insights into the behavior of the Sun and its impact on space weather, which can have significant effects on Earth's technology and infrastructure.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 3

Consider the following pairs:

1. The Hague Service Convention: Multilateral treaty simplifying international service of legal documents in criminal matters.

2. FCPA Enforcement: Temporarily paused by the Trump administration, not affecting ongoing investigations.

3. Oarfish: Associated with impending natural disasters in Japanese folklore.

4. Exercise Desert Hunt 2025: Conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur, involving Indian Armed Forces.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 3

1. The Hague Service Convention: Incorrectly matched. It is a multilateral treaty that simplifies the process of serving legal documents internationally in civil and commercial matters, not criminal matters.

2. FCPA Enforcement: Correctly matched. The Trump administration had temporarily paused enforcement of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) for 180 days, but the pause does not apply retroactively, allowing ongoing investigations to proceed.

3. Oarfish: Correctly matched. In Japanese folklore, the oarfish is associated with impending natural disasters and is considered a harbinger of such events.

4. Exercise Desert Hunt 2025: Correctly matched. This exercise was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur, involving the Indian Armed Forces, focusing on enhancing interoperability among Special Forces units.

Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding D-voters in Assam:

1. D-voters are individuals whose citizenship status is unresolved and are pending verification by Foreigners Tribunals.

2. The Citizenship Act of 1955 explicitly defines the term 'D-voter'.

3. D-voters lose their voting rights until their citizenship status is resolved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 4

- Statement 1 is correct. D-voters, or Doubtful voters, are individuals in Assam whose citizenship status is unresolved. Their cases are pending with Foreigners Tribunals, which are tasked with determining the legitimacy of their citizenship claims.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The term 'D-voter' is not defined in the Citizenship Act of 1955. Instead, it was introduced by the Election Commission of India in 1997, and it does not appear in the Citizenship Act or the Citizenship Rules of 2003.

- Statement 3 is correct. D-voters do indeed lose their voting rights until their citizenship status is resolved. They are not eligible to vote or contest in elections as their nationality is under question.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Nelore breed of cattle is originally from India but is now prevalent in Brazil and is known for its exceptional genetic qualities.

Statement-II: Populism in governance can lead to increased political participation but poses challenges to good governance by prioritizing short-term gains over sustainable policies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 5

Statement-I correctly highlights the origin and prevalence of the Nelore breed of cattle, known for its exceptional genetic qualities. Statement-II correctly points out that populism can lead to increased political participation but also mentions the challenges it poses to good governance by prioritizing short-term gains over sustainable policies. Populism's focus on short-term gains can indeed undermine long-term institutional strengthening and the principles of good governance. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II aptly explains the implications of populism on governance.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 6

What is the primary objective of AIKosha, the IndiaAI Datasets Platform?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 6

The primary objective of AIKosha, the IndiaAI Datasets Platform, is to provide access to high-quality, non-personal datasets and AI models. This initiative aims to foster AI innovation across India by offering essential resources to model builders, developers, students, startups, researchers, academia, and government departments. By providing a centralized repository with over 300 datasets and 80 AI models, AIKosha plays a crucial role in democratizing AI development and supporting the creation of India-centric AI solutions.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Provides financial assistance to women entrepreneurs.
2. Jal Jeevan Mission: Provides safe drinking water to households.
3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana: Focuses on opening bank accounts for women.
4. Stand-Up India Scheme: Focuses on digital connectivity in rural areas.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 7

1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Incorrectly matched. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a campaign by the Government of India aimed at cleaning the streets, roads, and infrastructure of the country's cities and rural areas, not specifically providing financial assistance to women entrepreneurs.

2. Jal Jeevan Mission: Correctly matched. The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.

3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana: Correctly matched. This scheme focuses on financial inclusion by opening bank accounts for the unbanked, including a significant focus on women, promoting their savings and financial independence.

