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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024

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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Manganese is the fifth-most abundant metal on Earth and is primarily utilized in alloys, particularly steel.

Statement II:
Manganese contamination in water sources can lead to severe toxicity in humans.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 1


Both statements are factually correct. Statement I highlights the abundance of manganese on Earth and its primary use in alloys like steel. Statement II correctly points out the health implication of manganese contamination in water sources leading to severe toxicity in humans. The relationship between the two statements can be understood as follows: the widespread use of manganese in various applications, including alloys, can lead to its presence in water sources, contributing to human health risks when consumed. Thus, Statement II logically explains the significance of Statement I in the context of environmental and health concerns related to manganese.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Dark Eagle anti-missile system is designed to potentially outmatch Russian air defense systems, including the S-300V4, S-400, and S-500.

Statement-II:
The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct emphasize six core values, including Independence, Impartiality, Integrity, Propriety, Equality, and Competence and Diligence.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 2

Statement-I: This statement is correct. The Dark Eagle is an advanced missile defense system that is developed to counter modern air defense systems, including the S-series (S-300V4, S-400, and S-500), which are known for their high capability in tracking and destroying airborne targets.
Statement-II: This statement is also correct. The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct, adopted in 2002, outline the core principles that should guide judges' behavior and actions, which include the values mentioned: Independence, Impartiality, Integrity, Propriety, Equality, and Competence and Diligence. These principles are designed to ensure that judges maintain the highest standards of judicial conduct.

Since both statements are accurate, the correct answer is Option B: Both statements are correct.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 3

Consider the following pairs regarding Durgadi Fort and the Malayan Night Heron:

1. Durgadi Fort: Built by the Marathas in 1760

2. Malayan Night Heron: Sighted in Madurai for the first time

3. Durgadi Fort: Originally part of the Bijapur-based Adil Shahi Sultanate

4. Malayan Night Heron: Native to Africa

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 3

1. Durgadi Fort: Built by the Marathas in 1760 - Incorrect. The Marathas captured Kalyan in 1760 and constructed a wooden temple for Durgadevi at the fort, renaming it Durgadi Killa, but the fort itself dates back to the 16th century and was part of the Adil Shahi Sultanate.

2. Malayan Night Heron: Sighted in Madurai for the first time - Correct. This bird was indeed officially recorded in Madurai for the first time, marking an important event for ornithology in the region.

3. Durgadi Fort: Originally part of the Bijapur-based Adil Shahi Sultanate - Correct. The fort dates back to the 16th century and was part of the Bijapur-based Adil Shahi Sultanate.

4. Malayan Night Heron: Native to Africa - Incorrect. The Malayan Night Heron is native to Southeast Asia, not Africa. It is found across India, East Asia, the Philippines, and the East Indies.

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 4

What is the primary habitat where Wroughton’s free-tailed bat typically roosts?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 4

Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is known to primarily roost in caves or shaded, humid areas. This habitat preference is crucial for their survival as it provides the darkness and warmth they need for roosting and breeding. These bats are essential for regulating insect populations and aiding in plant pollination, making their habitat preservation crucial for ecosystem health.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 5

Consider the following statements about Wroughton’s free-tailed bat:

1. Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is primarily found in the Eastern Ghats of India.

2. It is classified as Data Deficient by the IUCN.

3. This species is known for its role in pollination and insect population control.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 5

To determine the correct answer, let's analyze each statement based on the provided information:

1. Statement 1: Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is primarily found in the Eastern Ghats of India.

- This statement is incorrect. Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is mainly found in the Western Ghats, with additional sightings in the Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya and an isolated individual recorded in Cambodia. There is no mention of the Eastern Ghats as its primary habitat.

2. Statement 2: It is classified as Data Deficient by the IUCN.

- This statement is correct. The current IUCN classification of Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is Data Deficient, reflecting a lack of comprehensive data on the species, although it was previously considered critically endangered.

3. Statement 3: This species is known for its role in pollination and insect population control.

- This statement is correct. Wroughton’s free-tailed bat plays a vital ecological role by regulating insect populations and aiding in plant pollination.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option D: 2 and 3 Only the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the short neck clam (Paphia malabarica) conservation efforts:

1. The short neck clam is the first fishery in India to receive certification from the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC).

