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Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1

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Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements.

  1. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure.
  2. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is the only state-owned share depository in India.
  3. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 1
  • CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
  • Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialised form.
  • CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure, providing services to all market participants, including exchanges, clearing corporations, depository participants, issuers and investors.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding CITES Agreement.

  1. CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
  2. When a country becomes a party to the CITES, all import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
  3. Conference of the Parties (CoP), which is the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 2
  • Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement between governments — 184 at present — to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species. The convention entered into force in 1975 and India became the 25th party — a state that voluntarily agrees to be bound by the Convention — in 1976.
  • All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
  • Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.
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Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 3

Consider the following statements.

  1. In India, the Law empower the States to undertake effective measures to mitigate the harms caused during a medical emergency.
  2. Test of proportionality is a standard of review that is invoked to keep a check on the infringement of privacy of an individual by the state.
  3. Being a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, India is bound to take all possible measures to realise the enjoyment of “highest attainable standard of physical and mental health” of its citizens.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 3
  • The proportionality test is a standard of review that is invoked to keep a check on the infringement of bodily integrity and privacy of an individual by the state.
  • The Disaster Management Act of 2005 and the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897 empower the States to undertake effective measures to mitigate the harms caused during a medical emergency. 
  • Being a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, India is bound to take all possible measures to progressively realise the enjoyment of “highest attainable standard of physical and mental health” of its citizens under Article 12 thereof.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 4

Consider the following statements.

  1. Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non-government trust formed with the motive to promote Mahatma Gandhi’s and Nelson Mandela’s values of non-violence.
  2. The Gandhi Mandela Foundation instituted the Gandhi Mandela Award on the 150th birth anniversary of MK Gandhi.
  3. Gandhi Mandela Award is given to personalities who have made significant contributions in the fields of Culture, Environment, Education, Healthcare, Sports and Innovation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 4

The 14th Dalai Lama was conferred the Gandhi Mandela Award 2022.

  • A government of India registered Trust, the Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non-profit organisation, formed with the motive to promote Mahatma Gandhi’s and former President of South Africa Nelson Mandela’s values of non-violence. It has constituted an international prize, the Gandhi Mandela Award.
  • The foundation instituted the award on the 150th birth anniversary of the Father of the Nation, MK Gandhi.
  • The award is given to personalities who have carried forward the legacies of Gandhi and Mandela by making significant contributions in the fields of Peace, Social Welfare, Culture, Environment, Education, Healthcare, Sports and Innovation.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
  2. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  3. The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
  4. India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 5
  • CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  • The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix I. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix II in 1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
  • The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.

  1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
  2. The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
  3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 6
  • Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
  • The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss.
  • After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from the profit.
  • However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.
  • Private banks wrote off loans worth Rs 2,74,772 crore in the last five years in their effort to bring down NPAs and whitewash their balance sheets.
  • Public sector banks reported the lion’s share of write-offs at Rs 734,738 crore accounting for 72.78 per cent of the exercise.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 7

Consider the following statements.

  1. A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
  2. When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
  3. Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 7
  • A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
  • The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.” The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.

  1. The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
  2. The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and national parks.
  3. Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 8
  • The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. The community uses it to access resources available within the traditional and customary boundary of the village; and for seasonal use of landscape in case of pastoralist communities.
  • Each CFR area has a customary boundary with identifiable landmarks recognised by the community and its neighboring villages. It may include forest of any category – revenue forest, classified & unclassified forest, deemed forest, reserve forest, protected forest, sanctuary and national parks etc.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 9

Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in 

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 9
  • FIFA has implemented what they call “semi-automated offside technology” this World Cup. 
  • According to FIFA, “The new technology uses 12 dedicated tracking cameras mounted underneath the roof of the stadium to track the ball and up to 29 data points of each individual player, 50 times per second, calculating their exact position on the pitch. The 29 collected data points include all limbs and extremities that are relevant for making offside calls.”
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Ahom kingdom.

  1. The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam.
  2. It was a multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra valley.
  3. Ahoms had a very friendly relations with the Mughals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 10
  • The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam for nearly 600 years, from the early 13th century to the early 19th century. This was a prosperous, multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra valley, surviving on rice cultivation in its fertile lands.
  • The Ahoms engaged in a series of conflicts with the Mughals from 1615-1682, starting from the reign of Jahangir till the reign of Aurangzeb. One of the major early military conflicts was in January 1662, where the Mughals won a partial victory, conquering parts of Assam and briefly occupying Garhgaon, the Ahom capital.
  • The counter-offensive to reclaim lost Ahom territories started under Ahom King Swargadeo Chakradhwaja Singha. After the Ahoms enjoyed some initial victories, Aurangzeb dispatched Raja Ram Singh I of Jaipur in 1669 to recapture the lost territory — eventually resulting in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Emergency Procurement (EP) through the fast-track procurement (FTP) route in India.

