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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025

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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Microplastics dominate the ocean's water column, particularly in subsurface layers, and have been detected at depths of up to 100 meters within ocean gyres.

Statement-II:
Microplastics introduce measurable carbon mass into marine systems, altering natural carbon ratios in ocean layers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 1


Statement-I correctly explains that microplastics dominate the ocean's water column, particularly in subsurface layers, and have been detected at depths of up to 100 meters within ocean gyres. This is supported by the information provided in the passage.

Statement-II is also accurate in stating that microplastics introduce measurable carbon mass into marine systems, altering natural carbon ratios in ocean layers. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. While both statements are individually correct and align with the information presented, they do not have a cause-and-effect relationship, hence option (b) is the accurate choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following pairs:

1. Microplastic Size Range - 1 to 100 micrometres

2. Ocean Gyres - Areas where debris is trapped and accumulated

3. Allochthonous Carbon - Carbon originating from within the ecosystem

4. Atmospheric Deposition of Microplastics - 0.013 to 25 million tonnes annually

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 2

1. Microplastic Size Range - 1 to 100 micrometres: This pair is correctly matched. Microplastics are defined as plastic particles that range from 1 to 100 micrometres in size, largely found in ocean water columns, particularly subsurface layers.

2. Ocean Gyres - Areas where debris is trapped and accumulated: This pair is correctly matched. Ocean gyres are large systems of circulating ocean currents, often associated with the accumulation of marine debris, including microplastics.

3. Allochthonous Carbon - Carbon originating from within the ecosystem: This pair is incorrectly matched. Allochthonous carbon refers to carbon that originates from outside the ecosystem, not within. In the context of oceans, plastics, which are land-based human products, serve as a source of allochthonous carbon.

4. Atmospheric Deposition of Microplastics - 0.013 to 25 million tonnes annually: This pair is correctly matched. Atmospheric deposition of microplastics is estimated to contribute between 0.013 and 25 million tonnes annually, with polyester being the most common airborne microplastic.

Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Therefore, two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 3

How do microplastics disrupt the ocean's carbon cycle according to a recent study published in Nature?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 3

Microplastics disrupt the ocean's carbon cycle by impacting the marine carbon pump and altering carbon ratios in ocean layers. This leads to a distortion in natural carbon ratios within ocean layers, influencing the flow and composition of particulate organic carbon (POC). The presence of microplastics also affects microbial activity, nutrient cycling processes, and the decomposition of organic matter, highlighting the significant threats posed by microplastics to marine biodiversity and carbon cycling.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 4

What was the main objective of the Soviet Kosmos 482 spacecraft launched in 1972?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 4

The main objective of the Soviet Kosmos 482 spacecraft launched in 1972 was to study the surface and atmosphere of Venus. Despite its intended mission, the spacecraft experienced a malfunction that prevented it from leaving Earth's orbit, leading to its ultimate failure.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

1. The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of India in 2021 is below the replacement level of 2.1.

2. The proportion of India's working-age population (15-59 years) has increased since 1971.

3. Bihar has the lowest Total Fertility Rate among all Indian states as of 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 5

1. Statement 1: The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of India in 2021 is below the replacement level of 2.1.
- This statement is correct. The TFR in India for 2021 is reported as 2.0, which is indeed below the replacement level of 2.1. The replacement level TFR is the fertility rate at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next without migration.

2. Statement 2: The proportion of India's working-age population (15-59 years) has increased since 1971.
- This statement is also correct. The data indicates that the working-age population has increased from 53.4% in 1971 to 66.2% in 2021. This demographic shift signifies a higher proportion of the population being in the working-age group, which can be advantageous for economic growth if effectively utilized.

3. Statement 3: Bihar has the lowest Total Fertility Rate among all Indian states as of 2021.
- This statement is incorrect. Bihar actually has the highest Total Fertility Rate among Indian states, reported at 3.0. The states with the lowest TFR are Delhi and West Bengal, both at 1.4.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 6

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Janani Suraksha Yojna is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Statement-II:
The objective of Janani Suraksha Yojna is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women and promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 6


Statement-I is correct as Janani Suraksha Yojna is indeed a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Statement-II is also correct as the objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojna is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women and promote institutional delivery among them. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I directly; hence, the correct answer is option (b).

