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Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test - Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 for UPSC 2025 is part of UPSC preparation. The Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 MCQs are made for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 below.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 1

What is the primary mission of INS Kadmatt?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 1

The primary mission of INS Kadmatt is to ensure the safety of maritime operations against enemy submarine attacks. This involves conducting anti-submarine warfare, protecting naval convoys, and safeguarding ports from submarine threats. INS Kadmatt, an indigenous stealth anti-submarine warfare corvette, plays a crucial role in enhancing maritime security in the region by countering potential underwater threats effectively.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 proposes automatic removal of Ministers, Chief Ministers, and the Prime Minister if they remain in custody for over thirty consecutive days due to serious criminal charges.

Statement-II:
The Bill faces criticism for potentially violating the presumption of innocence, as it may lead to penalizing individuals before a conviction is secured.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 2


Statement-I correctly describes the key proposal of the Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025, which suggests the automatic removal of certain political leaders under specified conditions.
Statement-II accurately highlights one of the criticisms leveled against the Bill, emphasizing the potential violation of the presumption of innocence, a fundamental legal principle. The provision of automatic removal based on custody without a conviction could indeed be seen as prejudicial. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of Statement-I in the context of the Bill.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Jan Vishwas Bill 2025 aims to decriminalize and rationalize certain offences and penalties, with a focus on enhancing trust-based governance in India.

Statement-II:
The Jan Vishwas Bill 2025 proposes amendments to 355 provisions, with 288 aimed at facilitating ease of doing business, including warnings for first-time offenders and the removal of imprisonment clauses for minor infractions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 3


Statement-I correctly highlights the objective of the Jan Vishwas Bill 2025, focusing on decriminalizing and rationalizing certain offenses and penalties to enhance trust-based governance in India. Statement-II accurately describes the provisions of the bill, emphasizing the amendments proposed to facilitate ease of doing business, including warnings for first-time offenders and the elimination of imprisonment clauses for minor infractions. While both statements are factually correct, Statement-II elaborates on the specifics of the amendments proposed by the Jan Vishwas Bill 2025 and does not provide an explanation for Statement-I. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following pairs:

1. Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025: Proposes automatic removal of ministers if kept in custody for over thirty consecutive days.
2. INS Kadmatt: A stealth anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28.
3. Bloom Syndrome: Genetic disorder caused by mutations in the BLM gene.
4. INS Kadmatt's Port Call: Conducted in Surabaya, Japan.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 4

1. Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025: Correctly matched. The bill indeed proposes the automatic removal of ministers, including the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers, if they remain in custody for over thirty consecutive days due to serious criminal charges.

2. INS Kadmatt: Correctly matched. INS Kadmatt is an indigenous stealth anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28 by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.

3. Bloom Syndrome: Correctly matched. Bloom Syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the BLM gene, leading to growth delays and increased cancer risk.

4. INS Kadmatt's Port Call: Incorrectly matched. The port call was conducted in Surabaya, Indonesia, not Japan.

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

1. The Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) includes a laser-based Directed Energy Weapon capable of destroying UAVs within a range of less than 3 km.

2. Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missiles (QRSAM) are designed to protect stationary army bases against aerial threats.

3. The Very Short Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) is a man-portable air defence system with a range extending to 10 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 5

- Statement 1 is correct. The Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) includes a laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) which is capable of destroying UAVs and swarm drones within a range of less than 3 km. This demonstrates India's capability in using directed energy for defence purposes.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missiles (QRSAM) are designed to protect moving army armoured columns, not stationary army bases, against aerial threats. These missiles have a range of 3-30 km and are intended to provide a protective shield for mobile units.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Very Short Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) is indeed a man-portable air defence system (MANPAD), but it has a range of 300 m to 6 km, not extending to 10 km. It is designed to neutralize threats like drones and other aerial threats within this specified range.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 6

What is the primary purpose of the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC)?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 6

The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) serves the primary purpose of assessing the severity of hunger crises on a global scale. This system, supported by major humanitarian organizations, categorizes food insecurity on a five-phase scale, with Phase 5 indicating famine. By utilizing data from reliable sources, the IPC plays a crucial role in identifying regions in dire need of intervention and support to combat food insecurity and prevent humanitarian crises.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India has made significant progress in reducing malnutrition since the 1990s.