4. Stand-Up India Scheme: Incorrectly matched. The Stand-Up India Scheme is meant to promote entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by facilitating bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore, not focusing on digital connectivity.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan has constructed over 116 million household toilets, enhancing security and dignity for women in rural areas.
Statement-II:
The Jal Jeevan Mission has provided safe drinking water to over 150 million households, reducing the time women spend fetching water and increasing their participation in economic activities.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 8


Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, a government initiative, indeed constructed over 116 million household toilets, which have significantly improved sanitation and dignity for women in rural areas. Similarly, the Jal Jeevan Mission has provided safe drinking water to over 150 million households, contributing to reducing the burden on women who previously spent significant time fetching water. Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II explains how the Jal Jeevan Mission has positively impacted women's lives by enhancing their participation in economic activities.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

1. Dulcibella camanchaca is a newly discovered species of amphipod identified in the deep waters of the Mariana Trench.

2. The Semicon India Programme was initiated in 2021 to boost India's semiconductor manufacturing capabilities and involves the construction of several facilities.

3. Obesity in India has been linked to a 244% increase in childhood obesity over the last 30 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 9

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Dulcibella camanchaca is a newly discovered species of amphipod, but it was identified in the Atacama Trench, not the Mariana Trench. The Atacama Trench is located in the South Pacific Ocean, adjacent to Chile, and the discovery highlights life forms thriving under extreme conditions.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Semicon India Programme was indeed initiated in 2021 to foster semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystems in India. The program includes constructing several semiconductor manufacturing and assembly facilities, such as the Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Facility in Assam and the Dholera Semiconductor Fabrication Facility in collaboration with Taiwan's Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation.

- Statement 3 is correct. Obesity in India has seen a significant increase, particularly among children, with a reported 244% increase in childhood obesity over the last 30 years. This rise is linked to changes in dietary habits and lifestyle.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs related to international agreements and initiatives:

1. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture - Promotes biodiversity in agriculture

2. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification - Deals with reducing soil erosion

3. World Heritage Convention - Focuses exclusively on cultural heritage

4. Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) - Enhances maritime security in the Indian Ocean

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 10

1. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture - Correctly matched. This treaty indeed promotes biodiversity in agriculture by acknowledging the contributions of farmers and establishing a framework for accessing plant genetic materials.

2. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification - Incorrectly matched. While it addresses land degradation and desertification, it does not specifically focus on reducing soil erosion. Its broader aim is to combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought.

3. World Heritage Convention - Incorrectly matched. This convention addresses both cultural and natural heritage, not just cultural heritage exclusively, to ensure their protection for future generations.

4. Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) - Correctly matched. SAGAR indeed focuses on enhancing maritime security in the Indian Ocean region, promoting regional stability and cooperation.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The in-house inquiry mechanism for judges was established to hold judges accountable for misconduct that does not meet the impeachment standard.

Statement-II:
The impeachment of judges in India is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution, requiring a two-thirds majority in both houses of Parliament.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 11


- Statement-I is accurate. The in-house inquiry mechanism for judges was indeed established to hold judges accountable for misconduct that does not meet the impeachment standard. This process operates separately from the impeachment process outlined in the Constitution.
- Statement-II is also correct. The impeachment of judges in India is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution, necessitating a two-thirds majority in both houses of Parliament for a judge to be removed from office.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II helps explain the purpose and context of Statement-I, making option (a) the accurate choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 12

Consider the following pairs:

1. Farakka Barrage - Located on the Hooghly River

2. Urban Heat Island Effect - Reduced air pollution due to urbanization

3. Ganges Water Sharing Treaty - Signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh

4. Hyderabad - Identified as an Urban Heat Island

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 12

1. Farakka Barrage - Located on the Hooghly River: Incorrect. The Farakka Barrage is located on the Ganges River in Murshidabad District, West Bengal, near the Bangladesh border. It has a feeder canal that connects to the Hooghly River.

2. Urban Heat Island Effect - Reduced air pollution due to urbanization: Incorrect. The Urban Heat Island effect actually increases air pollution as urban areas tend to trap more heat and pollutants, leading to higher temperatures and smog formation.

3. Ganges Water Sharing Treaty - Signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh: Correct. This treaty was indeed signed in 1996 to ensure equitable water distribution between India and Bangladesh, addressing water scarcity and related issues.

4. Hyderabad - Identified as an Urban Heat Island: Correct. Hyderabad has recently been identified as an Urban Heat Island, with significantly higher temperatures compared to its surrounding rural areas, as highlighted in the Telangana government's Socio Economic Outlook 2025 report.