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 7

What is the key function of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in ensuring nuclear security and oversight globally?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 7

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) plays a crucial role in ensuring that nuclear technology is used for peaceful purposes. This includes monitoring, on-site inspections, and information analysis to prevent the diversion of nuclear energy for military purposes. By promoting safe and peaceful nuclear technology use, the IAEA contributes significantly to international peace and security.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Supreme Court of India recently declared digital access as a fundamental right under Article 21, recognizing it as part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Statement-II:
The Supreme Court's intervention emphasized that accessibility is a constitutional imperative, especially for persons with disabilities, citing prior rulings that affirm the right to live with dignity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 8


Statement-I correctly captures the recent mandate by the Supreme Court recognizing digital access as a fundamental right under Article 21 and part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. This ruling is aimed at addressing digital exclusion, particularly for persons with disabilities, during processes like Know-Your-Customer (KYC).

Statement-II accurately reflects the Supreme Court's emphasis on accessibility as a constitutional imperative, especially for individuals with disabilities, citing previous judgments that uphold the right to dignity. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but provides additional context and support for the importance of digital accessibility. Hence, both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs regarding the Chenchu Tribe and the Shri Banke Bihari Temple:

1. Chenchu Tribe - Located mainly in the Nallamalai forests of Karnataka

2. Peddamanishi - Village elder in the Chenchu community

3. Shri Banke Bihari Temple - Dedicated to Lord Krishna

4. Swami Haridas - Established the Shri Banke Bihari Temple in the 19th century

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 9

1. Chenchu Tribe - Located mainly in the Nallamalai forests of Karnataka: Incorrect. The Chenchu Tribe is primarily located in the Nallamalai forests of Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.

2. Peddamanishi - Village elder in the Chenchu community: Correct. In the Chenchu community, the village elder is known as "Peddamanishi" and plays a crucial role in maintaining social harmony.

3. Shri Banke Bihari Temple - Dedicated to Lord Krishna: Correct. The Shri Banke Bihari Temple is indeed dedicated to Lord Krishna and is a prominent Hindu temple.

4. Swami Haridas - Established the Shri Banke Bihari Temple in the 19th century: Correct. Swami Haridas established the temple in the 19th century, and it holds significant cultural and historical importance.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
S8 measures the distribution of matter throughout the universe, indicating how "clumpy" or evenly dispersed it is.

Statement-II:
S8 tension signifies matter is evenly dispersed in the universe.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 10


Statement-I correctly explains that S8 measures the distribution of matter in the universe, indicating how "clumpy" or evenly dispersed it is. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly states that S8 tension signifies matter is evenly dispersed in the universe, which is not accurate. In reality, high S8 tension signifies that matter is clustered in specific areas, while low S8 indicates a more uniform distribution. Thus, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II provides a misleading description of S8 tension.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 11

Consider the following pairs regarding Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and related economic aspects in India:

1. FII Investment Ceiling: FIIs can invest up to 15% in any single Indian company.

2. Regulatory Oversight: FIIs are governed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

3. Eligible FII Entities: University funds and charitable endowments with a five-year track record are eligible as FIIs.

4. Recent Investment Trends: FIIs increased investments in the IT sector due to concerns about a U.S. recession.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 11

1. FII Investment Ceiling: The statement that FIIs can invest up to 15% in any single Indian company is incorrect. The correct limit is up to 10% in any single Indian company, with a cumulative limit of 24% for all FIIs, NRIs, and PIOs combined.

2. Regulatory Oversight: This statement is correctly matched. FIIs are indeed governed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) alongside other regulations like the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) and oversight by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

3. Eligible FII Entities: This statement is correctly matched. University funds and charitable endowments with at least a five-year operational track record are eligible to be considered as FIIs.

4. Recent Investment Trends: This statement is incorrect. FIIs have reduced their exposure to the IT sector due to concerns about a potential U.S. recession and its implications for technology earnings, not increased investments.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 12

What is the primary focus of the Global Antibiotic Research & Development Partnership (GARDP)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 12

The Global Antibiotic Research & Development Partnership (GARDP) primarily focuses on developing new antibiotic treatments for drug-resistant bacterial infections. This organization plays a crucial role in addressing the urgent need for effective antibiotic treatments, particularly in low- and middle-income countries where many infections are inadequately treated due to gaps in access to appropriate antibiotics. By prioritizing public health needs in antibiotic development, GARDP aims to tackle the immediate antimicrobial resistance crisis and safeguard public health for future generations.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the Art Deco architectural style in Madras:

1. Art Deco was introduced in Madras directly from the United States, bypassing other Indian cities.

2. The Casino Theatre and Dare House are notable examples of Art Deco architecture in Madras.

3. Laxman Mahadeo Chitale played a significant role in the development of Art Deco in India, with his works reflecting a blend of modernity and cultural identity.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 13

