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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025

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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 1

Savitribai Phule, a pioneer in women's education, was born in which year?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 1

Savitribai Phule was born on January 3, 1831, in Naigaon, Maharashtra. She played a crucial role in advocating for women's education and social reform in India during the 19th century. Her efforts in establishing schools for girls and marginalized communities, along with her husband Jyotirao Phule, were pioneering steps towards challenging societal norms and promoting education for all. (Note: This question tests the basic knowledge of Savitribai Phule's birth year, highlighting her early life and the significant contributions she made to the field of education and social reform.)

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Methylcobalamin is a naturally occurring form of vitamin B12 essential for DNA synthesis and red blood cell production.

Statement-II: Vitamin B12 deficiency does not have any significant impact on neurological health or neurotransmitter production.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 2

Methylcobalamin, as stated in the provided content, is indeed a naturally occurring form of vitamin B12 that is essential for various bodily functions, including DNA synthesis and red blood cell production. This aligns with Statement-I. However, Statement-II is incorrect in suggesting that vitamin B12 deficiency does not impact neurological health or neurotransmitter production. In reality, vitamin B12 plays a significant role in neurological health and the production of neurotransmitters, and its deficiency can lead to serious health issues affecting these areas.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The LEADS 2024 report evaluates logistics performance across four key pillars: Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and Sustainable Logistics.

Statement-II:
The Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS) allows pensioners to access their pensions from any bank or branch in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 3


Statement-I correctly describes the evaluation criteria of the LEADS 2024 report, which indeed assesses logistics performance across Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and Sustainable Logistics. This information is in alignment with the details provided in the source material.
However, Statement-II inaccurately associates the Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS) with the ability for pensioners to access their pensions from any bank or branch in India. While the CPPS does streamline pension disbursement and eliminates the need for physical verifications, its primary function is to centralize pension payments, not necessarily to enable access from any bank or branch. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect in this context.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following pairs regarding Neuroptera and related species:

1. Glenochrysa zeylanica - Rediscovered in India after 111 years

2. Indophanes barbara - Builds pit traps like typical antlions

3. Chrysopidae family - Known for its role in biological pest control

4. Damselflies - Belong to the Order Neuroptera

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 4

1. Glenochrysa zeylanica - Rediscovered in India after 111 years: Correct. Glenochrysa zeylanica is indeed a green lacewing species that was rediscovered in India (Wayanad district) after 111 years and was previously believed to be endemic to Sri Lanka.

2. Indophanes barbara - Builds pit traps like typical antlions: Incorrect. The larva of Indophanes barbara does not build pits; instead, they live under the surface in loose soils. This distinguishes them from other typical antlions that are known for pit-building behavior.

3. Chrysopidae family - Known for its role in biological pest control: Correct. The Chrysopidae family, which includes green lacewings, is well-known for its role in biological pest control, due to the predatory nature of its larvae.

4. Damselflies - Belong to the Order Neuroptera: Incorrect. Damselflies belong to the Order Odonata, not Neuroptera. Neuroptera includes insects such as lacewings and antlions, which are holometabolous insects, whereas damselflies are hemimetabolous.

Thus, two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Order Neuroptera and the species Indophanes barbara and Glenochrysa zeylanica:

1. Neuroptera is an order of insects known for their predatory larvae which play a significant role in biological control within agriculture.

2. Indophanes barbara larvae are unique among antlions because they construct pits to trap their prey.

3. Glenochrysa zeylanica was recently rediscovered in India, although it was previously thought to be endemic to Sri Lanka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 5

1. Statement 1 is correct. Neuroptera, an order of insects, includes species like lacewings, whose larvae are known for their predatory behavior. This makes them valuable biological control agents, especially in agriculture, as they help control pest populations.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The larvae of Indophanes barbara, unlike typical antlion larvae, do not construct pits. Instead, they live under the surface in loose soils, which provides them protection from environmental factors such as sunlight, wind, and rain. This sets them apart from other pit-building antlion species.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Glenochrysa zeylanica was indeed rediscovered in India after being thought to be endemic to Sri Lanka. This discovery highlights its presence in the Wayanad district of Kerala, indicating a broader geographic range than previously known.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option B: 1 and 3 Only the right answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 6

What is the primary goal of the EmpowHER Biz Initiative launched by the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) of NITI Aayog?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 6

