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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Additional Study Material for UPSC - UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13

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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 1

Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) are related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 1

Justification: The APA Scheme was introduced in the Income-tax Act
in 2012 and the “Rollback” provisions were introduced in 2014.
• The scheme endeavours to provide certainty to taxpayers in the
domain of transfer pricing by specifying the methods of pricing
and setting the prices of international transactions in advance.
Learning: Transfer pricing happens when two companies that are part
of the same multinational group trade with each other. For example, if a
subsidiary company sells goods to a parent company, the cost of those
goods paid by the parent to the subsidiary is the transfer price.
• Transfer pricing often complicates tax matters as different entities
of the same company may be taxed at different rates (e.g. service
tax or cess may be different for tobacco or hotels, both in the
domain of ITC).
• Companies often try to evade taxes by showing lower profits in the
high taxation sector, to reduce tax burden.
• APAs avoid this by signing advance agreements regarding the
same.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 2

You are an intelligence officer and have been taken to an unknown location in Australia. The intelligence team back in India knows your longitude due to the time zone in which you have been captivated. You need to communicate only your latitude to the officers in India to help them evacuate you. You can know the latitude of your place by

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 2

Justification: Options B and C will remain constant irrespective of the
position from where you measure these values. So, you cannot determine
your latitude by these values.
Option A would have been helpful if you had been captivated in the
Northern hemisphere. Pole star is not visible from Southern hemisphere
(Australia), hence it is of no use to you.
None of the given options A, B or C is correct.
Learning: In ancient times, people used to determine directions during
the night with the help of stars.
The North star (Pole star) indicates the north direction. It always
remains in the same position in the sky.
Latitude is basically the angle of your place from the centre of the Earth
(equatorial position).

You can either find out this angle OR find out the angle of your place
with respect to the North Pole. Finding the latter is easier as Pole Star is
always found vertically above the North Pole.
If you can find your place’s angle from the Pole star (North Pole), just
subtract it from 90 degrees to arrive at your place’s latitude.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 223: Science 8th NCERT

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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 3

Consider the following statements about the IUCN World Conservation Congress.
1. It is the highest decision-making body of IUCN.
2. The IUCN Congress has a bearing on poverty alleviation.
3. It can be attended only by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) working for the environment.
4. This year’s Congress has been organized in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 3

Justification: Statement 1: Not the Congress, it is actually the
Members' Assembly which is the highest decision-making body of IUCN.
So, 1 is incorrect.
• It brings together IUCN Members to debate and establish
environmental policy, to approve the IUCN Programme and to
elect the IUCN Council and President.
Statement 2: The IUCN Congress 2016 is expected to set the course for
using nature based solutions to help move millions out of poverty,creating a more sustainable economy and restoring a healthier
relationship with our planet.
• Moreover, an attempt to improve environment can benefit the poor
as many are dependent on ecosystem services like clean water,
timber and non-timber produce from forests etc. So, 2 is clearly
correct.
Statement 3: Held once every four years, the IUCN World Conservation
Congress brings together several thousand leaders and decision-makers
from government, civil society, indigenous peoples, business, and
academia, with the goal of conserving the environment and harnessing
the solutions nature offers to global challenges.
Statement 4: The Congress will take place 1-10 September in the Hawaiʻi
Convention Center, in the Hawaiian capital, Honolulu.
Q Source: IUCN Congress (1-10 Sept, 2016): IUCN Website

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 4

The Wood’s Despatch 1854 came to India with which of the following objectives?
1. Deciphering ancient Indian texts to bring out their relevance to the modern society
2. To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants could be created.
3. To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians to increase production in India
4. Promote education free of cost in India
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 4