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Art Deco style was introduced to India from Europe, specifically after being featured at the Paris Exposition in 1925. The style reached India via Bombay, where the first Art Deco building, the Syndicate Bank building, was completed in 1932. It did not come directly from the United States to Madras.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Casino Theatre and Dare House are indeed notable examples of Art Deco architecture in Madras. These buildings showcase the characteristic sleek geometric shapes and luxurious materials associated with Art Deco.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Laxman Mahadeo Chitale was a significant architect who contributed to the development and integration of the Art Deco style in India. His works, such as the National Insurance Building and the Andhra Insurance Building, reflect a unique blend of modernity and cultural identity, thus playing a crucial role in the architectural history of Madras.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, leading to Option C being the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Regulatory Burden: Manufacturing in India is hindered by stringent and outdated regulations, impacting its growth potential.

Statement-II:
Operation Sindoor: India recently executed a large-scale military operation targeting terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 14

Statement-I correctly addresses the regulatory barriers faced by the manufacturing sector in India, emphasizing the need for reforms to foster growth. Statement-II accurately summarizes Operation Sindoor, a military initiative targeting terrorist camps in Pakistan and PoK. The connection between the two statements lies in the broader context of national development and security, showcasing different facets of challenges and responses within the Indian socio-political landscape.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

1. The high-level committee for regulatory reform in India aims to simplify compliance processes by promoting self-certification in high-risk sectors.

2. Reforms in land and labor markets are considered essential for sustainable growth, including the simplification of land acquisition processes.

3. The regulatory burden on manufacturing in India is primarily due to the lack of transparency in online approval processes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 15

Let's analyze each statement to determine its correctness:

1. Statement 1: The high-level committee for regulatory reform aims to simplify compliance processes by promoting self-certification in low-risk sectors.

- This statement is incorrect. The committee aims to promote self-certification in low-risk sectors, not high-risk ones. This is intended to reduce unnecessary inspections and draw on best practices, as mentioned in the text.

2. Statement 2: Reforms in land and labor markets are considered essential for sustainable growth, including the simplification of land acquisition processes.

- This statement is correct. The text highlights that reforms in land and labor markets are crucial for sustainable growth, specifically mentioning the need to simplify land acquisition processes and update labor laws.

3. Statement 3: The regulatory burden on manufacturing in India is primarily due to the lack of transparency in online approval processes.

- This statement is incorrect. While transparency and online availability of approvals are necessary to reduce confusion and corruption, the primary regulatory burden on manufacturing stems from outdated regulations and stringent inspection requirements, not merely the lack of transparency in online processes.

Thus, the only correct statement is 2. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 16

What is the primary objective of the Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) initiated by the Quad partners?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 16

The main goal of the Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) launched by the Quad partners is to enhance logistics collaboration among the nations for more efficient civilian disaster response in the Indo-Pacific region. This initiative aims to streamline coordination and resources in times of crises such as natural disasters, emphasizing the importance of joint efforts in addressing humanitarian emergencies.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

1. Chile is the world's largest producer of lithium, holding over 75% of global reserves found under salt flats.
2. The Andes Mountains, located in Chile, are the world's longest continental mountain range.
3. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) between India and Chile aims to enhance cooperation in various sectors, including sustainable forest management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 17

1. Statement 1: Chile is indeed part of the "Lithium Triangle" along with Argentina and Bolivia, which holds more than 75% of the world's lithium reserves. However, Chile is the world's largest producer of copper, not lithium. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

2. Statement 2: The Andes Mountains are indeed the world's longest continental mountain range, running along the length of Chile and other South American countries. This statement is correct.

3. Statement 3: The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) between India and Chile is designed to enhance trade and investment opportunities and provides a platform for cooperation in various sectors, which can include sustainable forest management, especially considering the global emphasis on environmental issues. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding India's draft Climate Finance Taxonomy:

1. The taxonomy aims to classify economic activities as sustainable or transitional to prevent greenwashing.

2. It supports India's target of achieving Net Zero emissions by 2050.

3. The framework is designed to enhance the transparency of international climate finance contributions from developed nations.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 18

1. Statement 1 is correct because the draft Climate Finance Taxonomy indeed aims to classify economic activities as sustainable or transitional. This classification is intended to prevent greenwashing by providing clear definitions and criteria for environmentally sustainable projects.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The taxonomy supports India’s target of achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070, not 2050. This is a key part of the framework's alignment with India’s climate goals.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The framework is indeed designed to enhance transparency in international climate finance contributions, addressing issues where developed nations may overstate their contributions to climate finance in developing countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 19

What is the primary goal of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 19

The primary goal of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) is to promote sustainable forest management on a global scale. This involves encouraging practices that maintain the balance between environmental, social, and economic aspects of forests to ensure their long-term health and productivity. Sustainable forest management aims to meet the current needs for forest products while preserving the forest ecosystem for future generations.

