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Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2

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Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 1

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Unemployment’?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 1

Unemployment refers to the situation where an individual is able and willing to work at an existing wage rate but does not finds any work.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 2

Which of the following can reveal patterns of climate change on earth? 

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 2
  • An interglacial period (or alternatively interglacial) is a geological interval of warmer global average temperature lasting thousands of years that separates consecutive glacial periods within an ice age.
  • Evidence of multiple advances and retreats of glaciers, and the sediment deposits in glacial lakes reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods in the history of earth. It is a strong evidence of climate change.
  • Because trees are sensitive to local climate conditions, such as rain and temperature, they give scientists some information about that area’s local climate in the past. For example, tree rings usually grow wider in warm, wet years and they are thinner in years when it is cold and dry.
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Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 3

International capital flows have been uncertain and volatile, causing exchange rate and balance of payment crises. Among the various sources of external capital available to India which source is most preferable one? 

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 3

FDI is one of the reliable type of investment. FDI investment setup business in an economy, provide jobs and increase economic activities.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Court.

  1. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, states that fair criticism of any case which has been heard and decided is not contempt.
  2. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement and publication of any matter which lowers the authority of a court.
  3. Criminal contempt means doing an act that obstructs the administration of Justice.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 4
  • Contempt of court may be civil or criminal.
  • Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
  • Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which—(i) scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or (ii) prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or (iii) interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.
  • The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, very clearly states that fair criticism of any case which has been heard and decided is not contempt.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List.

  1. The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction.
  2. It is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
  3. The pink pages in this publication include the formerly endangered species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 5

IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book

  • The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
  • The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction. 
  • The pink pagesin this publication include the critically endangered species.
  • As the status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
  • Green pagesare used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
  • With passing time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

  1. Kandla port is the first port developed after India’s Independence
  2. Visakhapatnam port is the oldest but artificial port in India
  3. Chennai port is the deepest landlocked port in India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 6

Visakhapatnam is deepest landlocked port.
Chennai port is one of the oldest but artificial port.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 7

Which of the following are the destabilising geological processes that pose a serious threat to human habitation in the highlands of western Ghats?

  1. Land subsidence
  2. Lateral spread
  3. Soil piping

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 7

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements.

  1. In India, Agricultural commodities like cotton, paddy, soyabean, mustard seed, etc., are traded on the National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) and the Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX).
  2. Derivatives are short-term financial contracts that are bought and sold in the market.
  3. Profits are made in the derivatives trade by predicting price movements of the asset that underlies the contract.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 8
  • Agricultural commodities like cotton, paddy, soyabean, soya oil, mustard seed, etc., are traded on the National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) and the Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX).
  • Derivatives are short-term financial contracts that are bought and sold in the market. Profits are made in the derivatives trade by predicting price movements of the asset that underlies the contract. The derivatives trade can be in futures and options.
  • In a futures contract, a supplier pledges to sell a certain quantity at a fixed price at a future date. Also, farmers can put fixed amounts of their produce, which fits the quality standards of the exchange, to be sold at a fixed price — almost like price insurance. Both contracts can be exited by either the producer or the trader by paying a margin price to the exchange.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 9

Which of the following statements regarding Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 9

The incorrect statement is:
3 - ATL is to foster curiosity, creativity, and imagination amongst college students across the length and breadth of India.
Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) are an initiative of NITI Aayog under the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM). They are dedicated workspaces where students from class 6 to 12 can learn innovation skills and develop ideas to solve unique problems in India. Their primary focus is on school students, not college students. The aim is to foster a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship at an early age, encouraging young minds to think creatively and develop solutions for various challenges faced by the country.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 10

Asphyxiation is a condition that occurs

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 10
  • Asphyxiation, or suffocation, occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen.
  • Asphyxia can result from drowning, asthma, choking, strangulation, seizure, drug overdose, or inhaling chemical substances.
  • Asphyxiation can lead to loss of consciousness, brain injury, and death.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Norovirus.

  1. Norovirus is one of the primary causes of gastroenteritis.
  2. The virus is not capable of surviving low temperatures, and hence the outbreaks tend to be more common during Summer.
  3. The infection can be transmitted through foods contaminated with the virus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 11
  • Norovirus is not new; it has been circulating among humans for over 50 years and is thought to be one of the primary causes of gastroenteritis. The virus is estimated to kill 200,000 persons globally every year, with most deaths occurring among those below the age of five years and those over the age of 65 years.
  • The virus is capable of surviving low temperatures, and outbreaks tend to be more common during the winter and in colder countries — that is why it is sometimes referred to as “winter vomiting disease”.
  • Cases of norovirus are not as common in India as in many other places.
  • Norovirus leads to diarrhoea, vomiting, nausea, and abdominal pain. Being a diarrhoeal disease, it can lead to dehydration, so drinking plenty of fluids is recommended.
  • The infection can be transmitted through foods contaminated with the virus, touching surfaces that are contaminated with the virus and then touching the mouth, and being in direct contact with someone with the infection like taking care of them and sharing foods and utensils with them.
  • Good hand hygiene is the best way to prevent infection.
  • The norovirus can survive temperatures as high as 60 degrees Celsius.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 12

Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into which of the following groups?

