Daily Current Affairs MCQ- April 14, 2023 - UPSC MCQ

Recently, a 13th-century Hindu temple was discovered at Pushpagiri Kshetram in the Kadapa district.

• 13^th century Hindu temple ruins have been unearthed amidst a shrub jungle northeast of the Durga temple, atop a hillock in the Pushpagiri Kshetram in Kadapa district, Andhra Pradesh.
• The architectural features of the ruins reveal a style that is contemporary to a temple at Vallur, built by the Kayastha rulers.

About Kayastha rulers:

• The Kayasthas (1239 AD - 1297 AD) were subordinates to the rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty.
• In the history of the Kakatiyas, the Kayastha played a prominent role both as loyal subordinates and traitors.
• It is believed that they originally belonged to a class of warriors of Western India.
• They ruled the region with Vallur as the capital.
• Some rulers of this community were -Ganagaya Sahini (1239 - 1258 AD), Jannigadeva (1258 - 1268 AD), and Ambadeva II (1272 - 1294 AD). The last ruler was Trupurari II (1294 - 1297 AD).

Pushpagiri Kshetram:

• Pushpagiri is referred to as Hari-Hara Kshetra, as there are a number of temples dedicated to both Shiva and Vishnu.
• It is located on the banks of the Pennar river. 
• Pushpagiri is also called the second Hampi due to its beautiful architecture.

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, Delhi High Court has directed the Union Government to take expeditious steps for appointing Chairperson and other members of the Appellate tribunal under PMLA 2002.

• The Central Government has been given the power to set up an Appellate Tribunal under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
• Composition: The Tribunal consists of a Chairperson and two other Members.
• Qualifications for appointment:
• A person shall not be qualified for appointment as Chairperson unless he is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or of aHigh Court judge or is qualified to be a Judge of the High Court.
• A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Member unless he/she has been a member of the Indian legal service/Indian revenue service/Indian economic service/Indian Customs and central excise service/Indian Audit and accounts Service.
• Tenure: They are appointed for a term of five years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Functions: Appellate Tribunal has been constituted to hear appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authority and the authorities under the PMLA.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

India’s first prospective DNA vaccine against dengue is under clinical trials.

• The DNA vaccine has been in development since 2019 by scientists from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS), Bengaluru, in collaboration with nine institutions in India, Africa, and the US.

About DNA Vaccine:

• DNA vaccines use engineered DNA to induce an immunologic response in the host against bacteria, parasites, and viruses.
• The basic working principle behind DNA vaccine involves the use of a DNA plasmid that encodes for a protein that originated from the pathogen in which the vaccine will be targeted.
• DNA vaccine will avoid extracellular degradation and successfully enter the nucleus of target cells to induce a long-term immune response.
• It is considered to be more stable, cost-efficient, and easier to handle than traditional vaccines.

Dengue disease:

• Dengue is a mosquito-borne viral infection found in tropical and sub-tropical climates worldwide, mostly in urban and semi-urban areas.
• The primary vectors that transmit the disease are Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
• The virus responsible for causing dengue is called the dengue virus (DENV).
• It can be transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) also states that the virus can transmit from pregnant mother to baby.
• There is no specific treatment for dengue/severe dengue. Early detection of disease progression associated with severe dengue and access to proper medical care lowers fatality rates of severe dengue to below 1%.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Supreme Court recently ruled that the appointment of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and election commissioners (ECs) will be done by the President on the advice of a committee comprising the prime minister, the leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.

About Election Commission of India (ECI):

• It is an autonomous and permanent constitutional body responsible for organizing free and fair elections in India.
• The Constitution grants the ECI with the power of direction, superintendence, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India, and the office of vice-president of India.
• Composition: The commission consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).
• How are the CEC and ECs currently appointed?
• Under Article 324 (2), the President appoints the CEC and other ECs.
• The President makes the appointment on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
• The Constitution does not prescribe any qualifications, academic or otherwise, for appointment to these offices.
• The tenure of office and the conditions of service of all the commissioners is determined by the President. 
• The tenure of commissioners is 6 years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
• The CEC and the two other ECs have the same powers and emoluments, including salaries, which are the same as a Supreme Court judge.
• All three commissioners have the same right of taking a decision. In case of a difference of opinion amongst the three members, the matter is decided by the Commission by a majority.
• Can CEC and ECs be removed?
• Article 324 of The Constitution of India mentions the provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission.
• The CEC is provided with security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. 
• Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
• What does the recent Supreme Court ruling say?
• The CEC and other ECs should be appointed by the President on the advice of a committee comprising the prime minister, the leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Ministry of Education (MoE) is set to launch a self-assessment platform for Indian students.