2. The decline in clam populations is primarily due to overfishing and lack of market demand.

3. The release of clam seeds into Ashtamudi Lake is aimed at supporting the livelihoods of local fishermen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 6

- Statement 1 is correct. The short neck clam (Paphia malabarica) is indeed the first fishery in India to receive certification from the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC). This certification is significant as it recognizes sustainable fishing practices and proper management of fishery resources.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The decline in clam populations is not primarily due to overfishing or lack of market demand. Instead, it is attributed to environmental challenges such as pollution, the introduction of non-native species like the Charru mussel, and climate change effects, including altered salinity and water temperatures. These factors have significantly impacted the clam populations in Ashtamudi Lake, rather than market demand issues.

- Statement 3 is correct. The release of clam seeds into Ashtamudi Lake is a conservation effort intended to replenish the declining clam populations. This initiative is crucial for supporting the livelihoods of local fishermen who depend on clam fishing, as the clam is an economically important species in the region.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 7

What is the primary reason for the eradication of the Northern giant hornet, also known as the "murder hornet"?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 7

The primary reason for eradicating the Northern giant hornet, or "murder hornet," is to protect honey bees. These invasive hornets pose a significant threat to native pollinators, particularly honey bees, by decimating entire beehives in a short period of time. Preserving honey bee populations is crucial for ecosystem balance and agriculture due to their role in pollination.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India is not a signatory to the Rome Statute and has consistently expressed concerns regarding the ICC's jurisdiction.

Statement-II:
The Swatantrata Sainik Samman Pension Scheme offers pensions to living freedom fighters and their families.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 8

The correct answer is B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

  1. Statement-I:

    • India is not a signatory to the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC).
    • India has expressed concerns regarding the ICC's jurisdiction, particularly on issues of national sovereignty, potential misuse of its powers, and the lack of universal acceptance of the ICC.

    This statement is correct.

  2. Statement-II:

    • The Swatantrata Sainik Samman Pension Scheme (SSSPS) was initiated to provide pensions to living freedom fighters, their spouses, and dependent families.
    • It is aimed at recognizing the contributions of freedom fighters during the Indian independence movement.

    This statement is also correct.

However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, as the two statements are unrelated in context or logic.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India's fiscal deficit is projected to rise from 2.8% of GDP in FY22 to 3.2% in FY24.

Statement-II:
Gross Fiscal Deficit (GFD) for states is expected to increase from 2.7% of GDP in FY2022-23 to 2.9% in FY2023-24.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 9


Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct based on the information provided in the report released by the RBI regarding state finances. Statement-I mentions the projected rise in India's fiscal deficit from 2.8% to 3.2% of GDP in FY24, which aligns with the given data. Statement-II discusses the expected increase in Gross Fiscal Deficit for states from 2.7% to 2.9% in the corresponding fiscal years. The second statement complements the first one by providing additional details on the state-level fiscal deficit trends, thereby explaining the broader context of fiscal challenges at both national and state levels.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs regarding the Rann Utsav and its cultural and geographical significance:

1. Great Rann of Kutch - Largest salt desert in India

2. Indian Wild Ass - Found only in the Little Rann of Kutch

3. Holocene Sedimentation - Associated with the Thar Desert

4. Indus Valley Civilization - Had settlements in the Rann of Kutch

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 10

1. Great Rann of Kutch - Largest salt desert in India: This pair is correctly matched. The Great Rann of Kutch is indeed the largest salt desert in India, known for its unique white salt marshes and cultural significance.

2. Indian Wild Ass - Found only in the Little Rann of Kutch: This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Wild Ass, also known as the Khur, is primarily found in the Little Rann of Kutch, which is part of the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary.

3. Holocene Sedimentation - Associated with the Thar Desert: This pair is incorrectly matched. Holocene sedimentation refers to geological processes that occurred after the last Ice Age and is linked to the Rann of Kutch, not specifically to the Thar Desert itself.