Justification: The Despatch had the following objectives in view:
• To impart Western knowledge, information about the western
culture to the Indians.
• To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants
could be created.
• To promote intellectual development and also raise the moral
character of the young generation.
• To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians people so
that more and more articles could be produced and also to create a
good market for consumption of those goods.
So, clearly statement 1 is wrong.
Statement 4: The Wood’s Despatch recommended the sanction of a
grant-in-aid system in the Indian educational system and argued that
schools must charge fees from their students. So, 4 is also incorrect.
Learning: Outlining the educational policy that was to be followed in
India, it emphasised once again the practical benefits of a system of
European learning, as opposed to Oriental One of the practical uses the
Despatch pointed to was economic.
• European learning, it said, would enable Indians to recognise the
advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce,
and make them see the importance of developing the resources of
the country.
• Introducing them to European ways of life, would change their
tastes and desires, and create a demand for British goods, for
Indians would begin to appreciate and buy things that were
produced in Europe.
• Following the 1854 Despatch, several measures were introduced by
the British. Education departments of the government were set up
to extend control over all matters regarding education. Steps were
taken to establish a system of university education Q Source: Improvisation: Page 98: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 5

The Biomolecule Sequencer experiment of NASA intends to demonstrate that
1. Independent genes can be preserved and harvested even in extreme situations where life may not be possible.
2. DNA sequencing is feasible in an orbiting spacecraft.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 5

Justification & Learning: NASA for the first time has successfully
sequenced DNA in space aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
• The genome sequencing was undertaken for the first time in
microgravity as part of the Biomolecule Sequencer experiment
performed by NASA astronaut Kate Rubins.
• It is not about survival of genes in extreme conditions, so 2 is
wrong.
• This experiment provides a way to sequence DNA in space which
can help astronauts to diagnose an illness.
• Besides, it will also help them identify microbes growing in the ISS
to determine whether or not they represent a health threat.
• The future explorers can potentially use the technology to identify
DNA-based life forms beyond Earth.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 6

Concerns over the use and production of Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) have been raised because
1. No known species of fungi or bacteria can degrade PET.
2. Manufacturing PET resin generates more toxic emissions of nickel and Benzene than in producing same amount of glass.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 6

Justification: It is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of
the polyester family and is used in fibres for clothing, containers for
liquids and foods, thermoforming for manufacturing, and in
combination with glass fibre for engineering resins.
Statement 1: At least one species of bacterium in the genus Nocardia can
degrade PET with an esterase enzyme.
Japanese scientists have isolated a bacterium Ideonella sakaiensis that
possesses two enzymes which can break down the PET into smaller
pieces that the bacterium can digest. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Manufacturing PET resin generates more toxic emissions
(nickel, ethyl benzene, ethylene oxide, benzene) than manufacturing
glass. Producing a 16 oz. PET bottle generates more than 100 times the
toxic emissions to air and water than making the same size bottle out of
glass.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 35: Science 8th NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 7

The Union Cabinet has recently approved the scheme for granting of Permanent Residency Status (PRS) to foreign investors. Under the status
1. Foreign investors will be granted temporary Indian citizenship for the term of their investment in India.
2. Non-repatriable foreign investment will be considered as domestic investment in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 7

Justification: Statement 1: The Residency scheme is not a citizenship
scheme for the foreign investors. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: The treatment of Non-repatriable foreign investment as
domestic investment applies only to NRIs. Non-repatriable is any
investment that is not made with the intention of taking it back to the
home country. The investment is permanent in a sense.
Learning: The scheme will be applicable only to foreign investors
fulfilling the prescribed eligibility conditions and also his spouse and
dependents.
• The foreign investment should result in generating employment to
at least 20 resident Indians every financial year.
• The scheme is expected to encourage foreign investment in India
and facilitate Make in India Programme.
Benefits of Permanent Residency Status:
• Initially, PRS will be granted for a period of 10 years with multiple
entry facility, which can be renewed for another 10 years.

• It will serve as a multiple entry visa without any stay stipulation
and the PRS holders will be exempted from the registration
requirements.
• For dwelling purpose, PRS holders will be allowed to purchase one
residential property.
• Their spouse and dependents will be also allowed to undertake
studies in India and take up employment in private sector.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 8

The Central government has a constitutional duty to protect states against
1. External aggression and internal disturbance
2. Failure of Constitutional machinery
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 8

Justification: Statement 1: This is a provision under A355 of the
constitution. It says, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every
State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure
that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of this Constitution.”
Statement 2: President’s Rule is applied under this case under Article
A356 of the Constitution.
It can also be applied when the state government has wilfully disobeyed
the directions of the Central government and disturbed the
constitutional distribution of executive power.