Statement-II:
The Poshan Abhiyan initiative aims to address malnutrition in India comprehensively.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 7


Statement-I is accurate as it mentions the progress India has made in reducing malnutrition since the 1990s, which aligns with the information provided in the text. Statement-II is also correct as the Poshan Abhiyan initiative indeed aims to address malnutrition comprehensively. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I; both statements are correct but are not interlinked in terms of explanation. Therefore, option (b) is the most appropriate choice.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the inclusion of Indian classical arts in the NCERT curriculum:

1. The new curriculum includes detailed practical training for mastering classical dance forms.

2. The initiative aligns with the National Education Policy 2020, focusing on India's cultural heritage.

3. The curriculum integrates elements of Hindustani and Carnatic music, including ragas and folk songs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 8

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The NCERT curriculum emphasizes exposure, appreciation, and creativity in arts education rather than detailed practical training for mastery. The pedagogical approach focuses on storytelling, expressions (abhinaya), theatre, and group performances rather than skills mastery.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The inclusion of Indian classical arts in the NCERT curriculum aligns with the National Education Policy 2020, which emphasizes integrating education with India's cultural heritage.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The curriculum indeed integrates elements of Hindustani and Carnatic music, including concepts such as ragas, swar, laya, shabd, and features Sanskrit shloka recitations and folk songs.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C, as Statements 2 and 3 are correct, whereas Statement 1 is incorrect.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC):
1. The IPC classifies food insecurity on a five-phase scale, with Phase 5 indicating famine.
2. For an area to be classified as experiencing famine under the IPC, at least 10% of the population must be suffering from extreme food shortages.
3. The IPC's data is primarily sourced from the World Health Organization (WHO) and other health-related organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 9


- Statement 1 is correct. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) indeed uses a five-phase scale to assess food insecurity, with Phase 5 designated as famine. This classification helps in understanding the severity of food crises and is widely recognized for its accuracy and standardization.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The criteria for classifying an area as experiencing famine under the IPC require at least 20% of the population to be suffering from extreme food shortages, not 10%. Additionally, other criteria include acute malnutrition in children and death rates due to starvation, malnutrition, or disease.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The IPC primarily uses data from the World Food Programme (WFP) and other relief organizations, not the World Health Organization (WHO) or health-specific organizations. The focus of IPC is on food security, thus relying on data from organizations that address food aid and supply issues.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs related to Indian classical dance forms:

1. Bharatnatyam - Tamil Nadu

2. Kathakali - Karnataka

3. Manipuri - Assam

4. Odissi - Odisha

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 25th August 2025 - Question 10

1. Bharatnatyam - Tamil Nadu: Correctly matched. Bharatnatyam originated in Tamil Nadu and is one of the oldest classical dance forms in India, known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate footwork, and expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.

2. Kathakali - Karnataka: Incorrectly matched. Kathakali is a classical dance-drama from Kerala, not Karnataka. It is known for its elaborate costumes, detailed gestures, and well-defined body movements presented in tune with the anchor playback music and complementary percussion.

3. Manipuri - Assam: Incorrectly matched. Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur, not Assam. It is characterized by its graceful, fluid movements and themes often related to the Raas Leela of Krishna.

4. Odissi - Odisha: Correctly matched. Odissi is a classical dance form from Odisha, renowned for its lyrical grace, expressiveness, and the sculptural poses that are reminiscent of the temple sculptures of Odisha.

Thus, out of the given pairs, only two pairs are correctly matched: Bharatnatyam with Tamil Nadu and Odissi with Odisha.

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