4. Indus Valley Civilization - Had settlements in the Rann of Kutch: This pair is correctly matched. The Rann of Kutch was indeed home to neolithic settlements and later became an important center for the Indus Valley Civilization, reflecting its historical significance.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 11

What is the primary principle utilized by speed guns to determine the speed of an object?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 11

Speed guns operate based on the Doppler Effect principle to calculate the speed of an object accurately. This effect describes the change in frequency of waves as an object moves closer to or farther away from the speed gun. By analyzing this frequency change, speed guns can precisely determine the speed of the object in question.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 12

Consider the following pairs regarding the Starlink satellite internet service:

1. Starlink Service - Operational in India

2. Starlink Satellites - Low Earth Orbit

3. Regulatory Approval - Received in Bhutan

4. Total Planned Satellites - 42,000

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 12

1. Starlink Service - Operational in India: Incorrect. Starlink is not operational in India due to regulatory restrictions.

2. Starlink Satellites - Low Earth Orbit: Correct. Starlink satellites are deployed in low Earth orbit to provide broadband internet service.

3. Regulatory Approval - Received in Bhutan: Correct. Starlink has received regulatory approval in more than 60 countries, including Bhutan.

4. Total Planned Satellites - 42,000: Correct. SpaceX plans to launch a total of 42,000 satellites to form a mega-constellation for global coverage.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 2, 3, and 4.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the PM- Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) Scheme:

1. PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 64,180 crores for the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.

2. The scheme includes the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology.

3. PM-ABHIM exclusively focuses on urban health needs, neglecting rural health infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 13

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each statement individually:

1. Statement 1: PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 64,180 crores for the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.

This statement is correct. PM-ABHIM is indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with the specified financial outlay and timeline, aiming to strengthen healthcare infrastructure across the country.

2. Statement 2: The scheme includes the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology.

This statement is also correct. Among the components under PM-ABHIM, the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology is included to enhance health surveillance and response capabilities.

3. Statement 3: PM-ABHIM exclusively focuses on urban health needs, neglecting rural health infrastructure.

This statement is incorrect. PM-ABHIM does not exclusively focus on urban health needs. In fact, it includes significant components for rural health infrastructure, such as the construction of rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) and Block Public Health Units (BPHUs), indicating a balanced focus on both urban and rural areas.

Given this analysis, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India's economic performance in 2023-24 was initially strong but showed signs of slowing down.

Statement-II:
The Finance Ministry anticipated a growth rate exceeding 6.5% for the full year.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 14


Statement-I highlights the initial strong economic performance of India in 2023-24, followed by signs of slowing down. This information aligns with the context provided in the source material, indicating a shift in economic momentum during the specified period.

Statement-II mentions the Finance Ministry's anticipation of a growth rate exceeding 6.5% for the full year. While this statement is factually correct based on the details provided, it does not directly explain or correlate with the content of Statement-I. The growth rate projection by the Finance Ministry does not inherently elucidate the shift from strong performance to a slowdown as mentioned in Statement-I.

Therefore, both statements individually present accurate information related to India's economic performance in 2023-24, but they do not necessarily establish a direct explanatory relationship between each other. Hence, option (b) is the most appropriate choice as it reflects the accuracy of both statements without implying a causal or explanatory connection between them.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs:

1. India-China Relations: Disengagement at the Line of Actual Control discussed at BRICS summit in Kazan.

2. Strengthening Ties with France: French President attended India's Republic Day celebrations, highlighting cooperation in the defense sector.

3. Trade Agreements: Completion of India-EU Free Trade Association agreement in 2024.

4. Relations with Bangladesh: Strengthened ties due to Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina's policies.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 15

1. India-China Relations: Correctly matched. The disengagement discussions at the Line of Actual Control were indeed a significant negotiation, and the first meeting between Modi and Xi Jinping in five years occurred at the BRICS summit in Kazan.

2. Strengthening Ties with France: Correctly matched. The French President Emmanuel Macron attended India's Republic Day celebrations, which highlighted cooperation in the defense, energy, and maritime sectors.

3. Trade Agreements: Incorrectly matched. While talks with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) progressed, there was no mention of an agreement completion with the EU by 2024.

4. Relations with Bangladesh: Incorrectly matched. Relations with Bangladesh were strained following the ousting of Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina and rising attacks on Hindu minorities, not strengthened.