Thus, only two pairs (3 and 4) are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs related to deep-sea mining and related organizations:

1. Polymetallic Nodule Mining - Extraction of Gold and Silver

2. Seafloor Massive Sulphide Mining - Extraction of Copper and Zinc

3. Cobalt-Rich Crust Mining - Targeting Nickel and Rare Earths

4. International Seabed Authority (ISA) - Regulates international seabed mining

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 13

1. Polymetallic Nodule Mining - Extraction of Gold and Silver: This is incorrectly matched. Polymetallic Nodule Mining involves collecting mineral-rich nodules from the ocean floor, primarily targeting Nickel, Cobalt, and Rare Earths, not Gold and Silver.

2. Seafloor Massive Sulphide Mining - Extraction of Copper and Zinc: This is correctly matched. Seafloor Massive Sulphide Mining focuses on extracting metal deposits from hydrothermal vents, which include Copper and Zinc, among others like Gold and Silver.

3. Cobalt-Rich Crust Mining - Targeting Nickel and Rare Earths: This is incorrectly matched. Cobalt-Rich Crust Mining targets Cobalt, Platinum, and Manganese, not Nickel and Rare Earths.

4. International Seabed Authority (ISA) - Regulates international seabed mining: This is correctly matched. The ISA, established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, regulates and manages mineral-related activities in international seabed areas beyond national jurisdiction.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 14

What is a key concern highlighted in the context of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and its implications for India's education system?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 14

The centralization of power and decision-making in education governance is a significant concern raised by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. This trend undermines federal principles and limits state involvement in shaping educational policies and initiatives. It signifies a shift towards centralized decision-making at the expense of collaborative efforts between the central government and state governments, impacting the autonomy and diversity of the education system. **Note:** The question and options are crafted based on the information provided in the text regarding the centralization of education governance as a major issue in India's education system.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 15

What is the primary purpose of convening the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) as emphasized by the Parliamentary Standing Committee?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 15

The primary purpose of convening the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) as emphasized by the Parliamentary Standing Committee is to facilitate dialogue among stakeholders and support labor reforms. The ILC serves as a crucial platform for tripartite dialogue, fostering discussions among representatives from the government, employers, and employees. This dialogue is essential for addressing challenges, ensuring effective implementation of labor laws, and promoting harmony in the labor sector.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs related to recent schemes and events in India:

1. PM-YUVA 3.0: Mentoring program for young scientists

2. Foreign Exchange Reserves: Managed by the Ministry of Finance

3. Raisina Dialogue: Hosted by Observer Research Foundation and Ministry of Home Affairs

4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): Reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 16

1. PM-YUVA 3.0: This is incorrectly matched. PM-YUVA 3.0 is a mentoring program for young authors, not young scientists. It aims to develop a new generation of writers who can explore various aspects of India's history, culture, and future.

2. Foreign Exchange Reserves: This is incorrectly matched. Foreign Exchange Reserves are managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not the Ministry of Finance. These reserves include foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF.

3. Raisina Dialogue: This is incorrectly matched. The Raisina Dialogue is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a leading conference on geopolitics and geo-economics held annually in New Delhi.

4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): This is correctly matched. SDRs are a form of reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to supplement its member countries' official reserves.

Only pair 4 is correctly matched, so the correct answer is Option A: Only one pair.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 17

Consider the following pairs:

1. Melioidosis - Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

2. Assam Rifles - Operational command under Ministry of Home Affairs

3. NECTAR - Established under the Department of Science & Technology

4. Melioidosis - Transmitted from animals to humans

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 17

1. Melioidosis - Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei: This pair is correctly matched. Melioidosis is indeed caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei.

2. Assam Rifles - Operational command under Ministry of Home Affairs: This pair is incorrectly matched. The operational command of Assam Rifles is actually with the Indian Army, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, though it is administratively controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

3. NECTAR - Established under the Department of Science & Technology: This pair is correctly matched. NECTAR is an autonomous society established under the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India.

4. Melioidosis - Transmitted from animals to humans: This pair is incorrectly matched. Melioidosis is not transmitted from animals to humans. It spreads through direct contact with contaminated soil, water, or air.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1 and 3.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 18

What is the primary focus of the North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 18

The North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) in India primarily focuses on applying advanced technologies to support development in the northeastern region of the country. By leveraging cutting-edge solutions, NECTAR aims to address various sectors such as biodiversity concerns, watershed management, telemedicine, horticulture, infrastructure planning and development, as well as planning and monitoring. This initiative is crucial for utilizing technology to enhance sustainable development and community advancement in the northeastern states of India.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI) and its actions against digital monopolies:

1. The CCI imposed a fine on Meta and prohibited the sharing of WhatsApp user data with other Meta-owned platforms for five years.