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 9

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has been designated under the Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008 to serve as the national agency to perform which of the following functions?
1. Approving the commercial plans of Internet Service providers (ISPs)
2. Forecast and provide alerts of cyber security incidents
3. Regulating the mergers and acquisitions of Internet Service Providers to maintain service quality 
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 9

Justification: Statement 1: It has not role in overseeing the commercial
or the financial aspects of ISPs in India. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 3: Overseeing the mergers of companies in India comes
under the jurisdiction of the Competition Commission of India (CCI). So,
3 is also incorrect.
Learning: It performs the following functions in the domain of cyber
security:
• Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber
incidents
• Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
• Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
• Coordination of cyber incident response activities

• Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and whitepapers
relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention,
response and reporting of cyber incidents
Q Source: Improvisation: Union Cabinet apprises MoU between CERTIn
and CERT-UK: PIB

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 10

How will the SAUNI (Saurastra Narmada Avataran Irrigation) Yojana be beneficial to the corresponding regions?
1. It will increase the water availability in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
2. The huge acrage of land acquired by the developers under the project will be used to establish Central Agricultural Universities.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 10

Justification: Statement 1: SAUNI is a ‘linking’ project where dams in
the Saurashtra region will be filled with excess water from the Sardar
Sarovar dam thus reducing water issues in the Saurashtra region. So, 1 is
correct.
Statement 2: SAUNI project involves making pipe canals instead of the
conventional open canals which has led to no acquisition of land for the
project. Since no land is acquired, statement 2 is incorrect.
This also reduces evaporation and seepage loss of the canal water thus
increasing the availability of water.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 11

As per the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) signed recently between India and the United States 

1. India will form a military alliance with USA and obliged to supply its armed forces for extended operations in the event of a call by USA.
2. United States is obliged to supply cutting-edge technology to India which is presently available only to its closest allies.
3. The agreement explicitly provides for establishment of USA military bases in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 11

Justification: Statement 1: LEMOA does not create any obligations on
either Party to carry out any joint activity, nor does it oblige the parties
to supply troops in case of a requirement by the other party. So, 1 will
clearly be wrong.
Statement 2: USA has already declared India a major defence partner,
but not a “strategic” defence partner status which is enjoyed by its closest
allies obliging the USA to share cutting-edge technology with them. Since
India is not a strategic partner, 2 will be wrong.
Statement 3: It does not provide for the establishment of any bases or
basing arrangements, as clarified by the Minister of Defence. So, 3 is
wrong.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 12

The “Sovereignty” of India means
1. No external power can dictate the government of India.
2. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.
3. There is absolute freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
4. All citizens have equal economic rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 12

Justification: Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes
its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency
dictates terms to India. So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the
framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might very
well discriminate between its citizens, for e.g. as Pakistan does with all
non-Muslims.
Statement 3: Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. A
sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an
absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
Statement 4: This is only possible in an economic democracy.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 3: Democratic Politics - I

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 13

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) will be helpful as
1. It eliminates the need to exchange sensitive information about bank account numbers during a financial transaction.
2. It allows sharing of a bill among peers.
3. It allows customers to send and receive money directly from their smartphones.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 13

Justification: UPI is a flagship product of NPCI that will help India to
move towards a cashless economy. It is a set of standard Application
Programming Interface (APIs).
Statement 1 and 3: It facilitates ‘virtual address’ as a single payment
identifier for sending and collecting money and works on single click 2
factor authentication.
So, money can be sent using smartphones using the virtual address
without entering the bank account details. So, 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement 2: It merges several banking features, seamless fund routing
and merchant payments into one hood. Thus, it will be a single app for
accessing different bank accounts. It also provides an option for
scheduling push and pull transactions for various purposes like sharing
bills among peers.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 14

“Patola” is a style of

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 14

Learning: Patola saris are a double ikat woven sari, usually made from
silk, made in Patan, Gujarat.
They are very expensive, once worn only by royalty and the aristocracy,
they are popular and in demand from the affluent.
They are so unique that they are the geographical indication tags for
Gujarat as Patan Patolas and Andhra Pradesh as Bhoodan Pochampally.