  1. Emergency Procurement powers were granted to the armed forces by the Union Defence Ministry.
  2. Under the FTP route, the armed forces can procure weapons systems without any financial limits, on an urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
  3. Such acquisitions are applicable only from indigenous sources.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 11

Emergency financial powers were granted to the armed forces by the Defence Ministry in the past on three occasions, post the Uri surgical strikes in 2016, the Balakot air strike in 2019 and the 2020 standoff with China in eastern Ladakh.
Under the FTP route, the forces can procure weapons systems upto ₹300 crores on an “urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
Such acquisitions are applicable for both indigenous sources and ex-import.
FTP acquisitions can be categorised as under.

  • Procurement of equipment already inducted into Service.
  • Procurement of new equipment.
  • Procurement of weapon system/platform, which is in service in a friendly foreign country and is available for transfer/lease or sale.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties.
  2. The Constitution of India provides Election Commission of India (ECI) the power to deregister political parties.
  3. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 12
  • The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act-1951”.
  • The EC generally does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an electoral reform to the government many times.
  • On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971.

  1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 has not been amended since inception.
  2. The MTP Act recognises abortion as a choice of the women.
  3. It makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 13
  • The MTP Act, first enacted in 1971 and then amended in 2021, certainly makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions. However, this Act is framed from a legal standpoint to primarily protect medical practitioners because under the Indian Penal Code, “induced miscarriage” is a criminal offence. This premise points to a lack of choice and bodily autonomy of women and rests the decision of abortion solely on the doctor’s opinion. The MTP Act also only mentions ‘pregnant woman’, thus failing to recognise that transgender persons and others who do not identify as women can become pregnant.
  • The MTP Act does not recognise abortion as a choice, they need the approval of medical professionals even in the first few weeks of the pregnancy.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution of India.
  2. The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission.
  3. Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 14

Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commissioners

  • The CEC and ECs are appointed by the President to a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution itself. Under Article 324, the powers of “superintendence, direction and control of elections” is to be vested in an Election Commission.

Size of the Election Commission

  • The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission. Article 324(2) says that “the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix”.
  • From the beginning, the Election Commission of India consisted of just the Chief Election Commissioner. However, on October 16, 1989, the government appointed two more Election Commissioners, making the Election Commission a multi-member body.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding Monkeypox.

  1. Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
  2. Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that means, the disease is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
  3. Human-to-human transmission is limited.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 15
  • Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
  • The monkeypox virus is an orthopoxvirus, which is a genus of viruses that also includes the variola virus, which causes smallpox, and the vaccinia virus, which was used in the smallpox vaccine. Monkeypox causes symptoms similar to smallpox, although they are less severe.
  • Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that is, a disease that is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
  • Human-to-human transmission is limited. Transmission, when it occurs, can be through contact with bodily fluids, lesions on the skin or internal mucosal surfaces, such as in the mouth or throat, respiratory droplets and contaminated objects, the WHO says.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 16

Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was launched by which state? 

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 16
  • Bihar Chief Minister recently launched the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Rajgir. It is a unique and ambitious initiative to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
  • The scheme will help to harvest the excess water of the Ganga during the monsoon season. The water will be stored in reservoirs in Rajgir and Gaya before being channelled to three treatment-and-purification plants, from where it will be supplied to the public.
  • Har Ghar Gangajal is part of the Bihar government’s Jal, Jeevan, Hariyali scheme.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements.

  1. Recently the monkeypox has spread mainly in the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
  2. Monkeypox was named because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys.
  3.  Assigning names to new and existing diseases is the responsibility of World Health Organisation (WHO) under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 17
  • The World Health Organisation (WHO) announced that it would start using the term “mpox” for monkeypox, which has infected about 80,000 people in the first major outbreak of the viral disease outside Africa that began early this summer. The disease spread mainly in the Americas including the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
  • Monkeypox, which was named in 1970 because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys in 1958, does not have much to do with monkeys. The most likely reservoir for the virus, which has circulated for several years in a few central African countries after jumping to humans through zoonosis in the bush, are rodents.
  • The WHO said that assigning names to new and, in some cases, existing diseases is the responsibility of the global body under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) and the WHO Family of International Health Related Classifications through a consultative process which includes WHO Member States. In the case of monkeypox, the process was accelerated.
  • According to WHO best practices, “new disease names should be given with the aim to minimize unnecessary negative impact of names on trade, travel, tourism or animal welfare, and avoid causing offence to any cultural, social, national, regional, professional or ethnic groups”.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

  1. Family Planning Logistics Management Information System is a dedicated software to ensure procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health facilities.
  2. Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices and to successfully increase the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 18
  • Family Planning Logistics Management Information System — a dedicated software to ensure the smooth forecasting, procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health facilities.
  • Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices, to successfully increase the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR), especially among female non-users from vulnerable communities.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements.