The primary goal of the EmpowHER Biz Initiative, a component of the Women Entrepreneurship Platform by NITI Aayog, is to establish a strong retail ecosystem that empowers women entrepreneurs and promotes sustainable growth in the sector. This initiative provides mentorship and extensive training in various areas such as retail management, digital tools, financial literacy, and business development to aspiring women entrepreneurs. By reducing entry barriers and offering support, the initiative aims to create a conducive environment for women to succeed in the retail sector.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the Kokborok language:

1. Kokborok is one of the official languages of Tripura and is part of the Indo-Aryan language family.

2. The language's name is derived from the words 'Kok,' meaning 'verbal,' and 'Borok,' meaning 'people' or 'human.'

3. The Kokborok language was officially recognized in Tripura on January 19, 1979.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 7

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. Kokborok is indeed one of the official languages of Tripura, but it belongs to the Sino-Tibetan language family, not the Indo-Aryan language family. This classification is crucial as it relates to the linguistic roots and historical connections of the language, distinguishing it from Indo-Aryan languages which are prevalent in other parts of India.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The etymology of the language's name comes from 'Kok,' meaning 'verbal' or 'language,' and 'Borok,' meaning 'people' or 'human.' This reflects the cultural identity and linguistic practices of the Borok people, who are native to the region.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. Kokborok was officially recognized as an official language of Tripura on January 19, 1979. This recognition marked a significant step in preserving and promoting the language, acknowledging its importance and usage among the indigenous population.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Kokborok is a language spoken by the Borok people, recognized as one of the official languages of Tripura since January 19, 1979.

Statement-II:
The legal guarantee for Minimum Support Price (MSP) aims to protect farmers from market fluctuations and ensure livelihood security.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 8

Statement-I correctly describes the Kokborok language, stating that it is spoken by the Borok people and recognized as an official language of Tripura since January 19, 1979. Statement-II discusses the legal guarantee for MSP, which aims to protect farmers from market fluctuations and ensure livelihood security. While both statements are factually correct, they pertain to different topics and do not directly relate or explain each other. Therefore, option (b) is the correct choice as it acknowledges the accuracy of both statements without implying a direct relationship between them.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Sydney Funnel-Web Spider, named Atrax christenseni, measures approximately 9 centimeters (3.54 inches) in length.
Statement-II:
Only male Sydney funnel-web spiders possess the potent venom responsible for human fatalities.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 9


Statement-I correctly mentions the size of the newly discovered Sydney Funnel-Web Spider, Atrax christenseni, at around 9 centimeters. This information aligns with the details provided in the source material.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. It states that only male Sydney funnel-web spiders possess the potent venom responsible for human fatalities, which is inaccurate. In reality, both male and female Sydney funnel-web spiders are venomous, with the males having more potent venom. Therefore, Statement-II is inaccurate, making option (c) the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Sanchar Saathi Mobile App is primarily focused on enhancing citizen engagement in telecommunications.

Statement-II:
NBM 2.0 aims to provide broadband connectivity to 100% of Indian villages by 2030.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 10


Statement-I correctly highlights the purpose of the Sanchar Saathi Mobile App, which is designed to enhance telecom security and empower citizens. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately represents the goal of NBM 2.0. The National Broadband Mission (NBM) 2.0 aims to extend operational optical fiber cable (OFC) connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030 with 95% uptime and provide broadband connectivity to 90% of anchor institutions, not to achieve broadband connectivity to 100% of Indian villages by 2030. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect in its assertion.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 11

Consider the following pairs regarding the Central Suspect Registry (CSR) and Abd-al-Kuri Island:

1. Central Suspect Registry (CSR) - Developed by the Ministry of Finance

2. CSR Integration - Utilizes data from the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP)

3. Abd-al-Kuri Island - Part of the Socotra Archipelago

4. Euphorbia abdalkuri - Endemic plant of Abd-al-Kuri Island

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 11

1. Central Suspect Registry (CSR) - Developed by the Ministry of Finance: This pair is incorrectly matched. The CSR was developed by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.

2. CSR Integration - Utilizes data from the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP): This pair is correctly matched. The CSR indeed utilizes data from the NCRP to identify potential cybercriminals.

3. Abd-al-Kuri Island - Part of the Socotra Archipelago: This pair is correctly matched. Abd-al-Kuri Island is a part of the Socotra Archipelago.

4. Euphorbia abdalkuri - Endemic plant of Abd-al-Kuri Island: This pair is correctly matched. Euphorbia abdalkuri is a plant endemic to Abd-al-Kuri Island, notable for its toxic and caustic sap.

Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 12

Consider the following pairs regarding the recent initiatives in telecommunications and space science in India:

1. Chakshu - A feature in the Sanchar Saathi Mobile App for reporting fraudulent communications.

2. National Broadband Mission (NBM) 2.0 - Extension of optical fiber cable connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030.

3. INSAT - An initiative under Satish Dhawan's leadership focused on Indian Remote Sensing satellites.

4. PSLV - A launch vehicle developed during the tenure of Vikram Sarabhai.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 12

1. Chakshu - A feature in the Sanchar Saathi Mobile App for reporting fraudulent communications: Correct. The Chakshu feature allows users to report suspected fraudulent communications directly from their mobile phone logs, as part of the Sanchar Saathi Mobile App's security features.

2. National Broadband Mission (NBM) 2.0 - Extension of optical fiber cable connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030: Correct. NBM 2.0 indeed aims to extend operational optical fiber cable connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030, marking a significant increase from the current coverage.

3. INSAT - An initiative under Satish Dhawan's leadership focused on Indian Remote Sensing satellites: Incorrect. INSAT refers to the Indian National Satellite System, which is a series of multipurpose geostationary satellites commissioned by ISRO to cater to telecommunications, broadcasting, meteorology, and search and rescue operations. The IRS (Indian Remote Sensing) satellites were part of initiatives under Satish Dhawan's leadership, not INSAT.

4. PSLV - A launch vehicle developed during the tenure of Vikram Sarabhai: Incorrect. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was developed under the leadership of Satish Dhawan, not Vikram Sarabhai. Vikram Sarabhai was the founder of the Indian space program, but the PSLV was conceptualized and developed later under Dhawan’s guidance.

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, while pairs 3 and 4 are not. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs regarding the phenomenon of Dark Oxygen and Internet Governance Internship:

1. Polymetallic Nodules - Release oxygen through photosynthesis

2. NIXI - Established under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

3. Dark Oxygen - Produced at great ocean depths without light

4. Internship Stipend - ₹20,000 per month for interns

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 13

1. Polymetallic Nodules - Release oxygen through photosynthesis: Incorrect. Polymetallic nodules do not release oxygen through photosynthesis. Instead, they release oxygen through electrochemical activity involving the splitting of water molecules, a process that occurs without light.

2. NIXI - Established under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology: Correct. The National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) was indeed established under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to enhance internet infrastructure and adoption in India.

3. Dark Oxygen - Produced at great ocean depths without light: Correct. Dark Oxygen refers to the production of oxygen in the deep ocean, thousands of feet below the surface, without the need for light or photosynthesis.

4. Internship Stipend - ₹20,000 per month for interns: Correct. As part of the Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme, interns receive a monthly stipend of ₹20,000.

The correctly matched pairs are 2, 3, and 4.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 14

What is the primary goal of Exercise LA PEROUSE as highlighted in the text?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 14

The primary goal of Exercise LA PEROUSE, as detailed in the text, is to develop a common understanding of maritime challenges among the participating nations. This exercise aims to enhance cooperation in areas such as maritime surveillance, maritime interdiction operations, air operations, and various tactical maneuvers. By engaging in complex scenarios like surface warfare and anti-air warfare, the exercise seeks to improve maritime situational awareness and strengthen collaboration among naval forces.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs:

1. Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project - 900 MW run-of-the-river project in Nepal

2. GUKHL Ownership - 73% GMR Group, 27% NEA

3. Exercise LA PEROUSE - Biennial event conducted by the French Navy

4. Participating Countries in Exercise LA PEROUSE - Includes Royal Canadian Navy and Indonesian Navy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 15

1. Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project - 900 MW run-of-the-river project in Nepal: This pair is correctly matched. The Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project is indeed a 900 MW run-of-the-river project located in Nepal, involving multiple stakeholders for power generation and regional cooperation.

2. GUKHL Ownership - 73% GMR Group, 27% NEA: This pair is correctly matched. The ownership structure of the GMR Upper Karnali Hydro Power Limited (GUKHL) is as stated, with 73% owned by the GMR Group and 27% by the Nepal Electricity Authority (NEA).

3. Exercise LA PEROUSE - Biennial event conducted by the French Navy: This pair is correctly matched. Exercise LA PEROUSE is a biennial maritime exercise organized by the French Navy, focusing on enhancing international maritime cooperation.

