UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 20 - UPSC MCQ

Statement 1 is correct: The basis of the modern postal system was laid down under Lord Dalhousie. As a result of the findings of an expert commission, a new Post Office Act was passed in 1854. Under the new system a Director-General was appointed to superintend the work of Post Offices in all the Presidencies; a uniform rate of half an anna per letter, irrespective of the distance over which it might be sent was introduced; postage stamps were issued for the first time.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Caste Disabilities Removal Act of 1850 modified Hindu customs. A change of religion did not debar a son from inheriting the property of his heathen father. It was seen as act of promoting conversions to Christianity.

As per The recent Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, term of office and salary of CIC will be notified by Central Government.

Pair 1 is correctly matched: At Bareilly, Khan Bahadur Khan had proclaimed himself the Nawab Nazim during the revolt of 1857.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mutiny Court or the Military and Civil Management Committee with General Bakht Khan as President was set up in Delhi early in July 1857.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Nana Sahib, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, assumed leadership in Kanpur while Begum Hazrat Mahal took control over Lucknow.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Begum Hazrat Mahal took control over Lucknow while Khan Bahadur Khan took over leadership in Rohilkhand.

Gross investments have risen in absolute terms in the last 4 years. It has declined in terms of percentage of GDP.

Gross Domestic savings has decreased since 2011-12, but has shown signs of rise in 2017-18. As per Economic survey 2018-19:

• Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary system of government in the states similar to the that of the Union.
• The council of ministers headed by the chief minister is the real executive authority in the state.
• Two important articles in this regard are:
1. Article 163 - deals with the status of the council of ministers
2. Article 164
• Deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualifications, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
• The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Deputy CM
1. At times, the council of ministers may also include a deputy chief minister. However, the post of Deputy Chief Minister does not find mention in the Constitution. It is based upon the discretion of the Chief Minister and not backed by any statute or act. Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. The deputy chief ministers are appointed mostly for local political reasons. They are also appointed by Governor. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• There is no limitation as to how many Deputy CMs can be appointed. Recently In Uttar Pradesh, two Deputy CMs have been appointed. In Karnataka, three Deputy CMs have been appointed.

Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through 5 states:  Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

An absolute right is a legally enforceable right; a right to act or refuse to act that is at the sole discretion of the person possessing the right. Such a right is completely enforceable as written in the constitution and no other legal or extralegal process can infringe on that right. An example being Article 17 which abolishes untouchability. It is an absolute right because this right cannot be infringed by any other law or force, come what may.
A qualified right is where the state can lawfully interfere under certain circumstances as laid down in the constitution or as the need maybe. Article 19, freedom of speech is a qualified right. Citizens have freedom of speech & expression but subject to conditions like contempt of court, public decency, defamation, national security and so on as so forth.

Statement 1 is correct: Madame H.P. Blavatsky laid the foundation of Theosophical Society in the United States in 1875. Mrs. Annie Besant became its President in 1907. The Society accepts the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation, karma and draws inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya, Yoga and Vedanta school of thought.
Statement 2 is correct: For its Philosophy, the Theosophical Movement came to be allied with Hindu Renaissance.

Biodiversity is not found evenly on the earth. It is consistently richer in the tropics, which is the result of the warm climate, adequate sunlight and higher evenly distributed rainfall. tropical forest ecosystems cover less than 10 percent of earth's surface, and contain about 90 percent of the world's species.
As one approaches polar regions one finds larger and larger populations of fewer and fewer species.
Biodiversity is a system in constant evolution, from a view point of species, as well as from the viewpoint of an individual organism. The average half-life of a species is estimated at between one and four million years, and 99 per cent of the species that have ever lived on earth are today extinct. 

• The constitutional provisions which deal with matter of privy purse are Articles 291 and 362. Article 291 guarantees payment of privy purse from the Consolidated Fund of India in accordance with covenants or agreements entered into with rulers of Indian States before the commencement of the Constitution and also exempts these sums from income-tax. The Article 362 guarantees the rights and privileges of the exrulers. The practise of privy purse done away with passing of 26th Amendment to the Constitution of India in 1971. The then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi, argued the case for abolition based on equal rights for all citizens and the need to reduce the Government‘s revenue deficit.
• In Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court had laid down some guidelines for the imposition of President‘s Rule in a state under Article 356. In the same case SC declared Secularism as one of the basic features of the Constitution. On the basis of this, a state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
• Originally, the Constitution mentioned internal disturbance‘ as the third ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague and had a wider connotation. Hence, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the words armed rebellion‘ for internal disturbance. Thus,it is no longer possible to declare a National Emergency on the ground of internal disturbance‘ as was done in 1975 by the Congress government headed by Indira Gandhi. Hence, option a is correct. 