This question tests the understanding of the key objectives of the UNFF and the concept of sustainable forest management, which is a vital aspect of environmental conservation efforts globally.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding India:

Statement-I: According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.

Statement-II: All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 20

- Statement-I is correct: According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.

- Statement-II is correct: All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The definition of medium enterprises and the qualification of bank loans under the priority sector are separate concepts, hence both statements are correct but not directly related or explanatory of each other.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 21

Consider the following pairs:

1. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) - Provides financial assistance specifically to low-income countries for short-term balance of payments issues.
2. Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) - Aimed at enhancing macroeconomic resilience and sustainability for low-income and vulnerable middle-income countries.
3. Songar Drones - Developed and first launched by Turkey, primarily used for riot control with non-lethal capabilities.
4. Heat Action Plans (HAPs) - Primarily focus on short-term relief measures during heatwaves in Indian cities.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 21

1. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) - Incorrect. The EFF provides financial assistance to countries with severe medium-term balance of payments issues, helping implement structural reforms. It is not specifically for low-income countries or for short-term issues; it is available to all IMF member countries.
2. Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) - Correct. The RSF is indeed aimed at enhancing macroeconomic resilience and sustainability for low-income and vulnerable middle-income countries.
3. Songar Drones - Incorrect. While Songar drones were developed by Turkey, they are known for being armed unmanned aerial systems, including lethal capabilities such as assault rifles and grenade launchers. They are not primarily used for riot control with non-lethal capabilities.
4. Heat Action Plans (HAPs) - Correct. HAPs in Indian cities often focus on short-term relief measures during heatwaves, addressing immediate needs rather than long-term strategies.

Pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched, leading to the answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the International Maritime Organization's (IMO) initiatives on reducing emissions in the shipping industry:

1. The IMO has set a target to achieve net-zero emissions from the shipping industry by 2050.

2. Under the IMO's Net Zero Framework, ships using high-emission fuels receive financial incentives to encourage their transition to low-emission alternatives.

3. The shipping industry is responsible for approximately 5% of total global greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 22

- Statement 1 is correct. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) has indeed set a target to achieve net-zero emissions from the shipping industry by 2050. This ambitious goal is part of a broader effort to reduce global greenhouse gas emissions and combat climate change.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The IMO's Net Zero Framework does not provide financial incentives to ships using high-emission fuels. Instead, the framework introduces a mandatory emissions levy aimed at encouraging the use of low-emission fuels by imposing costs on high-emission ships and providing financial incentives for those adopting cleaner technologies.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The shipping industry accounts for approximately 2.8% of total global greenhouse gas emissions, not 5%. This figure highlights the significant impact of the industry on global emissions but also shows that it is a smaller portion than indicated in the statement.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) has set ambitious targets to reduce carbon intensity: 40% by 2030, 70% by 2040, and achieving net-zero emissions by 2050.
Statement-II:
The HAYSTAC experiment aims to directly detect axions, which are potential constituents of dark matter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 23
  • Statement-I: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) aims to cut carbon intensity from shipping by 40% by 2030, 70% by 2040, and reach net-zero emissions by 2050. This is accurate per the IMO's 2023 GHG Strategy.
  • Statement-II: The HAYSTAC experiment seeks to detect axions, potential dark matter particles, using a microwave cavity. This is correct based on its scientific purpose.
  • Both statements are true but unrelated. Statement-I is about maritime emissions, and Statement-II is about particle physics. Statement-II doesn’t explain Statement-I.

Answer: b) Both correct, but Statement-II doesn’t explain Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 24

What is the primary focus of the Market-Based Measure (MBM) framework discussed at the 83rd session of the International Maritime Organization’s Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC-83)?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 24

The primary focus of the Market-Based Measure (MBM) framework introduced at the MEPC-83 session is to reduce global shipping emissions. This framework aims to address the environmental impact of the shipping industry by implementing measures to lower greenhouse gas emissions. By introducing mechanisms like levies, penalties, and incentives, the MBM framework targets a significant reduction in the sector's contribution to global emissions, aligning with broader climate action goals.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs related to the Draft Space Activities Bill and regional trade issues:

1. IN-SPACe - Statutory authority for regulating private space activities

2. Outer Space Treaty of 1967 - Not signed by India

3. Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka - States developing space policies to support manufacturing hubs

4. Land ports with Bangladesh - Closed for all imports and exports

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 25

1. IN-SPACe - Statutory authority for regulating private space activities: Correctly matched. The Draft Space Activities Bill aims to provide statutory authority to IN-SPACe to enable it to regulate and authorize private sector participation in space activities.