About the SATHEE Platform:

• SATHEE is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education in association with IIT Kanpur. 
• It provides Indian students with a self-paced interactive learning and assessment platform to prepare for competitive and other exams.
• It will help students gain access to training and coaching for competitive examinations for free.
• SATHEE aims to make the students learn the concepts and focus on their weak topics so they feel confident to give any exams by watching videos prepared by IIT and IISc faculty members.
• It provides free learning resources, including 800 videos in 12 regional languages.
• The platform will also provide regular all-India mock tests to help prepare for competitive exams, in addition to mentorship sessions by IIT and AIIMS students who shall act like SATHEES.
• The interactive programme is currently open for coaching help for  JEE  and NEET. 
• It makes use of an indigenously-developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

There was a high demand for the pusa basmati 1847 variety at the Pusa Krishi Vigyan Mela (PKVM) 2023 held at Indian Agriculture Research Institute (IARI), New Delhi.

About pusa basmati 1847:

• It is an improved version of the popular Basmati rice variety, Pusa Basmati 1509 with inbuilt resistance to bacterial blight and blast disease.
• This variety possesses two genes each for bacterial blight resistance, namely, xa13 and Xa21, and blast resistance, namely, Pi54 and Pi2.
• It is an early maturing and semi-dwarf basmati rice variety.
• It has an average yield of 5.7 tonnes/ ha.
• This variety was released for commercial cultivation in 2021. 

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

World Wildlife Day is celebrated every year on March 3 to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the world’s flora and fauna. 

About World Wildlife Day :

• It is a United Nations International day to celebrate all the world's wild animals and plants and the contribution that they make to our lives and the health of the planet.
• It is celebrated every year on March 3.
• This date was chosen as it is the birthday of CITES, the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, signed in 1973. 
• The theme of World Wildlife Day 2023 is 'Partnerships for Wildlife Conservation'.

Key facts about CITES:

• CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments.
• Aim: To ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
• It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). It entered into force in July 1975.
• Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words, they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws.
• The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located in Geneva, Switzerland. 
• The Conference of the Parties to CITES is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention and comprises all its parties.

Hence both statements are correct.

The India-France joint exercise FRINJEX-23 is scheduled to be held at the Pangod military center in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.

About FRINJEX-23:

• It is the first joint military exercise between the Indian Army and French Army.
• This is the first time the two countries have engaged in a military exercise in a team format consisting of a company group.
• Objective: Enhancing interoperability, coordination, and cooperation between both forces at the tactical level.
• The theme for the exercise is based on “Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief Operations in a Contested Environment”.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Prime Minister recently lauded the benefits of Nano Urea in bringing long-term positive changes in the lives of Indian farmers.

About Nano Urea:

• It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
• It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
• IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
• Features:
• Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
• It contains 4.0 % total nitrogen (w/v).
• Benefits:
• It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
• Increased availability to crop by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
• It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the "imbalanced and excessive use" of conventional fertilizer.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution asked the states to make earnest efforts to implement the SMART-PDS system.

• The Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) is envisaging a new and unified scheme to strengthen the PDS technology components by standardization of its operation and implementing data-driven decision-making through data analytics.
• Full-Form: Scheme for Modernization and Reforms through Technology in Public Distribution System.
• This scheme aims to transform the entire PDS IT ecosystem by leveraging the usage of the Cloud and new-age technology.
• Smart Ration Card: SMART-PDS is a system where smart ration cards are issued to beneficiaries of the public distribution system, and ration is given through fair price shops on the production of the smart ration card by any member of the beneficiary family.
• Fingerprint Template: The fingerprint template of the beneficiary is recorded in these smart ration cards, which record all transactions.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.