Statement 1 is correct : Bioaccumulation refers to how pollutants enter the food chain and food web. Bioaccumulation occurs when an organism absorbs a substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion.
Statement 2 is correct : Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. There is an increase in the concentration of the pollutant from one link of the food chain to the next link.
Statement 3 is correct : For biomagnification to occur the pollutant must be long lived, mobile and soluble in fat. If the pollutant is soluble in water it may be excreted out of the organism. Fat soluble pollutant gets deposited in fat tissues of the organism.

Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) came into existence in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal act 2010.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the mainstream code of civil procedure.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
About NGT:
● The National Green Tribunal (NGT) came into existence in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal act 2010.
● The act provides for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
● The tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the mainstream code of civil procedure.
● The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
● The tribunal has five places of sittings with New Delhi as the Principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
Composition:
● The Tribunal comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
● The chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
● Judicial and expert members are appointed on recommendations by the Selection Committee.
Qualifications:
● Chairperson: A person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or Chief Justice of the High Court.
● Judicial Member: A person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court
● Expert Member: Qualification and experience in relevant scientific and technological field or practical experience in dealing with environmental matters.
Jurisdiction:
The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these include:
● The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1974,
● The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act,1977
● The Forest (Conservation) Act,1980,
● The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1981
● The Environment (Protection) Act,1986
● The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
● The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
The Wildlife (Protection) Act,1972 and Scheduled Tribes and Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 have been kept out of NGT’s jurisdiction.

Statement 1 is correct: The Ryotwari experiment was started by Alexander Reed in Baramahal in 1792 and was continued by Thomas Munro from 1801.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Ryotwari Settlement, the cultivator was to be recognised as the owner of his plot of land subject to the payment of land revenue.
Statement 3 is not correct: The settlement under the Ryotwari system was not made permanent. It was revised periodically after 20 to 30 years.

The thermocline layer lies below the first layer and is characterised by rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth. The thermocline is 500 -1,000 m thick. In polar regions, including southern ocean, it is almost non-existent as the water column is cold from the surface to the bottom. It is variable in temperate regions depending on season.
The maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces because they directly receive the heat from the sun and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through the process of convection. 
The first layer represents the top layer of warm oceanic water and it is about 500m thick with temperatures ranging between 20° and 25° C. This layer, within the tropical region, is present throughout the year but in mid latitudes it develops only during summer.
The second layer is the thermocline layer.
The third layer is very cold and extends upto the deep ocean floor. In the Arctic and Antarctic circles, the surface water temperatures are close to 0° C and so the temperature change with the depth is very slight. Here, only one layer of cold water exists, which extends from surface to deep ocean floor.

• Civil Services Board
1. They are mandated by the Supreme Court in Shri T.S.R. Subramanian Vs Union of India Case, 2013
2. It directed the Centre, State Governments and the Union Territories to constitute Civil Services Boards (CSB) with high ranking serving officers, who are specialists in their respective fields. It is established to consider the postings, transfers, and promotions of civil servants.
3. It is under the purview of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions. Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
4. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

Statement 1 is correct. The Independence for India League was set up by Subhash Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru after they were disappointed by the provision of the grant of dominion status demanded by the Nehru Report.
Statement 2 is correct. The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), was founded on Oct. 31, 1920 by the efforts of NM Joshi, Joseph Baptista, Lala Lajpat Rai and others. It was influenced by the Social Democratic ideas of British labour party. The first session of AITUC was held in Mumbai. Lala Lajpat Rai was the President and Diwan Chaman Lal was the Secretary.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In the 1931 session of the Congress at Karachi, the Congress adopted the Gandhi Irwin Pact.

Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: Home charges refer to the expenditure incurred in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of India.
Constituents of Home Charges were:
(a) Dividend to the shareholders of the East India Company.
(b) Interest on Public Debt raised abroad.
(c) Civil and Military charges which included payments towards pensions and furloughs of British officers in the civil and military departments in India; expenses on India Office establishment in London; payments to the British war office etc.
(d) Store purchases in England for the Military, Civil and Marine Departments in the English market.
Statement 3 is not correct: Interest and profits on private foreign capital were another important leakage from the national income stream and part of economic drain but not part of home charges.