Q Source: Page 80: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.
1. William Jones was the founder of Asiatic Society of Bengal and started a journal Asiatik Researchers.
2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke was associated with Royal Asiatic Society and Royal Astronomical Society.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 15

Jones and Colebrooke came to represent a particular
attitude towards India. They shared a deep respect for ancient cultures,
both of India and the West.
Statement 1: In 1784 he founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal to
encourage Oriental studies. He himself took up Sanskrit, to equip
himself for the preparation of a vast digest of Hindu and Muslim law.
Statement 2: He has been described as "the first great Sanskrit scholar
in Europe"
• He was a director of the Royal Asiatic Society, and many of the
papers in the society's Transactions were communicated by him. In
1822 he was elected the second president of the Royal
Astronomical Society.
• After eleven years' residence in India, Colebrooke began the study
of the Sanskrit language; and to him was entrusted the translation
of the major Digest of Hindu Laws, a monumental study of Hindu
law which had been left unfinished by Sir William Jones.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 96: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 16

The Aligarh movement laid great stress on

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 16

Learning: Sir Syed launched the Aligarh Movement of which Aligarh
was the center.
He had two immediate objectives in mind: to remove the state of
misunderstanding and tension between the Muslims and the new British
government, and to induce them to go after the opportunities available
under the new regime without deviating in any way from the
fundamentals of their faith.
The Aligarh Movement had other objectives also such as:
• To persuade Muslims to learn English education.
• To persuade Muslims to abstain from politics of agitation. So,
option D is incorrect.
• To produce an intellectual class from amongst the Muslim
community.
• To bring a social and cultural reform amongst the Muslim
community.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 120: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 17

Which of the following type of bills can be passed in a joint sitting of the Parliament? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 17

Learning: Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the Houses. But
if there is a difference between the two Houses, the final decision is taken
in a joint session in which members of both the Houses sit together.
Because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha is
likely to prevail in such a meeting.
But, Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok
Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related
law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it
by 14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not
accept these changes. There is no provision for joint sitting in such cases.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Democratic Politics-I

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 18

Consider the following about the Non-Aligned Movement.
1. It was established in 1961 in Belgrade as the Conference of Heads of State or Government of Non-Aligned Countries.
2. The movement ended after the end of Cold War.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 18

Justification: Statement 1: The organization was founded in Belgrade
in 1961, and was largely conceived by India's first prime minister,
Jawaharlal Nehru; Indonesia's first president, Sukarno; Egypt's second
president, Gamal Abdel Nasser; Ghana's first president Kwame
Nkrumah; and Yugoslavia's president, Josip Broz Tito.
All five leaders were prominent advocates of a middle course for states in
the Developing World between the Western and Eastern Blocs in the
Cold War.
Statement 2: Because the Non-Aligned Movement was formed as an
attempt to thwart the Cold War, it has struggled to find relevance since
the Cold War ended. Belarus is the only member of the Movement in
Europe.
As the world has become more polarised between USA and China, hardly
any nation has been able to keep itself aloof from involving itself with
these major powers.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 170: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 19

Which of the following correctly show the difference(s) in the views of Tagore and Gandhi with regards to education?
1. Gandhiji was highly critical of Western civilisation, whereas Tagore wanted to borrow the good elements of Western education.
2. Gandhiji was supportive of education via arts and music, whereas Tagore did not consider them crucial in education. 

