Test: UPSC Monthly Mock- July 2025 - UPSC MCQ

1. Great Indian Bustard - Grasslands: Correctly matched. The Great Indian Bustard is a bird species primarily found in grassland ecosystems, where it relies on the open habitat for breeding and feeding.

2. Dhangar Community - Savannas: Correctly matched. The Dhangar community is traditionally pastoral, and their lifestyle is closely linked with savanna and grassland ecosystems where they practice grazing of livestock.

3. Indian Wolf - Deserts: Incorrectly matched. The Indian Wolf is not exclusively associated with deserts. It prefers open ecosystems, including grasslands and scrublands, but is not specifically tied to desert habitats.

4. Rabari Community - Tropical Rainforests: Incorrectly matched. The Rabari community is primarily associated with semi-arid regions such as the Rann of Kutch and other grassland or savanna-like regions, not tropical rainforests.

In summary, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Pairs 3 and 4 are incorrectly matched, making Option B the correct answer.

1. Statement 1 is correct. Indian secularism differs from the French model of laïcité. While the French system demands a strict separation of religion and state, Indian secularism accommodates religious pluralism and ensures state neutrality by allowing all religions to coexist without state interference. This unique model is designed to maintain harmony in a diverse society like India.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The term "secular" was not included in the Indian Constitution at the time of its adoption in 1950. It was explicitly added later through the 42nd Amendment in 1976. This amendment inserted the word "secular" in the Preamble to emphasize the secular character of the Indian state.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Jawaharlal Nehru, as a key figure in shaping Indian secularism, advocated for a state where governance was based on reason and scientific temper rather than religious dogma. He criticized organized religion for fostering dogma and superstition, envisioning a secular polity free from religious influence on state affairs.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option B: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

The interstellar comet 3I/ATLAS, discovered using the ATLAS telescope in Chile, is estimated to be between 7.6 to 14 billion years old. This age range surpasses the estimated age of our solar system, which is around 4.5 billion years. The discovery of such ancient celestial objects provides valuable insights into the formation and history of our universe.

1. Quantum Noise is described as random disturbances impacting quantum systems. Traditionally, it is seen as detrimental to quantum entanglement, but the recent research shows it can sometimes facilitate or restore entanglement. The statement suggests that it always hinders entanglement, which is incorrect as per the new findings. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

2. Amplitude Damping involves the loss of energy, not phase information. The statement provided for amplitude damping is incorrect. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

3. Entanglement is indeed a phenomenon where the state of one particle instantaneously influences the state of another, regardless of the distance. This definition is accurate. Therefore, this pair is correctly matched.

4. Depolarizing Noise is characterized by random alterations in quantum states, as stated. This is correctly matched according to the information provided.

Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. Therefore, there are only two pairs that are correctly matched. The correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Statement-I correctly highlights the traditional view of quantum noise being detrimental to quantum entanglement. Statement-II explains how under amplitude damping, intraparticle entanglement can exhibit unique behavior such as delayed decay and even revival from unentangled states, contrasting with the steady decay of interparticle entanglement. This explanation clarifies how quantum noise can have varying effects on different types of entanglement, supporting the idea that quantum noise can actually facilitate a special connection between particles in certain contexts.

Statement-I correctly outlines the purpose of the Great Trigonometric Survey (GTS), emphasizing its focus on mapping India with exceptional precision using trigonometry and geodesy for scientific and administrative purposes. This statement aligns with historical records and the objectives of the GTS.
However, Statement-II is inaccurate. Indian assistants in the GTS played a significant and crucial role rather than a minor one. They were instrumental in the success of the survey, contributing through various skilled and manual tasks such as repairing instruments, conducting vital calculations, performing logistical support, and even conducting secret surveys in sensitive regions where British officers couldn't access. Their contributions were essential to the completion and accuracy of the survey, showcasing the collaborative efforts between British officials and Indian assistants during the GTS.

Statement-I correctly outlines the parameters based on which institutions are evaluated under the NIRF ranking system. Teaching, Learning & Resources, Research & Professional Practices, Graduation Outcomes, Outreach & Inclusivity, and Perception are indeed key criteria considered for ranking.

Statement-II accurately describes how institutions are categorized by the NIRF into two groups: Category A and Category B based on their nature and importance. However, Statement-II does not provide an explanation of Statement-I; it presents additional information about the grouping of institutions rather than clarifying the content of Statement-I.