  1. Least concern
  2. Data deficient
  3. Not evaluated
  4. Extinct in the wild

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 12

Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into nine groups

  • Extinct (EX)No known individuals remaining.
  • Extinct in the wild (EW)Known only to survive in captivity, or as a naturalized population outside its historic range.
  • Critically endangered (CR)Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
  • Endangered (EN)High risk of extinction in the wild.
  • Vulnerable (VU) High risk of endangerment in the wild.
  • Near threatened (NT)Likely to become endangered in the near future.
  • Least concern (LC)Lowest risk. Does not qualify for a more at-risk category. Widespread and abundant taxa are included in this category.
  • Data deficient (DD)Not enough data to assess its risk of extinction.
  • Not evaluated (NE)Has not yet been evaluated against the criteria.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
  2. In India, the law empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to make rules with respect to “the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates”.
  3. In India, the law allows the lawyers and legal practitioners to advertise their work.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 13
  • In India, lawyers and legal practitioners are not allowed to advertise their work.
  • Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to make rules with respect to “the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates”. Rule 36 in Chapter II (“Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette”) of Part VI (“Rules Governing Advocates”) of the BCI Rules published in 1975 prohibits lawyers from advertising their work.
  • Rule 36 also requires that an advocate’s signboard or nameplate “should be of a reasonable size”. The signboard/ nameplate or stationery “should not indicate that he is or has been President or Member of a Bar Council or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate General”.
  • The Bar Council of India is a statutory body that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
  • Lawyers can legally advertise their services in the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, and the European Union.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 14

India has partial capital account convertibility. This implies that

  1. India will have a negative sovereign credit rating.
  2. Private foreign denominated debt needs to be met by either private export earnings or India’s forex reserves.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 14
  • Capital account convertibility means the freedom to conduct investment transactions without any constraints. Typically, it would mean no restrictions on the amount of rupees you can convert into foreign currency to enable you, an Indian resident, to acquire any foreign asset. Similarly, there should be no restraints on your NRI cousin bringing in any amount of dollars or dirhams to acquire an asset in India.
  • India has come a long way in liberating the capital account transactions in the last three decades and currently has partial capital account convertibility.
  • Since India has partial capital account convertibility, this implies that private foreign denominated debt also needs to be met by either private export earnings or India’s forex reserves.
  • There is no correlation between capital account convertibility and sovereign credit rating.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

  1. State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.
  2. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
  3. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 15
  • Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.
  • Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality.
  • However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures.
  • Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories. 
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 16

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Balfour Declaration of 1926? 

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 16

In the Balfour Declaration of 1926, dominions were defined as “autonomous communities within the British Empire, equal in status, in no way subordinate one to another in any aspect of their domestic or external affairs, though united by a common allegiance to the Crown and freely associated as members of the British Commonwealth of Nations.” In 1926, countries like Canada, Australia and New Zealand were granted dominion status.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 17

Consider the following pairs of wetlands and the State they are located.

  1. Tampara Lake : Odisha
  2. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary : Tamil Nadu
  3. Hygam Wetland Conservation Reserve : Andhra Pradesh

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 17

Hygam Wetland Conservation Reserve : Jammu and Kashmir

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding mandatory minimum sentencing.

  1. Mandatory minimum sentencing means a quantum of punishment which cannot be reduced below the period fixed.
  2. In India, such sentences are prescribed for sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
  3. When the legislature has prescribed a minimum sentence without discretion, the same cannot be reduced by the courts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 18
  • The concept of mandatory minimum sentencing refers to “a sentence which must be imposed without leaving any discretion to the court. It means a quantum of punishment which cannot be reduced below the period fixed,” the Apex court held in its 2016 ruling in ‘Mohd Hashim vs State Of UP And Others’.
  • Essentially, this predetermines the minimum punishment or sentence for certain offenses which are considered to be more serious than others, with a view to ensure justice and not let the perpetrator of such an offense go unpunished.
  • No matter what the unique, individual circumstances of the offender or the offense might be, the court must mandatorily award this minimum period of sentencing for the offenses which prescribe it.
  • A concept that comes primarily from the Canadian and American legal systems; in India, such sentences are prescribed for all sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act except the offense of sexual harassment.
  • Under Section 8 of the POCSO Act, a punishment of 3-5 years has been prescribed for offenses under Section 7 which deals with offenses of sexual assault against children. However, imposing the minimum punishment in such cases is mandatory.
  • When the legislature has prescribed a minimum sentence without discretion, the same cannot be reduced by the courts. 
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 19