Statement 1 is correct. Cartosat-3 satellite is a third-generation agile advanced satellite having high-resolution imaging capability.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Potential uses of the Cartosat-3 satellite include weather mapping, cartography or army defence, and strategic applications. It will not be used for communication purposes.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The satellites would be launched by India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C47 into a Sun Synchronous Orbit. PSLV-C47 is the 21st flight of PSLV in ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors).

Statement 1 is correct. An ecotone refers to a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems (biomes). For example: the mangrove ecosystem represents an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem.  It has conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
Statement 2 is correct. An ecotone is a transition zone where two communities meet and integrate; it may be narrow (between grassland and forest) or wide (between forest and desert). One such example is the mangrove region, which is an ecotone between coastal and terrestrial ecosystems.
Statement 3 is incorrect.Generally, there is a greater number of species found in ecotones and this is called edge effect. The species found here are called edge species. 

• Statement 1 is not correct: According to article 118 of the Indian constitution, the Presi dent, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People, is responsible for making rules regarding procedure with respect to joint sittings.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Speaker is looked upon as the true guardian of the traditions of parliamentary democracy. However, it is not mandatory for the speaker to resign from his party upon joining his office. In Britain, speakers remain strictly non-partisan and renounce all affiliation with their former political parties when taking office and afterward.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The speaker can suspend a member of the Lok Sabha without calling for adoption of motion. He may invoke Rule 374A of the Lok Sabha's rules of procedure and conduct of business in case of grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House or persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise. In such a case, the member concerned, on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.

Option a is incorrect data on electricity generation figures from renewable sources is included in the Electricity generation data to calculate IIP.
Option b is incorrect and option d is correct: Petroleum Refinery Products (weight: 28.04 per cent) has the highest weightage.
Option c is incorrect: Natural gas is among the eight core industries on the index. 
8 core industries in IIP are:
1. Coal production (weight: 10.33 per cent)
2. Crude Oil production (weight: 8.98 per cent)
3. Natural Gas production (weight: 6.88 per cent)
4. Petroleum Refinery Products (weight: 28.04 per cent)
5. Fertilizers production (weight: 2.63 per cent)
6. Steel production (weight: 17.92 per cent)
7. Cement production (weight: 5.37 per cent)
8. Cement production (weight: 5.37 per cent)

The relationship between tax rates and tax revenue can be studied through Laffer curve. It explains how gradual reduction in tax rates from high levels or increase in tax levels from low levels to an optimum rate can maximize tax revenue collection for the government. Laffer curve is mostly applicable in direct taxes like personal income tax.

It says that both at zero percent tax rate and 100 per cent tax rate, tax revenue will be zero. At 100 per cent tax rate, all income goes to the government and nobody will work; producing zero income and zero tax revenue. At the optimum tax rate tax revenue can be the maximum.
It is widely believed that India is on the Laffer curve.
Thus, starting from a low tax rate and gradually increasing it, is positively related and increases tax revenue. However, beyond a level, any increase in tax rates becomes counterproductive as it lowers tax revenue rather than increasing it. This is because high tax rates lead to tax evasion, non-disclosure of income and generation of black money (taxes not paid). People will make all kinds of efforts to minimize the incidence of taxes legally and illegally. It will serve as a disincentive in the economy leading to lowering of income and the output.

Statement 1 is not correct: G-Secs can be sold easily in the secondary market to meet cash requirements. G-Sec prices are readily available due to liquid and active secondary market and a transparent price dissemination mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct: G-Secs can be used as collateral to borrow funds in the repo market.
Statement 3 is correct: They can be held in book entry, i.e., dematerialized/ scripless form, thus, obviating the need for safekeeping. They can also be held in physical form.
Statement 4 is correct: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI. Auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called the e-Kuber, the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform of RBI. 

‘Skewflation’ is a phenomenon in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a sustained period of time.
Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment, or economic stagnation, accompanied by rising prices, or inflation. It can also be defined as inflation and a decline in gross domestic product (GDP). 
Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which the average price level of a basket of selected goods and services in an economy increases over a period of time. It is the constant rise in the general level of prices where a unit of currency buys less than it did in prior periods. Often expressed as a percentage, inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of a nation’s currency.
Reflation is a fiscal or monetary policy designed to expand output, stimulate spending, and curb the effects of deflation, which usually occurs after a period of economic uncertainty or a recession. The term may also be used to describe the first phase of economic recovery after a period of contraction.