Thus, two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 16

Which architectural feature of the Ramappa Temple contributes to its earthquake resistance?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 16

The earthquake resistance of the Ramappa Temple is attributed to the lightweight bricks used in constructing the gopuram, which are made from a mixture of clay, acacia wood, chaff, and myrobalan fruit. This innovative construction method significantly reduces the risk of collapse during earthquakes by making the structure lightweight and capable of floating on water.

This question tests your understanding of the architectural features that contribute to the resilience of historical structures like the Ramappa Temple.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 17

What is the main objective of C-PACE (Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 17

The main objective of C-PACE (Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit) is to centralize the process of removing companies from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs Register. This initiative aims to expedite the voluntary winding up of companies in under six months through process re-engineering. By streamlining the process and operating under the supervision of the Director General of Corporate Affairs, C-PACE facilitates smoother exits for companies and contributes to improving the ease of doing business.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the archaeological site of Lothal:

1. Lothal is known as the only port town of the Indus Valley Civilization, discovered by Indian archaeologist SR Rao in 1954.

2. The dockyard of Lothal is considered the world's oldest known artificial dock, connected to a former channel of the Sabarmati River.

3. Lothal was primarily known for its advanced pottery and textiles, which were exported to regions in West Asia and Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 18

Statement 1 is correct. Lothal is indeed recognized as the only port town of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), and it was discovered by Indian archaeologist SR Rao in 1954. This highlights its unique historical significance within the context of the IVC.

Statement 2 is correct. The dockyard at Lothal is acknowledged as the world's oldest known artificial dock, which was connected to a former channel of the Sabarmati River. This feature emphasizes Lothal's advanced engineering and its role in maritime activities during the IVC period.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While Lothal was a significant center of trade and known for its production and export of beads, gems, and luxury ornaments, there is no primary historical evidence emphasizing textiles as its main export. Instead, pottery was another significant industry, but not textiles. This misstatement about textiles being a primary export is what makes statement 3 incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 19

What is the significance of Sacred Groves in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 19

Sacred groves in India hold significant importance as they serve as crucial reservoirs of biodiversity. These groves are dedicated to ancestral spirits or deities and play a vital role in conserving unique flora and fauna. By preserving these sacred groves, India can safeguard endemic species and maintain ecological balance, underscoring their pivotal role in biodiversity conservation efforts.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Kawasaki disease affects children under the age of five
Statement-II:
The exact cause of Kawasaki disease has been definitively identified as a bacterial infection.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 20

- Statement-I: Correct
- Kawasaki disease primarily affects children under the age of five. It is a pediatric inflammatory condition that can lead to serious heart complications if not treated promptly.

- Statement-II: Incorrect
- The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown. While some theories suggest an infectious trigger, it has not been definitively identified as a bacterial infection.

- Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer is C: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 21

What is one of the primary aims of treating Kawasaki disease in children?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 21

One of the main goals of treating Kawasaki disease in children is to reduce inflammation. This is typically achieved through the administration of intravenous (IV) immunoglobulin (IVIG) antibodies. By reducing inflammation, healthcare providers aim to alleviate symptoms, lower fever, and potentially prevent heart damage, promoting a quicker recovery and better outcomes for affected children.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs regarding the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and related judicial interventions in India:

1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution - Mandates the establishment of a UCC

2. Shah Bano Case (1985) - Reinforced the need for a separate Hindu Code Bill

3. Special Marriage Act (1954) - Allows for civil marriages across different religions

4. KM Munshi - Advocated for UCC to promote national unity and equality for women

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 22

1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution - Correctly matched. Article 44 is indeed a Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the state to strive for a Uniform Civil Code for its citizens.

2. Shah Bano Case (1985) - Incorrectly matched. The Shah Bano case was significant for highlighting the need for a UCC, but it was not related to the Hindu Code Bill. It dealt with the right to maintenance for a Muslim woman, which led to discussions on the necessity of a UCC to ensure uniform rights for all women.

3. Special Marriage Act (1954) - Correctly matched. This Act provides a framework for marriage, divorce, and other personal matters for individuals irrespective of their religion, allowing civil marriages across different religions.