2. Outer Space Treaty of 1967 - Not signed by India: Incorrectly matched. India is a signatory to the Outer Space Treaty of 1967, which establishes key international legal principles for outer space activities.

3. Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka - States developing space policies to support manufacturing hubs: Correctly matched. These states are actively developing their own space policies to support the establishment of manufacturing hubs as part of India's broader space sector development.

4. Land ports with Bangladesh - Closed for all imports and exports: Incorrectly matched. The closure of land ports affects exports of apparel and certain goods through northeastern ports, but some imports such as fish, LPG, edible oil, and crushed stone from Bangladesh remain unaffected.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs:

1. Right to Be Informed - Ensures access to accurate product details to prevent unfair trade practices.

2. Right to Choose - Protects consumers from hazardous goods and services.

3. Right to Be Heard - Guarantees that consumer interests are considered in appropriate forums.

4. Right to Seek Redressal - Ensures lifelong consumer education to reduce exploitation.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 26

1. Right to Be Informed - Correctly matched. This right ensures that consumers receive accurate information about products, which helps prevent unfair trade practices and pressure selling.

2. Right to Choose - Incorrectly matched. The Right to Choose ensures access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices, allowing consumers the freedom to select products based on their preferences. It is not specifically about protection from hazardous goods.

3. Right to Be Heard - Correctly matched. This right ensures that consumers' interests are considered in appropriate forums, allowing them to voice their complaints and concerns regarding goods and services.

4. Right to Seek Redressal - Incorrectly matched. The Right to Seek Redressal allows consumers to seek compensation for any damage or dissatisfaction that arises from the use of goods or services. The statement provided describes the Right to Consumer Education, which is about educating consumers to prevent exploitation.

Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provided for the establishment of Consumer Councils at the national, state, and district levels to address consumer grievances.

2. The Supreme Court of India recommended the establishment of permanent consumer redressal bodies due to the increasing number of digital and cross-border consumer disputes.

3. Article 37 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Directive Principles of State Policy are legally enforceable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 27

- Statement 1 is correct. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, indeed established Consumer Councils at different levels to address consumer grievances, aiming to protect consumer rights and facilitate dispute resolution.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has recommended that permanent consumer redressal bodies be established to manage the rising number of digital and cross-border consumer disputes, which are increasingly prevalent due to the growth of e-commerce and related sectors.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 37 of the Indian Constitution states that the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not legally enforceable. They are meant to guide the State in lawmaking and governance, providing a moral and constitutional foundation, but they do not have the force of law.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 28

What is the primary objective of the National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) mentioned in the text?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 28

The National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) is designed to enhance the employability of candidates through practical training in various industries. This scheme aims to bridge the gap between education and employment by providing hands-on experiential learning opportunities, thereby improving the skill set and readiness of individuals entering the workforce.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India's defence imports are increasingly diversified, reducing reliance on Russia.

Statement-II:
Pakistan's military procurement is heavily aligned with China due to regional dynamics.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 29


Statement-I correctly highlights India's diversified defence imports, showcasing a reduction in reliance on Russia and an increased engagement with various other countries like France, the UK, Israel, and the US for defence procurements.

Statement-II accurately points out Pakistan's strong alignment with China in terms of military procurement, reflecting the regional dynamics that influence its defense strategies. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to the content provided in Statement-I. Both statements are correct in their individual contexts but do not necessarily depend on each other for explanation or validation.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding INS Brahmaputra:

1. INS Brahmaputra is equipped with torpedo launchers and advanced sensors for comprehensive maritime warfare.

2. The frigate was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1995.

3. INS Brahmaputra has a total crew capacity of 40 officers and 330 sailors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - May 2025 - Question 30

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. INS Brahmaputra is indeed equipped with torpedo launchers and advanced sensors for comprehensive maritime warfare. These capabilities are integral to its role in the Indian Navy, allowing it to perform a variety of missions including coastal and offshore patrolling, monitoring sea routes, and counter-terrorism operations.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. INS Brahmaputra was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 14, 2000, not in 1995. This date marks its official entry into active service after construction by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. INS Brahmaputra has a total crew capacity of 40 officers and 330 sailors, which supports its operational and combat roles effectively.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

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