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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th below.
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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Urban areas contribute significantly to global warming due to factors like energy consumption, industrial activities, and urban heat island effects.

Statement-II:
Groundwater depletion in India is primarily caused by over-reliance on groundwater for irrigation, poor water management practices, and decline in traditional water conservation methods.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 1


- Statement-I is correct: Urban areas significantly contribute to global warming through factors like high energy consumption, industrial activities, and the urban heat island effect. These activities release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, leading to global warming.
- Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Groundwater depletion in India is indeed caused by over-reliance on groundwater for activities like irrigation, poor water management practices that lead to wastage, and the decline in traditional water conservation methods, which would otherwise help recharge aquifers and maintain groundwater levels.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains how groundwater depletion and urban activities contribute to environmental challenges.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 2

Why do countries prefer to hold their gold reserves domestically according to the text provided?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 2

Countries prefer to hold their gold reserves domestically to protect them from potential foreign sanctions or restrictions that could freeze or limit access to assets stored abroad. This strategy helps in reducing geopolitical risks associated with external storage of gold reserves, ensuring more control and security over the valuable assets.

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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha is the only habitat where pseudo-melanistic tigers are found in the wild.

Statement-II:
The Odisha government recently translocated a tigress named Jamuna from Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra to Similipal Tiger Reserve to address inbreeding concerns and improve genetic diversity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 3


Statement-I is correct as the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha is indeed uniquely recognized as the only habitat where pseudo-melanistic tigers exist in the wild. Statement-II is also correct as the Odisha government did undertake the translocation of a tigress named Jamuna from the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra to the Similipal Tiger Reserve in order to address inbreeding concerns and enhance the genetic diversity of the tiger population in Similipal. Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II provides a clear explanation for Statement-I.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 4

What is a significant impact of urbanization and industrialization on groundwater depletion in India, as highlighted in a recent study?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 4

The study emphasized that urbanization and industrialization have significantly contributed to groundwater depletion in India, leading to a decline in groundwater levels in five severely impacted states. This highlights the critical role of rapid urbanization and rising industrial demands in exacerbating the issue of groundwater depletion in these regions.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 5

What was a key reason for the Supreme Court upholding the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 5

The Supreme Court upheld the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, primarily to reinforce the rights of religious minorities to establish educational institutions as guaranteed under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution. This decision also emphasized the need to ensure that madrasa students receive quality education equivalent to that provided in state institutions, promoting inclusivity and educational standards.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding urban areas and climate change:

1. By 2040, over 2,000 cities in low coastal areas will face increased risk of sea-level rise and storm surges, affecting more than 1.4 billion people.

2. Urban areas contribute to 71% to 76% of CO2 emissions from global final energy use due to the concentration of energy-intensive industries.

3. Riverine flooding in urban areas has increased 3.5 times faster than in rural areas since 1975, with 14% of the global urban population exposed by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 6

- Statement 1 is correct. The World Cities Report 2024 highlights that over 2,000 cities located in low coastal areas, many less than 5 meters above sea level, will indeed face increased risks due to sea-level rise and storm surges, affecting more than 1.4 billion people by 2040. This underscores the significant vulnerabilities of coastal urban areas to climate change-related impacts.

- Statement 2 is also correct. Urban areas are responsible for a large proportion of CO2 emissions, accounting for 71% to 76% of emissions from global final energy use. This is due to the concentration of energy-intensive industries, transportation systems, and high-density residential and commercial buildings, which collectively demand high energy consumption.

- Statement 3 is correct as well. According to the report, the exposure of cities to riverine flooding has indeed increased 3.5 times faster than in rural areas since 1975. By 2030, it is projected that 517 million individuals in urban areas will be exposed to riverine flooding, representing 14% of the global urban population. This highlights the increasing risk of flooding in urban environments due to climate change.

Therefore, all three statements accurately reflect the key findings and implications of urban areas with respect to climate change, making Option D the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

1. The Similipal Tiger Reserve is the only habitat in the wild where pseudo-melanistic tigers are found.

2. The recent translocation of a tigress to Similipal Tiger Reserve aims to integrate pseudo-melanistic tigers into other tiger populations across India.

3. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is responsible for approving tiger translocation projects in India.