1. Exercise Prachand Shakti - Conducted at Kharga Corps Field Training Area, Meerut
This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Army conducted the exercise at the Kharga Corps Field Training Area in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

2. NIRF Penalty for Research Retractions - Effective from 2023
This pair is incorrectly matched. The NIRF penalty for research retractions will be effective from the 2024 ranking cycle, not 2023.

3. Bitra Island - Located in the southern part of Lakshadweep
This pair is incorrectly matched. Bitra Island is situated in the northern part of Lakshadweep, not the southern part.

4. INS Dweeprakshak - Located in Lakshadweep
This pair is correctly matched. INS Dweeprakshak is indeed located in Lakshadweep.

Only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Pact for the Future indeed aims to address a wide array of issues, including peace and security, climate change, and digital cooperation, as part of its comprehensive approach to international collaboration and progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Global Digital Compact is a component of the Pact for the Future, and it is designed to promote international standards and norms in the digital space, ensuring equitable access to and benefits from digital technologies.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Declaration on Future Generations was not adopted in September 2023; it was adopted during the Summit of the Future held in New York in September 2024. This reflects the collective commitment to an international system centered around the United Nations.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Bima Sakhi Yojana provides a monthly stipend of ₹7,000 to participants in the first year. This is a part of the stipend structure designed to support women as they develop into LIC agents.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. Women related to existing LIC agents or employees, such as spouses, children, and siblings, are not eligible to apply for the Bima Sakhi Yojana. This exclusion is meant to ensure unbiased opportunities for new participants who are not connected to the existing workforce.

- Statement 3 is correct. The programme does indeed aim to appoint two lakh Bima Sakhis within three years, which is part of its goal to empower women in rural areas through training and financial incentives.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option B the correct answer.

1. Statement 1: The Guryul Ravine fossil site is indeed located in the Khonmoh Conservation Reserve, which is part of the Kashmir Valley. This statement is correct.

2. Statement 2: The site provides crucial evidence of the Permian–Triassic extinction event, often referred to as the 'Great Dying'. Additionally, the Guryul Ravine site is notable for preserving imprints of what is believed to be the world's first recorded tsunami event. Thus, this statement is also correct.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Human activities such as construction and quarrying are actually damaging the site, not contributing to its preservation. These activities pose a significant threat to the site's integrity and scientific value.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, which makes Option B: 1 and 2 Only the correct answer.

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The right to vote is not considered a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Indian Constitution. Instead, it is recognized as a statutory right, as it is governed by laws enacted by the Parliament, such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Fundamental Rights are those specifically enumerated in Part III of the Constitution, and voting is not among them.

- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Article 326 of the Indian Constitution indeed guarantees universal adult franchise, providing that every citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote, subject to certain qualifications laid down by law. This reflects the principle of universal suffrage.

- Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Judicial interpretations have varied over time regarding the classification of the right to vote. While some judgments have debated its status, the prevailing view is that the right to vote is a statutory right, not a constitutional one. The Supreme Court of India has emphasized that voting rights are created by statute and not by the Constitution.

Thus, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option D the correct answer.

1. Sahkar se Samriddhi is correctly matched with the vision behind the National Cooperative Policy 2025, which focuses on prosperity through cooperation.

2. Palna Scheme is incorrectly matched. The scheme provides crèche facilities for children aged 6 months to 6 years, not 3 to 10 years. It aims to support early development, including nutritional support, cognitive development, and growth monitoring for younger children.

3. Henley Passport Index is correctly matched. This index ranks passports based on the number of destinations that passport holders can access without a visa, utilizing data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).

4. Model Cooperative Villages is correctly matched. The National Cooperative Policy 2025 includes the initiative to develop five cooperative villages per tehsil to enhance local economies through sectors like dairy, fishery, and floriculture.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC), established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, primarily aims to coordinate and monitor actions during major disaster situations. It serves as the apex body for managing such crises, bringing together key officials to provide directions, enhance readiness, and ensure a well-coordinated response from various governmental and non-governmental organizations. This coordination is crucial in effectively addressing disasters with national implications and safeguarding lives and property.

Statement-I is correct as per the information provided. The ICC is indeed mandated by the POSH Act to address complaints of sexual harassment. Statement-II is also accurate. The Vishaka Guidelines were indeed established in response to the Bhanwari Devi case and did mandate the creation of complaint committees led by women. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the context behind the establishment of ICCs in accordance with the POSH Act.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple is indeed one of the twelve Jyotirlingas in India and is located in the Nasik district of Maharashtra. Jyotirlingas are sacred shrines where Lord Shiva is worshipped in the form of a Jyotirlingam, and they hold great spiritual significance in Hinduism.