4. Participating Countries in Exercise LA PEROUSE - Includes Royal Canadian Navy and Indonesian Navy: This pair is correctly matched. The exercise features participation from several navies, including the Royal Canadian Navy and the Indonesian Navy, among others, to enhance maritime situational awareness and conduct advanced training.

All four pairs are correctly matched, reflecting accurate information based on the source material.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India's federal structure is unique, blending unitary and federal characteristics.

Statement-II:
The role of State Governors has often been contentious, leading to strained relations between the Union and States.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 16


Statement-I correctly highlights the unique blend of unitary and federal characteristics in India's federal structure. Statement-II appropriately elaborates on the contentious nature of the role of State Governors, showcasing how it leads to strained relations between the Union and States. The State Governors' roles have indeed sparked debates and legal disputes, contributing to complex dynamics within the Indian federal system. Hence, in this scenario, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II logically explains Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution establishes a federal structure that is strictly federal in nature, with clear demarcation of powers between the Union and the States.

2. The role of State Governors in India has often been seen as controversial, with instances of being perceived as agents of the Union government.

3. India's model of simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies is an established practice that aims to enhance electoral efficiency by reducing costs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 17

1. The first statement is incorrect. The Indian Constitution does not establish a strictly federal structure. Instead, it is described as a 'quasi-federal' system, which means it has features of both federal and unitary systems. The distribution of powers between the Union and the States is often flexible, allowing the central government to exert more control in certain situations.

2. The second statement is correct. The role of State Governors in India has indeed been controversial at times. Governors, expected to act as neutral figures, have often been perceived as agents of the Union government, particularly in politically sensitive matters. This has led to tensions and legal disputes between the Union and State governments.

3. The third statement is incorrect. Simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies are not an established practice in India but rather a proposal that has been debated. While the idea aims to reduce electoral costs and improve efficiency, there are concerns about its impact on regional autonomy and the focus on state-specific issues.

Given this analysis, only the second statement is correct, making Option D the right choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 18

Consider the following pairs related to India's foundational values and fiscal health:

1. India's Federal Structure - Quasi-federal model accommodating diverse socio-cultural realities.

2. Role of State Governors - Neutral representatives ensuring regional autonomy.

3. Simultaneous Elections - Aims to centralize power and neglect state-specific issues.

4. Fiscal Health Index (FHI) - Evaluates fiscal performance using five sub-indices.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 18

1. India's Federal Structure - Correctly matched. India's federal structure is indeed described as quasi-federal, blending both unitary and federal characteristics to accommodate diverse socio-cultural realities while maintaining national unity.

2. Role of State Governors - Incorrectly matched. State Governors are expected to act neutrally, but they have often been perceived as agents of the Union government rather than ensuring regional autonomy, sometimes leading to strained relations between the Union and States.

3. Simultaneous Elections - Incorrectly matched. While simultaneous elections aim to reduce costs, the concern is about centralizing power rather than achieving regional autonomy. The fear is that simultaneous elections might overshadow state-specific issues, not that it aims to centralize power.

4. Fiscal Health Index (FHI) - Correctly matched. The Fiscal Health Index does indeed evaluate the fiscal performance of states using five sub-indices, including Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilization, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability.

Thus, two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1 and 4.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the archaeological site of Rakhigarhi:

1. Rakhigarhi is located in the Hisar district of Haryana and is the largest site of the Indus Valley Civilization.

2. Excavations at Rakhigarhi have revealed evidence of a planned township from the Mature Harappan phase, featuring advanced engineering techniques such as mud-brick and burnt-brick houses with a drainage system.

3. The site has uncovered extended burials that are believed to be from the Early Harappan period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 19

1. Statement 1 is correct. Rakhigarhi is indeed located in the Hisar district of Haryana and is recognized as the largest site of the Indus Valley Civilization. This site has been prominent in archaeological studies related to the Harappan civilization.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The excavations at Rakhigarhi have indeed revealed a planned township from the Mature Harappan phase. The findings include advanced engineering techniques such as mud-brick and burnt-brick houses, along with a sophisticated drainage system that highlights the urban planning skills of the Harappans.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The extended burials found at Rakhigarhi are not from the Early Harappan period; instead, they are likely from a later period, possibly medieval times, according to the archaeological findings.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Doctrine of Merger is a legal principle aimed at maintaining the decorum and hierarchy of courts and tribunals by ensuring that there is only one decree or operative order governing a specific subject matter at any given time.