In Economic theory and policy making, ‘Consumer Welfare’ is deemed to be maximized when 

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 19

Consumer welfare refers to the individual benefits derived from the consumption of goods and services. The central idea in consumer welfare is to enhance consumer surplus which is the difference between what people prefer to pay and what they actually pay. The greater the difference, higher is the surplus. It means that the market is allocating goods most efficiently (at competitive prices) to people.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 20

Consider the following statements.

  1. During colonial times, the Indian rupee was virtually linked to the British pound rather than to gold which it earned through exports.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) rules does not allow cross border trade transactions in rupee.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 20

As for India, currency hierarchy goes back to colonial times when the Indian rupee was virtually linked to the British pound rather than to gold which it earned through exports. 
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allows cross border trade transactions in rupee which is a step towards internationalisation of the currency.

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements.

  1. Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973 was enacted to nationalise all the coal mines in India.
  2. Auctioning of coal mines to the private players is done on the basis of offer of highest price/ tonne.
  3. 90% of lignite reserves in India occur in eastern parts of the India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 21
  • Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973 was enacted to nationalise all the coal mines in India. It was repealed in 2018.
  • The demand-supply mismatch started in 1991 (the liberalisation period) and started widening. This led the government to allow captive mining (mining for own use only).
  • The 2015 legislation (Coal Mines (Special provisions) Act, 2015) allowed re-entry of private players into the sector. It enabled auctioning of coal mines.
  • The 2018 Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs allowed the auctioning of mines to the private players on basis of offer of highest price/ tonne.
  • The Coal resources of India are available in older Gondwana Formations of peninsular India and younger tertiary formations of north-eastern region.
  • The Lignite reserves in the country are estimated at around 45.76 Billion Tonne (1.4.2019). The major deposits are located in the State of Tamil Nadu, followed by Rajasthan, Gujarat, Kerala, West Bengal.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 22

Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli are 

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 22

Some of the pathogens to look out for are Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi, Streptococcus pneumoniae and many more. These pathogens are commonly implicated as causative agents of healthcare associated infections because of their ability to develop resistance to antibiotics. 

Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding live-fire exercises.

  1. They are exercises used by military personnel, in which live ammunition is used to create conditions that are as close to real combat scenarios as possible.
  2. As part of No first use (NFU) policy, India does not carry out live–fire exercises.
  3. During live-fire training, soldiers are placed in simulated combat situations and are given the opportunity to use their weapons and equipment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 23
  • They are exercises primarily used by military personnel, in which live ammunition is used to create training conditions that are as close to real combat scenarios as possible. 
  • During live-fire training, soldiers are placed in simulated combat situations and are given the opportunity to use their weapons and equipment (like ships, aircraft, tanks and drones).
  • It also involves testing the effectiveness of vehicles, weapon platforms and weapons systems (such as intercontinental ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, anti-aircraft weapons), so that any design flaws can be resolved before the weapons are fully operational.
  • In September 2021, the Indian Army carried out an integrated manoeuvre and live-fire exercise in Ladakh.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review its judgments or orders.
  2. A review petition must be filed within 30 days of pronouncement of the judgment.
  3. A review petition is allowed on narrow grounds to correct grave errors that have resulted in a miscarriage of justice.
  4. The Constitution of India species that the review petitions must be heard in an open court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 24
  • A ruling by the Supreme Court is final and binding. However, Article 137 of the Constitution grants the SC the power to review its judgments or orders. A review petition must be filed within 30 days of pronouncement of the judgment. Except in cases of death penalty, review petitions are heard through “circulation” by judges in their chambers, and not in an open court. Lawyers make their case through written submissions and not oral arguments. The judges who passed the verdict decide on the review petition as well.
  • The SC rarely entertains reviews of its rulings. A review is allowed on narrow grounds to correct grave errors that have resulted in a miscarriage of justice. “A mistake apparent on the face of record” is one of the grounds on which a case for review is made. This mistake, the court has said, must be glaring and obvious — such as relying on case law that is invalid.
Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 25

Which of the following countries share their boundary with Lake Victoria?

  1. Tanzania
  2. Rwanda
  3. Kenya
  4. Uganda

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: February 2023 Weekly Current Affair - 2 - Question 25

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