2. The CCI's decision against Meta was primarily due to the company's refusal to update its privacy policy as mandated by Indian law.

3. The CCI's existing competition laws, established in 2002, are considered fully adequate to address the complexities of digital market dynamics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 19

1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) did impose a fine of ₹213.14 crore on Meta and also included a five-year ban on sharing WhatsApp user data with other Meta-owned platforms. This action was taken as part of the CCI's larger scrutiny of data exploitation and anti-competitive behavior by digital giants.

2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The CCI's decision against Meta was not primarily due to a refusal to update its privacy policy as per Indian law, but rather because the 2021 privacy policy update was seen as an abuse of Meta's dominant position, reinforcing its market power through a "take-it-or-leave-it" consent model.

3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The CCI's existing competition laws, established in 2002, are widely regarded as needing updates to effectively address the nuances of digital market dynamics. The scenario has evolved significantly with data playing a crucial role in market dominance, and hence there is a recognized need for reform to combat data-driven monopolies effectively.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

1. The Union government's health expenditure as a percentage of GDP increased from 1.15% in 2013-14 to 1.84% in 2021-22.

2. The National Health Policy 2017 aims to increase government health expenditure to 3.5% of GDP by 2025.

3. The rise in government health spending has contributed to reducing out-of-pocket expenditure for individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 20

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Union government's expenditure on healthcare rose from 1.15% of GDP in 2013-14 to 1.84% in 2021-22, reflecting an increased commitment to improving the public healthcare system.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The National Health Policy 2017 aims to increase government health expenditure to 2.5% of GDP by 2025, not 3.5%. This target aligns with the policy's broader goal of strengthening India's healthcare infrastructure.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. Increased government spending on health has indeed contributed to reducing out-of-pocket expenditure for individuals. This is due to improved accessibility of public health services, expansion of government-funded health insurance, and initiatives like Ayushman Bharat, which have collectively reduced the financial burden on families.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the right choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 21

According to the World Happiness Report 2025, which country has been ranked as the happiest for the eighth consecutive year?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 21

Finland has been ranked as the happiest country for the eighth consecutive year according to the World Happiness Report 2025. This consistent top ranking reflects various factors contributing to Finland's high happiness score, such as social support, freedom to make life choices, and a strong sense of community and well-being.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 22

What is a key aspect of astronauts' recovery process after extended space missions?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 22

Astronauts undergo a structured recovery process after extended space missions, including a tailored rehabilitation program that is customized to address each astronaut's individual needs. This program focuses on regaining fitness and strength, essential for readjusting safely to life on Earth after exposure to microgravity. It is crucial in helping astronauts overcome the physiological changes they experience during space missions and facilitates their re-adaptation to Earth's gravity.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Precedent:

1. Lower courts are required to follow the decisions made by the Supreme Court, as per Article 141 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Obiter Dicta, the non-essential remarks made by the court, are binding on lower courts.

3. Ratio Decidendi refers to the legal reasoning that constitutes the binding part of a judgment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 23

- Statement 1 is correct. Article 141 of the Indian Constitution states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India. This ensures consistency and uniformity in the application of law across different cases and courts.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. Obiter Dicta are non-essential remarks or observations made by a judge that are not binding. They do not have the force of law like Ratio Decidendi, which is the principle or reason for the decision in a case.

- Statement 3 is correct. Ratio Decidendi is the legal reasoning or principle underlying a judicial decision, which is binding on lower courts in similar future cases. It is the essential part of a judgment that must be followed to maintain legal consistency.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 24

What is the significance of the doctrine of precedent in the Indian legal system?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 24

The doctrine of precedent in the Indian legal system plays a crucial role in promoting consistency and fairness in legal decisions. This principle requires lower courts to follow the decisions made by higher courts, ensuring that similar cases are treated alike. By adhering to precedent, the legal system maintains stability and upholds the rule of law, preventing arbitrary judgments based on personal preferences.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 25

What is the primary focus of the 'UN80 Initiative' introduced by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 25