- Statement 2 is also correct. The temple was constructed by the third Peshwa, Balaji Bajirao, during the period of 1740-1760. The temple is known for its unique architectural style, which includes intricate carvings and three lingams representing the Hindu trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The temple is located near the source of the Godavari River, not the Yamuna River. The Godavari River originates from the Brahamagiri mountain, which is close to the Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

1. Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple - Balaji Bajirao: Correct. The Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple in Nashik, Maharashtra, was constructed by the third Peshwa, Balaji Bajirao, between 1740-1760.

2. Somnath Jyotirlinga - Tamil Nadu: Incorrect. The Somnath Jyotirlinga is located in Gir, Gujarat, not Tamil Nadu.

3. Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga - Madhya Pradesh: Correct. The Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga is indeed situated in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.

4. Bhimashankar Jyotirlinga - Jharkhand: Incorrect. The Bhimashankar Jyotirlinga is located in Maharashtra, not Jharkhand.

Additional Information:

• The Jyotirlingas are sacred shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva, with each representing a unique manifestation of the deity.
• The Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas and is noted for its unique architecture and religious significance.

The Yarlung Tsangpo Project, led by Chinese Premier Li Qiang near the Indian border, is estimated to cost approximately US$167.8 billion. This massive hydropower project has raised concerns due to its scale, potential ecological impacts, and lack of consultation with downstream nations like India and Bangladesh.

1. Statement 1: Divya Deshmukh became the youngest Woman FIDE Master at the age of 7. This statement is correct. Divya achieved the title of Woman FIDE Master (WFM) when she was just 7 years old in 2013, marking her as the youngest to earn this title.

2. Statement 2: The FIDE Women's World Cup is conducted over 14 classical games, with a player needing to score 8 points to win. This statement is incorrect. The FIDE Women's World Cup format involves a knockout structure and not a fixed number of classical games where scoring 8 points would be relevant. The championship generally requires 7.5 points to win if conducted over 14 games, as is typical in some other FIDE events, but not specifically for the World Cup.

3. Statement 3: In 2025, Divya Deshmukh won the Asian Women's Champion title. This statement is incorrect. Divya Deshmukh won the Asian Women's Champion title in 2023, not in 2025. In 2025, she won the FIDE Women’s World Cup.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making the correct answer Option A: 1 Only.

The Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025 introduce a legally binding framework to identify, assess, and remediate contaminated sites in India. This initiative is crucial for enhancing public health and ecosystem safety by addressing areas historically polluted by hazardous chemicals. The rules outline a structured, time-bound process for remediation, including steps like identification, preliminary assessment, detailed site surveys, remediation planning, and cost recovery. This legal framework signifies a shift towards a more systematic approach to environmental remediation, defining responsibilities and timelines for action.

1. 13-Point Roster System: Incorrect. The 13-Point Roster System affects reservation policy at the department level, not the institution level. It has shifted the calculation of reservations from the institution level to individual departments, which has adversely affected smaller departments.

2. Discretionary Rejections: Correct. Discretionary rejections have indeed led to a significant number of arbitrary rejections of qualified SC, ST, and OBC candidates, fostering a culture of exclusion in academia.

3. Current Vacancies: Correct. According to the report from the Union Education Minister in April 2021, there are 2,389 vacant SC faculty positions, 1,199 for STs, and 4,251 for OBCs across 45 central universities, totaling over 8,000 vacancies.

4. Institutional Autonomy: Incorrect. Institutional autonomy in this context is cited as a systemic barrier that hinders compliance with reservation policies, rather than enhancing it.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. The introduction of the 13-point roster system in 2018 indeed shifted the reservation calculation from the institution level to individual departments. This has particularly affected smaller departments that often do not reach the threshold for mandatory reserved posts, thereby exacerbating the shortfall in representation for reserved categories.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. According to the report from the Union Education Minister in April 2021, there are significant vacancies in reserved faculty positions across central universities in India, with 2,389 vacant SC positions, 1,199 for STs, and 4,251 for OBCs. Hence, it is not true that there are no vacancies.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The ongoing underrepresentation of marginalized communities in university faculties is not only a failure in policy but also a broader moral and democratic crisis as it reflects the failure to embody the diversity of society and uphold values of equity and inclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

The 4As framework, consisting of Ascertain, Assess, Assist, and Adapt components, primarily aims to transition governance from traditional bureaucratic practices to an outcome-oriented, citizen-centric approach. By identifying critical outcomes, conducting regular assessments, providing support to field workers, and modifying strategies based on feedback, this framework enhances the effectiveness of governance through a data-driven approach.