• The criteria for leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha was spelt out initially by GV Mavalankar, the first Lok Sabha speaker. He had ruled in the Lok Sabha that the strength of the main Opposition party, to be officially recognised as such, must be equal to the quorum of the house which is equivalent to 10 per cent of the members.
• Subsequently, the statutory definition of the leader of opposition, however, came with the Salary and Allowances of Leader of Opposition Act of 1977. It said the Leader of Opposition will be from the Opposition party having the greatest numerical strength and recognised as such by the Lok Sabha Speaker or the Rajya Sabha Chairperson in the respective houses. While this act did not set the 10 per cent condition but Mavalankar‘s was a ruling of the Speaker and was enforceable as law. Mavalankar rule was finally incorporated in Direction 121(1) in Parliament (Facilities) Act 1998. This rule remains unchanged. Consequently, leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha must be from a opposition party having at least 10 percent of the seats in the house and recognized as such by the Lok Sabha Speaker. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha is a member of committees entrusted with the responsibility of selecting Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), Chief Information Commissioner (CIC), Director of CBI and Lokpal. In addition, the committees for selection of CVC and CIC also provide for the inclusion of the leader of the largest opposition party in case there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were recognized for the first time in the year 1969. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The Indian Independence Act was based on the Mountbatten plan of June 3; it was passed by the British parliament on July 5, 1947 and received royal assent on July 18, 1947. It provided for two dominion states: India and Pakistan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
As per the provisions of the Act, Lord Mountbatten was the first Governor General of India, whereas Mohammad Ali Jinnah became the first Governor General of Pakistan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
It proposed to set up a boundary commission to determine the boundary between two dominions of India and pakistan, which was setup under the chairmanship of Sir Cyril Radcliffe. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The June 3 plan was also known as the Mountbatten Plan. The British government proposed a plan announced on June 3, 1947, that included these principles:
1. Principle of the partition of British India was accepted by the British Government
2. Successor governments would be given dominion status
3. autonomy and sovereignty to both countries
4. can make their own constitution

Statement 1 is correct: CRR is a monetary policy tool used to control the liquidity of finances in the banking system and is set according to the guidelines stated by the RBI.
Statement 2 is not correct: Banks do not earn any return on money reserved as CRR.
Statement 3 is not correct: The share of a commercial bank’s total deposit which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates to be maintained at the respective bank in the form of liquid cash is known as Cash Reserve Ratio. The CRR requires every commercial bank to maintain only cash reserves with the RBI.

Statement c is incorrect : Delhi proposals proposed joint electorate with reservation for muslims
Nehru report:
The Nehru Report, 1928 was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This committee was created when Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India asked the Indian leaders to draft a constitution for the country.
Nehru report Recommendations:

• Dominion status
• No separate electorates, but joint electorates with reserved seats for minorities.
• Linguistic provinces.
• Nineteen fundamental rights including equal rights for women, the right to form unions, and universal adult suffrage.
• Responsible government at the center and in provinces
• Full protection to cultural and religious interests of Muslims.
• Complete dissociation of state from religion

Delhi Proposals : In December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders met at Delhi at the Muslim League session and evolved four proposals for Muslim demands to be incorporated in the draft constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by the Madras session of the Congress (December 1927), came to be known as the ‘Delhi Proposals’. These were –

• Joint electorates in place of separate electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.
• One-third representation to Muslims in Central Legislative Assembly.
• Representation to Muslims in Punjab and Bengal in proportion to their population.
• Formation of three new Muslim majority provinces— Sindh, Baluchistan and North-West Frontier Province.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Government has assured that it will not allow any job losses as a result of consolidation of Public sector banks. But experts have argued that  in the long run it will decrease employment opportunities in the sector.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Merger will ensure larger scale of operations, better efficiency and lower operation cost. Consolidation will increase capital efficiency, apart from improving the ability of banks to recover bad loans and managing NPAs.

• A major portion of Part IX of the Constitution deals with structural empowerment of the PRIs but the real strength in terms of both autonomy and efficiency of these institutions is dependent on their financial position (including their capacity to generate own resources). In general, Panchayats in our country receive funds in the following ways:
1. Grants from the Union Government based on the recommendations of the Central Finance Commission as per Article 280 of the Constitution
2. Devolution from the State Government based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission as per Article 243-I. Hence statement 1 is correct.
3. Loans / grants from the State Government.
4. Programme-specific allocation under Centrally Sponsored Schemes and Additional Central Assistance. Hence statement 2 is correct.
5. Internal Resource Generation (tax and non-tax).
• Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein is a subject under the Union List in Schedule seven of the Constitution of India. It does not lie under the purview of the Panchayats. Hence statement 3 is not correct.