Statement-II:
The Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the Aravalli hills near Jaipur, Rajasthan, covers an area of 720 hectares and is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including species like leopards, wild boars, deer, lions, tigers, and various bird species.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 20


Statement-I correctly defines the Doctrine of Merger as a legal principle ensuring the existence of only one decree or operative order governing a subject matter at any given time to maintain the hierarchy of courts. However, Statement-II provides information about the Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary, its location, area, and biodiversity, which is unrelated to the Doctrine of Merger. Therefore, Statement-I is accurate in explaining the legal principle, while Statement-II is irrelevant in this context.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the SANJAY Surveillance System:

1. The SANJAY Surveillance System is designed to integrate information from both ground and aerial sensors to create a comprehensive view of the battlefield.

2. The system was developed in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and will be deployed in three phases across all operational brigades, divisions, and corps of the Indian Army.

3. The SANJAY Surveillance System relies solely on ground-based data networks for its operations, excluding satellite communication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 21

- Statement 1 is correct. The SANJAY Surveillance System is indeed designed to gather and integrate information from both ground and aerial sensors to create a unified surveillance picture of the battlefield. This integration is crucial for providing a comprehensive view, essential for modern military operations.

- Statement 2 is correct. The SANJAY System has been developed indigenously by the Indian Army in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL). It is planned to be deployed in three phases across all operational brigades, divisions, and corps of the Indian Army, which indicates a structured and phased approach to its induction.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The SANJAY Surveillance System does not rely solely on ground-based data networks; it also utilizes satellite communication networks. This combination of ground-based and satellite communication ensures secure and reliable data transmission, enhancing the system's operational capabilities across various terrains and conditions.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS):

1. The RB-IOS was launched to integrate the previous three Ombudsman schemes related to banking, non-banking financial companies, and digital transactions.

2. Under the RB-IOS, regulated entities have the right to appeal against an award issued by the Ombudsman.

3. A Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre has been established in Mumbai for handling complaints under the RB-IOS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 22

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) was indeed launched to integrate the previous three Ombudsman schemes: the Banking Ombudsman Scheme of 2006, the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies of 2018, and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions of 2019. This integration was part of a 'One Nation - One Ombudsman' approach to ensure jurisdiction neutrality.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the RB-IOS, regulated entities do not have the right to appeal if an award is issued against them by the Ombudsman for failing to provide satisfactory and timely information. This is a significant feature of the scheme, emphasizing accountability and consumer protection.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre for handling complaints under the RB-IOS is established in Chandigarh, not Mumbai. This center handles both physical and email complaints in various languages, aimed at streamlining the processing of grievances.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following pairs related to retrospective taxation and GST reforms:

1. Retrospective Taxation: Changing tax laws to apply to future periods
2. Vodafone Dispute: Highlighted issues with retrospective tax policies
3. GST Framework: Known for simplifying tax structures and reducing rates
4. Economic Impact: High taxes impede growth in sectors like real estate 

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 23

1. Retrospective Taxation: Changing tax laws to apply to future periods - Incorrect. Retrospective taxation refers to changing tax laws to apply to past periods, not future ones. It involves applying new tax rules to transactions that have already occurred, undermining the rule of law and judicial decisions.

2. Vodafone Dispute: Highlighted issues with retrospective tax policies - Correct. The Vodafone dispute is a prominent case that highlighted the problems associated with retrospective taxation. The Indian government attempted to apply tax rules retroactively, which was later criticized and led to international arbitration.

3. GST Framework: Known for simplifying tax structures and reducing rates - Incorrect. While the GST was intended to simplify the tax structure, in practice, it has been criticized for complex regulations and high rates that prioritize revenue maximization over simplicity and ease of compliance.

4. Economic Impact: High taxes impede growth in sectors like real estate - Correct. High taxes can indeed impede growth, especially in sectors such as real estate and infrastructure, by increasing costs and reducing affordability.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 24

Why is there a current debate surrounding the role of Governors as Chancellors of state universities in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 24

The ongoing debate about the role of Governors as Chancellors of state universities in India stems from concerns regarding political influence and the effectiveness of university administration. This debate is fueled by challenges such as politicization, conflicting authorities, and the lack of expertise among Governors. Recommendations from commissions like the Sarkaria Commission have highlighted the need for reforms to improve governance and autonomy in educational institutions.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas:

1. The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is presented exclusively to Indian citizens residing in India for their contributions to the Indian economy.

2. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is observed annually on January 9 to mark the return of Mahatma Gandhi to India from South Africa in 1915.