1. Socialism in India: Correctly matched. Socialism in India does emphasize reducing inequality and promoting a welfare-oriented state. This is reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Rights, which aim to achieve social and economic justice.

2. Secularism in India: Correctly matched. Indian secularism indeed promotes equal respect for all religions and is embedded in the Fundamental Rights. This principle ensures that the state treats all religions with equal respect, allowing citizens to freely practice their faith.

3. 42nd Constitutional Amendment: Correctly matched. The 42nd Amendment, enacted in 1976, did add the terms "socialist" and "secular" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, reinforcing these values as central to the nation's identity.

4. Basic Structure Doctrine: Incorrectly matched. The Basic Structure Doctrine, as established by the Supreme Court, upholds socialism and secularism as essential components of the Constitution's basic structure, not merely as additions. It emphasizes that these principles are fundamental to the Constitution and cannot be altered or removed.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 2, and 3. Only pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights that adoption in India is governed by various laws based on the child's religion and status. Statement-II accurately mentions that the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 covers children of all religions and specifically focuses on orphans, abandoned, and surrendered children. This act is a comprehensive legislation that addresses the welfare and protection of children in need of care and protection, irrespective of their religious background or status. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides additional information that explains Statement-I.

1. Development of production clusters: Enhancing scale for chemical exports - Correctly matched. NITI Aayog recommends the development of production clusters to enhance the scale of chemical exports, aiming to double the chemical exports by 2030.

2. Quad Critical Minerals Initiative: Ensuring more dependency on China for critical minerals - Incorrectly matched. The Quad Critical Minerals Initiative is designed to secure essential mineral supply chains and reduce dependency on China, not increase it.

3. India's position in chemical production: 6th largest globally and 3rd largest in Asia - Correctly matched. India ranks as the 6th largest chemical producer globally and 3rd in Asia, contributing significantly to the national GDP.

4. Regional Manufacturing Hubs: Primarily located in Maharashtra and Gujarat - Correctly matched. The chemical industry in India is predominantly located in Maharashtra and Gujarat, contributing significantly to the sector's growth.

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three correct pairs overall.

1. UNFCCC - Rio Earth Summit 1992: Correctly matched. The UNFCCC was indeed signed in 1992 at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, making this pair correct.

2. Bonn Climate Meeting - Annual preparation for COP summits: Correctly matched. The Bonn climate meeting is held annually to prepare for the COP summits, making this pair correct.

3. Erasmus Programme - Launched by the United Nations in 1987: Incorrectly matched. The Erasmus Programme was launched by the European Union, not the United Nations, in 1987. Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

4. RDSNS - Developed by Raman Research Institute: Correctly matched. Raman-Driven Spin Noise Spectroscopy (RDSNS) was developed by researchers at the Raman Research Institute, making this pair correct.

Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

- Statement 1 is correct. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was indeed signed at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 and entered into force on March 21, 1994. This foundational fact about the UNFCCC is well-documented and central to its history.

- Statement 2 is correct. Brazil is actively proposing reforms aimed at structural streamlining to make the negotiation process more inclusive and efficient, especially as it hosts COP30. This includes eliminating overlapping agenda items and limiting delegation sizes, which reflects Brazil's commitment to enhancing the process.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The U.S. withdrawal under the Trump administration did have a significant impact on the credibility of the UNFCCC negotiation process. It led to diminished trust and efficacy perceptions globally, as the U.S. is a major player in international climate negotiations. This withdrawal was widely criticized and affected the overall confidence in the process.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

1. Panna Tiger Reserve - Located in the Eastern Ghats: Incorrect. Panna Tiger Reserve is located in the Vindhyan mountain range, covering an area within the Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone and Biotic Province of the Central Highlands, not the Eastern Ghats.

2. RECLAIM Framework - Focuses on sustainable coal mine closure: Correct. The RECLAIM Framework is indeed designed to facilitate inclusive and sustainable coal mine closures in India, focusing on community engagement and development.

3. Miniature Plasma Loops - Found in the Earth's atmosphere: Incorrect. Miniature plasma loops are found in the Sun's atmosphere, not the Earth's atmosphere. They offer insights into solar activity and energy storage and release in the Sun's atmosphere.

4. Ken River - Flows through Panna Tiger Reserve: Correct. The Ken River flows through Panna Tiger Reserve from south to north, contributing to the reserve's ecological diversity.

Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.