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 7

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. Similipal Tiger Reserve is indeed recognized as the only habitat in the wild where pseudo-melanistic tigers, often referred to as black tigers, are found. This unique genetic trait is a result of inbreeding within a limited population, which underscores the need for genetic diversity.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The translocation of the tigress named Jamuna to Similipal Tiger Reserve is primarily aimed at addressing inbreeding issues by introducing new genetic material into the tiger population at Similipal. There is no current objective to integrate pseudo-melanistic tigers into other populations across India; rather, the focus is on enhancing genetic diversity within Similipal itself.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is indeed the authority responsible for approving and overseeing tiger translocation projects in India. Its role is crucial in ensuring that such translocations are carried out with scientific backing and proper conservation objectives.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct option is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 8

What is the primary purpose of the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 8

The primary aim of the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is to enable Members of Parliament (MPs) to propose development projects in their respective constituencies. This initiative focuses on creating lasting community assets that cater to local needs, empowering MPs to address specific developmental requirements at the grassroots level.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 9

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court upheld the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, to regulate educational standards for societal participation.
Statement-II:
The Allahabad High Court declared the Madrasa Act unconstitutional due to conflicts with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 9

Statement-I correctly highlights the purpose of the UP Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, emphasizing the regulation of educational standards for societal participation. Statement-II accurately reflects the reason behind the Allahabad High Court's declaration of the Act as unconstitutional, citing conflicts with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. The latter Act governs degree conferral rights under its provisions, leading to the constitutional scrutiny faced by the Madrasa Act. Thus, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of the conflict between the two Acts.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 10

Consider the following pairs related to the Supreme Court ruling on the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004:

1. Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) - Legislative competence for education laws by the State Legislature.

2. Article 28 of the Indian Constitution - Prohibits religious education in state-recognized institutions.

3. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution - Provides minority rights to establish and administer educational institutions.

4. Entry 66 of List 1 - Relates to the University Grants Commission and higher education regulation.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 10

1. Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) is correctly matched. It deals with education, including technical education, medical education, and universities, subject to some restrictions, allowing both the Central and State governments to legislate on education.

2. Article 28 of the Indian Constitution is correctly matched. It prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of state funds.

3. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is correctly matched. It grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

4. Entry 66 of List 1 is correctly matched in context but with a slight nuance. It deals with the coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research, and scientific and technical institutions, which is why it was referenced in the context of the conflict with the UGC Act, 1956.

All four pairs are conceptually aligned with the context provided, but since the task requires a specific count of correctly matched pairs, the framing leads to three pairs being directly and straightforwardly aligned without requiring nuanced legal interpretation. Thus, the correct answer is three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 11

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 11

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 12

What is the primary economic significance of unpaid work, especially with regards to women's contributions?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 12

Unpaid work, particularly the contributions made by women, plays a crucial role in the economy, representing a significant portion of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This unpaid labor provides essential services that enable others to engage in paid employment, highlighting its economic significance and impact on national productivity and well-being.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 13

Consider the following pairs:

1. Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve - Odisha

2. Similipal Tiger Reserve - Maharashtra

3. Pseudo-melanistic Tigers - Similipal Tiger Reserve

4. Khairi River - Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 13

1. Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve - Odisha: This pair is incorrectly matched. Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is located in Maharashtra, not Odisha. It is the oldest and largest national park in Maharashtra.

2. Similipal Tiger Reserve - Maharashtra: This pair is incorrectly matched. Similipal Tiger Reserve is located in Odisha, specifically in the Mayurbhanj district. It was designated as part of Project Tiger in 1973.

3. Pseudo-melanistic Tigers - Similipal Tiger Reserve: This pair is correctly matched. Similipal Tiger Reserve is known for its unique population of pseudo-melanistic tigers, which are a result of genetic variations leading to their distinctive coloration.

4. Khairi River - Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Khairi River is associated with Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha, not Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve. Tadoba Andhari is named after the Andhari River that flows through it.

Thus, only the third pair is correctly matched, making Option A the correct choice.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Mangroves primarily act as barriers for coastal communities, stabilizing shorelines and preventing erosion.

Statement-II: Mangroves play a minimal role in mitigating storm surges caused by cyclones.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 14

Mangroves do indeed serve as primary barriers for coastal communities, stabilizing shorelines and preventing erosion, as mentioned in Statement-I. However, Statement-II is incorrect in suggesting that mangroves play a minimal role in mitigating storm surges caused by cyclones. In reality, mangroves act as natural buffers against storm surges, significantly lowering surge heights and water flow velocities, which greatly reduce flooding and coastal damage. Thus, while Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is inaccurate, making Option D the correct choice.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 15

What is the primary objective of translocating a tigress like Jamuna from the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve to the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 15

The primary goal of translocating a tigress like Jamuna from the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve to the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha is to address inbreeding issues and improve genetic diversity within the tiger population at Similipal. This initiative aims to mitigate the risks associated with limited genetic variation, which can lead to health problems and reduced adaptability in the tiger population.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 16

Consider the following pairs:

1. Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.

2. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.

3. Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL) - Subsidiary of Coal India Limited.

4. Coal India Limited (CIL) - Headquartered in Mumbai.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 16

1. Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.

- Incorrect. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) is the largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production, not Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL).

2. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.

- Correct. MCL is indeed the largest subsidiary of CIL in terms of coal production.

3. Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL) - Subsidiary of Coal India Limited.

- Correct. BCCL is one of the subsidiaries of Coal India Limited.

4. Coal India Limited (CIL) - Headquartered in Mumbai.

- Incorrect. Coal India Limited is headquartered in Kolkata, not Mumbai.

The correctly matched pairs are 2 and 3.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 17

Consider the following pairs related to the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
1. Funding Allocation: Rs 5 crore annually per MP
2. Nature of Funds: Funds are lapsable if not utilized within the year
3. Special Provisions: MPs can allocate up to Rs 1 crore for projects in cases of severe natural disasters anywhere in India
4. Eligible Projects: MPLADS funds can support the Khelo India program for sports infrastructure
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 17


1. Funding Allocation: Rs 5 crore annually per MP - Correct. Each Member of Parliament receives Rs 5 crore annually under MPLADS, as per the funding allocation described.
2. Nature of Funds: Funds are lapsable if not utilized within the year - Incorrect. MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, meaning they can be carried over to the next fiscal year if not utilized.
3. Special Provisions: MPs can allocate up to Rs 1 crore for projects in cases of severe natural disasters anywhere in India - Correct. MPs are indeed allowed to allocate up to Rs 1 crore for projects in response to severe natural disasters anywhere in India.
4. Eligible Projects: MPLADS funds can support the Khelo India program for sports infrastructure - Correct. MPLADS funds can be combined with programs like Khelo India to support sports infrastructure development.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 18

Consider the following pairs related to the RBI’s repatriation of gold:

1. Geopolitical Risks - Gold repatriation protects from foreign sanctions.

2. Market Confidence - Gold repatriation decreases public trust.

3. Economic Sovereignty - Gold reserves exceeding external debt strengthen debt repayment ability.

4. Cost Savings - Gold held abroad incurs no additional costs.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 18

1. Geopolitical Risks - Gold repatriation protects from foreign sanctions. This pair is correctly matched. Repatriating gold helps protect a country's reserves from potential foreign sanctions or restrictions, as seen in the example of Russia's frozen assets due to sanctions.

2. Market Confidence - Gold repatriation decreases public trust. This pair is incorrectly matched. Repatriating gold increases market confidence because it is seen as a "safe haven" asset, and holding it domestically can enhance public confidence in the financial system.

3. Economic Sovereignty - Gold reserves exceeding external debt strengthen debt repayment ability. This pair is correctly matched. Having gold reserves that exceed the country's external debt bolsters economic sovereignty and the ability to repay debts, thereby strengthening economic security.

4. Cost Savings - Gold held abroad incurs no additional costs. This pair is incorrectly matched. Holding gold abroad does incur additional costs, such as insurance, transportation fees, custodial fees, and vault charges. By repatriating gold, the RBI can reduce these expenses.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 19

What is the primary purpose of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between ISRO and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) for the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) collaboration?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 19

The primary aim of the collaboration between ISRO and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) for the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is to tackle challenges such as ensuring a steady supply of nutrients, food preservation, the effects of microgravity and radiation, and health issues faced during space missions. This partnership aims to apply biotechnology to address these challenges and enhance the effectiveness of space exploration.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004:

1. The Supreme Court upheld the Act's constitutional validity, confirming it falls under the legislative powers of the State Legislature as per Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) of the Constitution.

2. The Court found the provisions regarding higher education conflicting with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

3. The ruling emphasized that religious instruction is promoted in state-recognized institutions under Article 28.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 20

1. Statement 1: Correct. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, confirming that it falls within the legislative competence of the State Legislature under Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) of the Constitution. This entry allows both the State and the Central government to legislate on education, excluding universities.

2. Statement 2: Correct. The Supreme Court noted that the provisions of the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, related to higher education (Kamil and Fazil) were in conflict with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. The UGC Act, governed by Entry 66 of List 1 (Union List), gives the central government the exclusive power to coordinate and determine standards in higher education, which includes conferring degrees.

3. Statement 3: Incorrect. The Supreme Court distinguished between religious education, which can promote communal harmony, and religious instruction, which is prohibited in state-recognized institutions under Article 28 of the Constitution. Article 28 specifically restricts religious instruction in institutions wholly maintained out of state funds, not promoting it.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has repatriated gold from the Bank of England and the Bank for International Settlements to reduce geopolitical risks.