3. Since 2015, Pravasi Bharatiya Divas has been celebrated every two years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 25

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is not limited to Indian citizens residing in India. It is conferred upon Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) for their significant contributions in various fields.

2. Statement 2 is correct. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is indeed observed on January 9, commemorating the day Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915. This date was chosen to strengthen the engagement of the overseas Indian community with the Indian government and to reconnect them with their roots.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Since 2015, Pravasi Bharatiya Divas has been organized once every two years rather than annually. This biennial celebration reflects the shift in organizing the event to make it more impactful and meaningful.

Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 2 and 3 Only the right answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 26

What is the primary objective of implementing the Miyawaki technique in preparation for the Mahakumbh Mela in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 26

The primary goal of implementing the Miyawaki technique in preparation for the Mahakumbh Mela in Uttar Pradesh is to establish dense "oxygen bank" forests. This initiative aims to ensure cleaner air and promote ecological balance for the millions of devotees attending the event. The Miyawaki technique, known for creating dense forests in limited spaces, involves planting trees and shrubs closely together, mimicking natural forest ecosystems and supporting urban afforestation projects worldwide. By emphasizing the use of local plant varieties and enhancing biodiversity, this technique contributes to carbon absorption and the reduction of urban pollution.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Miyawaki technique:

1. The Miyawaki technique involves planting trees and shrubs in dense configurations to promote rapid growth.

2. This technique primarily utilizes exotic plant species to enhance biodiversity.

3. The Miyawaki method is particularly effective at absorbing carbon, thereby reducing urban pollution.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 27

The Miyawaki technique is a method designed to create dense forests in limited spaces by planting trees and shrubs closely together, allowing for rapid growth. This is accurately captured in Statement 1, which is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Miyawaki technique emphasizes the use of native plant species, not exotic ones, to better replicate natural ecosystems and contribute to biodiversity. Native species are crucial because they are adapted to the local climate and soil conditions, supporting the region's natural fauna and flora.

Statement 3 is correct. The Miyawaki method is indeed effective at absorbing carbon due to the dense planting of trees, which leads to a higher carbon uptake compared to traditional planting methods. This contributes significantly to the reduction of urban pollution.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 28

Consider the following pairs regarding India's promotion of Science and Technology and the CATS Programme:

1. CATS-Warrior: Equipped with Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAAWs) and Next-Generation Close Combat Missiles (NG-CCMs).

2. Patent Filings: India ranks fourth globally according to the WIPO 2024 report.

3. CATS-Infinity Pseudo Satellite: Operates at ultra-high altitudes with a 90-day endurance.

4. Barriers to Effective Research: Lack of awareness among youth about opportunities in innovation.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 28

1. CATS-Warrior: Correctly matched. The CATS-Warrior is indeed equipped with Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAAWs) and Next-Generation Close Combat Missiles (NG-CCMs) in its internal bays, enhancing its stealth and strike capabilities.

2. Patent Filings: Incorrectly matched. India ranks sixth globally in patent filings according to the WIPO 2024 report, not fourth.

3. CATS-Infinity Pseudo Satellite: Correctly matched. This pseudo satellite operates at ultra-high altitudes, around 70,000 feet, and has a 90-day endurance, designed to fill the surveillance gap between UAVs and traditional satellites.

4. Barriers to Effective Research: Correctly matched. One of the barriers to effective research in India is indeed the lack of awareness among youth about opportunities in innovation, which hinders progress.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 29

What is the primary focus of the Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) programme recently highlighted in the news?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 29

The Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) programme primarily aims at integrating unmanned and manned combat aircraft systems. This initiative is designed to create advanced aerial platforms for high-altitude surveillance and precision strikes, with a specific emphasis on reducing risks to human life during deep-penetration missions. By integrating these systems, the programme seeks to enhance operational efficiency and battlefield awareness while minimizing risks to pilots.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The significance of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas lies in commemorating Mahatma Gandhi's return to India in 1915.
Statement-II:
The challenges faced by Indians abroad primarily revolve around economic factors such as job insecurity and political vulnerability.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2025 - Question 30


Statement-I correctly identifies the significance of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas as commemorating Mahatma Gandhi's return to India in 1915. This event acknowledges the achievements of Indians abroad and celebrates their contributions to India's growth and international standing. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The challenges faced by Indians living abroad are not solely limited to economic factors. They also include political vulnerability, such as concerns over freedom of expression due to actions like the revocation of OCI cards from critics, as well as global conflicts and increasing visa restrictions. Therefore, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II oversimplifies the challenges faced by Indians abroad.

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