The 'UN80 Initiative' spearheaded by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres primarily aims to tackle pressing issues such as liquidity crisis and resource constraints faced by the United Nations. This reform program is geared towards enhancing the efficiency and responsiveness of the UN by identifying operational inefficiencies and improving the implementation of mandates from member states. It focuses on optimizing operations, reviewing mandate implementations, and conducting structural evaluations within the UN system to ensure its functionality and effectiveness in addressing global challenges.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs related to Mission Amrit Sarovar and Quantum Hubs:

1. Amrit Sarovar Pondage Area - 2 acres

2. Quantum Computing Hub - IIT Bombay

3. Technical Partner for Mission Amrit Sarovar - BISAG-N

4. Management Coordinating Center for Quantum Hubs - IIT Kanpur

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 26

1. Amrit Sarovar Pondage Area - 2 acres: This is incorrectly matched. According to the mission, each Amrit Sarovar will cover a pondage area of at least 1 acre.

2. Quantum Computing Hub - IIT Bombay: This is incorrectly matched. The Quantum Computing Hub is located at IISc Bengaluru, not IIT Bombay. IIT Bombay is the location for the Quantum Communication Hub.

3. Technical Partner for Mission Amrit Sarovar - BISAG-N: This is correctly matched. The Bhaskar Acharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) is the technical partner overseeing the mission's implementation.

4. Management Coordinating Center for Quantum Hubs - IIT Kanpur: This is correctly matched. IIT Kanpur serves as the management coordinating center, overseeing administration and funding allocation for the Quantum Hubs.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 3 and 4.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 27

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 27

The main aim of the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) is to reform and enhance health service delivery and public health actions across India. This initiative focuses on strengthening health systems to provide comprehensive care at all levels - primary, secondary, and tertiary, and prepares health systems for effective responses to current and future health emergencies.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding Special Category Status (SCS) in India:

1. Special Category Status provides states with financial assistance where 90% of funds for centrally sponsored schemes are grants.

2. The eligibility for SCS includes factors such as hilly terrain, low population density, and strategic location.

3. All states with Special Category Status receive additional tax benefits on excise, income, and corporate taxes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 28

Statement 1 is correct. Special Category Status (SCS) provides states with financial assistance, where 90% of the funds for centrally sponsored schemes are given as grants, while only 10% are loans. This is a significant benefit for states with SCS as it reduces their financial burden.

Statement 2 is also correct. The eligibility criteria for SCS include geographical and socio-economic factors such as hilly terrain, low population density, strategic location (such as proximity to international borders), and economic backwardness.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While SCS states do receive certain financial benefits, the specific tax concessions on excise, income, and corporate taxes have been largely integrated into the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, which has standardized indirect taxes across the country. Although SCS states previously enjoyed certain tax benefits, these have been reduced or altered significantly with the implementation of GST, and not all SCS states receive these benefits uniformly.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the accurate answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 29

Which of the following states were initially granted Special Category Status based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 29

The Special Category Status was initially granted to Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, and Nagaland based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. This status was provided to states facing unique challenges such as geographical, socio-economic, and infrastructural difficulties, allowing them to receive special financial aid for development. These states were recognized for their exceptional circumstances that warranted special assistance for their growth and progress.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following pairs regarding India's involvement with IORA and the Arctic:

1. IORA's Budget - Mainly funded by developed member states

2. Northern Sea Route - A focus for India-Russia collaboration to improve shipping efficiency

3. India's Arctic Policy - Launched in 2022

4. Himadri - India's research base in the Antarctic

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - March 2025 - Question 30

1. IORA's Budget - Mainly funded by developed member states: Incorrect. IORA's budget is primarily reliant on contributions from its mostly developing member states, not developed ones. This reliance often leads to financial constraints.

2. Northern Sea Route - A focus for India-Russia collaboration to improve shipping efficiency: Correct. India and Russia are indeed collaborating to enhance the Northern Sea Route for better shipping efficiency, aiming to reduce costs and improve connectivity.

3. India's Arctic Policy - Launched in 2022: Correct. India's Arctic Policy was indeed launched in 2022 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, outlining various sectors of engagement including science, economic development, and international cooperation.

4. Himadri - India's research base in the Antarctic: Incorrect. Himadri is India's research base in the Arctic, not the Antarctic. It was established in 2008 to conduct research on various scientific aspects in the Arctic region.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

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