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 19

Justification: Statement 1: In many senses Tagore and Mahatma
Gandhi thought about education in similar ways.
There were, however, differences too. Gandhiji was highly critical of
Western civilisation and its worship of machines and technology. Tagore
wanted to combine elements of modern Western civilisation with what
he saw as the best within Indian tradition.
Statement 2: Tagore emphasised the need to teach science and
technology at Santiniketan, along with art, music and dance. Tagore was
of the view that creative learning could be encouraged within a natural
environment. So, clearly 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Page 105: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 20

Which of the following describes “Thuni” most appropriately?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 20

Learning: It is one of the major festivals celebrated by the Chakhesang
tribe, predominantly by the Poumai Chakhesang from the Razeba area.
• For the Poumai community in Manipur, Thuni is a premier festival
of new harvest.
• It is celebrated from January 5th every year and continues for
several days.
• Most importantly, Thuni is a festival of equity when both the rich
and the poor; the old and the young share from the same barrel of
rice beer and eat the same food.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 11: Harvest Festivals: Science 8th
NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 21

Lactobacillus species of bacteria are useful in
1. Antibacterial and antifungal applications
2. Controlled fermentation of some food products
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 21

Justification: Statement 1: The antibacterial and antifungal activity of
Lactobacillus species relies on production of bacteriocins and low
molecular weight compounds that inhibits these microorganisms.
For e.g. Lactobacillus species produce hydrogen peroxide which inhibits
the growth and virulence of the fungal pathogen Candida albicans in
vitro and in vivo.
Statement 2: Some Lactobacillus species are used as starter cultures in
industry for controlled fermentation in the production of yogurt, cheese,
sauerkraut, pickles, beer, cider, kimchi, cocoa, kefir, and other fermented
foods, as well as animal feeds.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 19: Science 8th NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 22

The Congress split in 1907 on the issue of

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 22

Learning: The Congress split in 1907. The Moderates were opposed to
the use of boycott. They felt that it involved the use of force. However,
the extremists insisted on the use of mass boycott movements, protests
and strikes to make a point against the British.
After the split the Congress came to be dominated by the Moderates with
Tilak’s followers functioning from outside.
The two groups reunited in December 1915. Next year the Congress and
the Muslim League signed the historic Lucknow Pact and decided to
work together for representative government in the country
Q Source: Page 146: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 23

Strait of Hormuz lies sandwiched between

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 23

Learning: It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the
open ocean and is one of the world's most strategically important choke
points (between Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman).
About 20% of the world's petroleum (about 35% of the petroleum traded
by sea) passes through the strait, making it a highly important strategic
location for international trade

Q Source: South Asia and West Asia maps

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 24

Consider the following about Blue-Green Algae.
1. They are a group of photosynthetic bacteria.
2. Warm and nutrient rich water promote their growth.
3. They are a “keystone species” throughout the Arabian and Indian Ocean.
4. Excessive growth of Blue-green algae can deplete the amount of oxygen in the water and threaten aquatic life.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 24

Justification: Statement 1: Cyanobacteria, formerly called "blue-green
algae" are relatively simple, primitive life forms closely related to
bacteria. Typically much larger than bacteria, they photosynthesize like
algae. Depending upon the species, cyanobacteria can occur as single
cells, filaments of cells, or colonies.
Statement 2: Nutrient-rich bodies of water such as some lakes or ponds
may support rapid growth of cyanobacteria. With the right conditions, a
"clear" body of water can become very turbid with green, blue-green or
reddish-brown colored algae within just a few days. High concentrations
of an alga species in a water body form "blooms."
Statement 3: Blue-green algae, like true algae, make up a portion of the
phytoplankton in many water bodies. However, blue-green algae are
generally not eaten by other aquatic organisms, and thus are not an
important part of the food chain.
“Keystone species” are crucial parts of the food chain; without them
there will be a partial collapse of the food chain. So, 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: Blue-green algae blooms can alter lake ecosystems by:
• reducing oxygen levels
• preventing the growth of beneficial algae
• producing toxins that are directly harmful to fish and other
organisms
People may become ill after swimming or water skiing in lakes with toxic
blue-green algae.
Q Source: Improvisation: Fig. 2.7 : The Nitrogen fixing blue green
algae: Page 22: Science 8th NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 25

Consider the following statements about the Committee on Agriculture (COAG) of the FAO.
1. It is one of FAO’s Governing Bodies.