4. KM Munshi - Correctly matched. KM Munshi was a staunch advocate for the UCC during the Constituent Assembly debates, arguing that it would promote national unity and ensure equality for women.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the National Energy Conservation Award:

1. The National Energy Conservation Award is organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

2. The awards coincide with National Energy Conservation Day, celebrated on December 14.

3. The Award Committee is led by the Secretary (Power) and includes representatives from the Ministry of Railways and the Central Electricity Authority.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 23

1. Statement 1: The National Energy Conservation Award is organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

2. Statement 2: The awards do indeed coincide with National Energy Conservation Day, which is celebrated on December 14. This statement is correct.

3. Statement 3: The Award Committee is indeed led by the Secretary (Power) and includes representatives from various organizations such as the Ministry of Railways and the Central Electricity Authority. This statement is correct.

Since statements 2 and 3 are correct, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 24

What is the primary goal of India's Ministry of Women and Child Development's campaign 'Ab Koi Bahana Nahi' launched on November 25, 2024?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 24

The Ministry of Women and Child Development's campaign 'Ab Koi Bahana Nahi' aims at combating gender-based violence in India. This initiative is crucial in addressing the challenges faced by women in accessing and utilizing digital technologies, thereby promoting public accountability and action to tackle gender-based violence in the country.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Supreme Court's observation that "Reservation cannot be on the basis of religion" aligns with the principles established in the Indra Sawhney case.

Statement-II:
The Calcutta High Court's ruling on OBC reservations for 77 classes primarily from the Muslim community highlighted the necessity for objective criteria in granting reservations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 25


Statement-I is correct because the Supreme Court's observation aligns with the principles established in the Indra Sawhney case, emphasizing that reservations should not be solely based on religion. Statement-II is also correct as the Calcutta High Court's ruling emphasized the need for objective criteria in granting reservations, which resonates with the principles mentioned in the Indra Sawhney case. Statement-II further explains why the Supreme Court's observation is significant in the context of OBC reservations for classes predominantly from the Muslim community.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 26

How does La Niña typically influence India's climate?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 26

La Niña typically leads to enhanced monsoon rainfall and cooler winters in India. This phenomenon is characterized by cooler sea surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean, which can impact global weather patterns. In India, the effects of La Niña on climate play a crucial role in determining the intensity of monsoons and the temperatures experienced during the winter season.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 27

What did the Supreme Court's observation regarding reservations imply based on recent events in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 27

The recent observations made by the Supreme Court indicate that reservations cannot be granted solely on the basis of religion. This underscores the importance of having objective criteria and considerations beyond religious identity when implementing reservation policies. This decision reflects the ongoing debate and legal frameworks surrounding reservations in India, emphasizing the need for a comprehensive and inclusive approach to address issues of backwardness and representation.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 28

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is proposing to update the base year for the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to which year?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 28

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is planning to introduce a new base year of 2024 for the Consumer Price Index (CPI). This update aims to capture current consumption patterns more accurately and enhance the precision of inflation measurements. By shifting the base year to 2024, the revised CPI will better reflect the changing dynamics of consumer expenditure and inflation rates.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding India's relationship with the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
1. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) was established primarily in response to regional tensions such as the Iranian Revolution and the Iran-Iraq War.
2. India is the largest export destination for the GCC countries.
3. The GCC member states include Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 29


1. Statement 1 is correct. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) was indeed established in response to regional tensions such as the Iranian Revolution of 1979 and the Iran-Iraq War (1980-1988). These events underscored the need for a cooperative political and economic alliance among the Gulf states to ensure stability and foster collaboration.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India is a significant trading partner and the third largest trading partner of the GCC, it is not the largest export destination for the GCC countries. The GCC countries have substantial trade relations with several other regions, and while India is a major destination, it is not the largest.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The GCC is composed of six member states: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). This accurately reflects the composition of the organization.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 30

Red pandas are primarily found in which region?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2024 - Question 30

Red pandas are primarily found in the Eastern Himalayas, especially in countries like India, Nepal, Bhutan, and parts of China. These regions provide the ideal habitat for red pandas, supporting their survival and conservation efforts.

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