  1. In India, the Ministryof Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
  2. Generally Millets are high in proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
  3. The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 19
  • Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the Agriculture Ministry declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”. 
  • The Story of Millets published by the Karnataka State Department of Agriculture in association with ICAR-Indian Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad, says, “Millets contain 7-12% protein, 2-5% fat, 65-75% carbohydrates and 15-20% dietary fibre.
  • On March 3, 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The proposal was moved by India, and was supported by 72 countries.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings.

  1. In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved.
  2. In the In-camera proceedings, to maintain the freedom of press, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard, without the permission of the court.
  3. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 20
  • In-camera proceedings are private, unlike open court proceedings. Conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved, the proceedings are usually held through video conferencing or in closed chambers, from which the public and press are excluded.
  • In an open court or open justice system, which is the usual course of proceedings, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard.
  • Section 327 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera, including inquiry into and trial in rape case.
  • The said section states that if the presiding judge or a magistrate thinks fit, she can order at any stage of the proceedings that the public generally, or any particular person, shall not remain present in the courtroom or the court building.
  • Section 327 of the CrPC states that it shall not be lawful to publish any matter in relation to in-camera proceedings except with the previous permission of the court. It adds that the ban on publishing of trial proceedings for offence of rape may be lifted subject to maintaining confidentiality of name and address of the parties.
  • In-camera proceedings are usually conducted at family courts in cases of matrimonial disputes, including judicial separation, divorce proceedings, impotence, and more. In-camera proceedings are also conducted during the deposition of witnesses of terrorist activities as per the court’s discretion, so as to protect them and maintain national security.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 21

Consider the following statements.

  1. Article 3 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court of India exclusive jurisdiction to decide on the boundaries of states.
  2. The State Reorganisation Act that was passed in 1956, was based on the findings of the Justice Fazal Ali Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 21
  • Karnataka has cited Article 3 of the Constitution to argue that the Supreme Court does not have the jurisdiction to decide the borders of states, and only Parliament has the power to do so.
  • The State Reorganisation Act was passed by the Parliament in 1956. The Act was based on the findings of the Justice Fazal Ali Commission, which was appointed in 1953 and submitted its report two years later.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements.

  1. Phytoremediation is a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds to reduce the concentrations or toxic effects of contaminants in the environment.
  2. Metals like cadmium, cobalt, nickel, lead and organic pollutants can be easily removed from the soil through Phytoremediation.
  3. Hyperaccumulator plants slows down the process of Phytoremediation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 22
  • “Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds. One particular way to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants that absorb these substances from the soil.
  • Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the soil and accumulate in their living tissue. Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances, hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these substances than is normal for most plants.
  • This process can be used to remove metals like silver, cadmium, cobalt, chromium, copper, mercury, manganese, molybdenum, nickel, lead and zinc; metalloids such as arsenic and selenium; some radionuclides; and non-metallic components such as boron. But it cannot be used to remove organic pollutants from the ground due to metabolic breakdown.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 23

Consider the following statements.

  1. Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth’s interior.
  2. Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
  3. Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magmathat has low viscosity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 23
  • The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat flowing from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates what geologists call ‘magma’.
  • Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the Earth’s crust is referred to as lava.
  • In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous. Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace, people typically have enough time to move out of the way.
  • If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano.
  • The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosivity of a volcano. It has a range of 1 to 8 with a higher VEI indicating more explosivity.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless and contactless processing.
  2. DigiYatra works on facial recognition technology.
  3. DigiYatra Foundation is a joint-venture company, where Airports Authority of India is a majority shareholder.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 24
  • The government has introduced paperless entry at select airports to make air travel hassle-free. Under this initiative, airports will use a facial recognition software called ‘DigiYatra’ for entry.
  • DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless and contactless processing, using facial features to establish their identity, which would be linked to the boarding pass. With this technology, the entry of passengers would be automatically processed based on the facial recognition system at all checkpoints – including entry into the airport, security check areas, aircraft boarding, etc.
  • Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports.
  • The project is being implemented by the DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-venture company whose shareholders are the Airports Authority of India (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport, Delhi Airport, Hyderabad Airport, Mumbai Airport and Cochin International Airport. These five shareholders equally hold the remaining 74% of the shares.
Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 25

The intangible cultural heritage that can be inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage (ICH) include

  1. oral traditions
  2. performing arts
  3. social practices
  4. festive events
  5. knowledge and practices concerning nature

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: December 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 25
  • Baguette — the staple French bread — was inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage (ICH). The baguette is a long and thin loaf made of flour, water, salt and yeast, and is consumed as a staple in France.
  • According to an official document by UNESCO, ‘intangible cultural heritage’ includes “oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe or the knowledge and skills to produce traditional crafts.”
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