2. It is authorized to review and dismantle trade tariffs and quotas imposed by member nations related to agricultural products.
3. It was founded along with the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 25

Justification: Statement 1: The body provides overall policy and
regulatory guidance on issues relating to agriculture, livestock, food
safety, nutrition, rural development and natural resource management
in FAO.
Statement 2: It has no such authority and it does not concern itself with
agricultural trade regulation. It instead reviews major agricultural and
nutritional problems and proposes concerted action by FAO’s Member
Nations.
Statement 3: Established in 1971 (WTO in 1995), the Committee has over
100 Member Nations and generally meets every two years, but may hold
additional sessions if needed.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 26

Which of the following play a role in the Nitrogen cycle on earth?
1. Blue-green algae
2. Lightning
3. Uptake of soil nutrients by plants
4. Terrestrial Food chain

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 26

Justification: Nitrogen is one of the essential constituents of all living
organisms as part of proteins, chlorophyll, nucleic acids and vitamins.
• The atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly by plants and
animals.
Statement 1: Certain bacteria and blue green algae present in the soil fix
nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert into compounds of nitrogen
Statement 2: Lightning also fixes atmospheric nitrogen (role shown in
the diagram).
Statement 3 and 4: Nitrogen is one of the essential constituents of all
living organisms as part of proteins, chlorophyll, nucleic acids and
vitamins.
• The atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly by plants and
animals. Once nitrogen is converted into these usable compounds,
it can be utilised by plants from the soil through their root system.
• Nitrogen is then used for the synthesis of plant proteins and other
compounds. Animals feeding on plants get these proteins and
other nitrogen compounds.
• When plants and animals die, bacteria and fungi present in the soil
convert the nitrogenous wastes into nitrogenous compounds to be
used by plants again. Certain other bacteria convert some part of
them to nitrogen gas which goes back into the atmosphere.
• As a result, the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere remains
more or less constant.
Q Source: Page 27: Fig. 2.10: Nitrogen cycle: Science 8th NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 27

Consider the following about Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA).
1. The Act can be used to call off worker’s strikes both in public and private sector if it disrupts essential services.
2. Only the Central government can order restoration of essential services in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 27

Justification: The Act includes a long list of “essential services” in its
charter - ranging from post and telegraph, through railway, airport and
port operations - and it prohibits the key employees in these services
from striking.
The Act also allows states to enact their own ESMA and choose the
essential services on which to enforce Esma.
Statement 2: Although it is Central law, its execution can be done by the
State governments and UT governments too. For e.g. Delhi government
has invoked the ESMA to declare a nurse’s strike illegal.
Recently the AP government declared IT to be an essential service, which
allows it to call off illegitimate strikes in the IT sector.

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 28

Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas which consists of

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 28

Learning: Gasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air
and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4),
carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water
vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are
primarily for electricity generation
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various
purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or
upgrading fossil fuels.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 58: Science 8th NCERT

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 29

Arrange the following regions/locations in West Asia from West to East.
1. Azerbaijan
2. Ashgabat
3. Tel Aviv
4. Damascus
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 29

Justification: Tel Aviv is in Israel, whereas Damascus is in Syria.
Damascus lies to the east of Tel Aviv. So, 4 must come after 3. Rest
should be clear from the map.
All these places have been in news for some or the other reason and
important, for e.g. Ashgabat transport agreement.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: West Asia

UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 30

One and a half degree channel lies closest to which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 - Question 30

Justification: You can guess the location of the channel by its latitude
itself, which logically should be closest to Maldives. This is because
Indian Territory starts nearly from 8 degrees north and SL follows close
by. So, A and B can be eliminated.
Myanmar lies much above SL, and so option D can also be eliminated.
Learning: There are broad channels between the Atolls of the Maldives
with varying deepness and broadness.
Huvadhu Kandu or Suvadiva Channel (one and a half degree) is the
broad channel that separates the northern and central Maldives from the
southern atolls and is one of the broadest channels between the atolls of
Maldives.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: South Asia

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