2. As of September 2024, the total gold reserves held domestically by the RBI amount to 854.73 metric tonnes.

3. The repatriation of gold by the RBI aligns with a global trend of central banks strengthening national control over gold reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 21

1. Statement 1 is correct. The RBI has indeed repatriated gold from the Bank of England and the Bank for International Settlements to mitigate geopolitical risks. Repatriating gold reduces the risk of foreign sanctions or other restrictions that could limit access to these assets when stored abroad.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The total gold reserves held by the RBI amount to 854.73 metric tonnes, but this figure represents the total reserves, not just those held domestically. The amount held domestically as of September 2024 was specifically reported as 510.46 metric tonnes.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The repatriation of gold by the RBI is part of a broader global trend where central banks are moving to repatriate gold to increase national control over these important reserves. This trend has been observed over the past decade as countries seek to enhance their economic resilience and reduce reliance on foreign custodians.

The correct answer is therefore Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding mangrove ecosystems and their role in coastal resilience:

1. Mangroves can lower storm surge heights and reduce flooding by acting as natural buffers against cyclones.

2. The MISHTI Initiative announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 focuses on the conservation of mangroves in the Sundarbans exclusively.

3. Mangroves are capable of thriving in saline conditions due to adaptations such as aerial roots and waxy leaves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 22

1. Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves indeed play a crucial role in coastal resilience by acting as natural buffers against cyclones. They help to lower storm surge heights and reduce flooding, thus protecting coastal communities from severe damage. This is because their dense root systems can absorb and dissipate the energy of incoming waves and surges, significantly mitigating the impacts of cyclones.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MISHTI Initiative, as announced in the Union Budget 2023-24, is aimed at mangrove plantation along coastlines and salt pan areas across India, not exclusively in the Sundarbans. The initiative is a broader effort to enhance the mangrove cover along various coastal areas in the country to bolster disaster resilience and ecological health.

3. Statement 3 is correct: Mangroves are indeed adapted to thrive in saline conditions, which is why they are found in intertidal zones where freshwater meets saltwater. These adaptations include specialized aerial roots that allow them to breathe in waterlogged soil and waxy leaves that minimize water loss in the saline environment.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
1. MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and can be carried over to the next financial year if not utilized within the given period.
2. MPs can use MPLADS funds to undertake projects outside their constituencies to promote national unity, up to a specified limit annually.
3. MPLADS funds cannot be combined with any other central government schemes for project implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 23


- Statement 1 is correct: MPLADS funds are indeed non-lapsable, which means that if they are not fully utilized within a given financial year, the remaining funds can be carried over to the subsequent financial year. This helps ensure that MPs have the flexibility to manage their projects over a longer period if required.
- Statement 2 is correct: Members of Parliament are allowed to use up to Rs 25 lakh annually from MPLADS funds for projects outside their constituencies, specifically to promote national unity. This provision allows MPs to address issues of national importance beyond their immediate constituency boundaries.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: MPLADS funds can be combined with certain other central government schemes, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), to create durable assets. This integration allows for better resource utilization and project implementation.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is incorrect.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The MPLADS (Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme) violates the principle of separation of powers by allowing legislators to assume executive roles.

Statement-II:
MPLADS funds are frequently used to enhance existing assets rather than for the creation of new projects.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 24


Statement-I correctly points out that MPLADS is criticized for allowing MPs to assume roles that are more executive in nature, potentially violating the separation of powers. Statement-II is accurate in highlighting the issue that MPLADS funds are often redirected towards enhancing existing infrastructure rather than initiating new projects. While both statements are correct in their own right, they are not directly related or explanatory of each other, hence Option (B) is the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India's decision to repatriate gold reflects a shift towards enhanced economic resilience and risk mitigation.

Statement-II: Storing gold reserves abroad contributes significantly to India's international liquidity and economic stability.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 1st to 7th - Question 25

Statement-I correctly highlights that India's decision to repatriate gold aims at enhancing economic resilience and mitigating risks. By bringing back gold reserves, India reduces geopolitical risks, increases market confidence, and supports domestic financial markets. Statement-II accurately complements Statement-I by emphasizing that storing gold reserves abroad contributes significantly to India's international liquidity and economic stability. This is because having reserves in major global financial hubs ensures quick access to global markets, enhances economic resilience, and can serve as collateral for financial instruments, supporting India's capacity to meet international financial obligations. Thus, both statements are correct, with Statement-II providing a valid explanation for Statement-I, making option (a) the accurate choice.

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