MCQ Online Test: Environment- 4 - UPSC MCQ

• The ecological pyramid deals with the relationship between the number of primary producers and consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of different orders. In the pyramid of biomass, individuals in each trophic level are weighed i.e., the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a particular time. For most ecosystems on land, the pyramid of biomass has a large base of primary producers with a smaller trophic level perched on top. In contrast, in many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form. So, statement 1 is correct.
• In a grassland ecosystem, the amount of grass (producers) is always high, followed by primary consumers (herbivores) that are less, the secondary consumers (carnivores) that are lesser and finally the top carnivore. Hence, the ecological pyramid will generally be upright. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• An energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic level. Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Ecological Succession: It is the process by which the composition and structure of a biological community evolve over time in response to the changing environmental conditions. This change is gradual and fairly predictable, orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical environment. So, statement 1 is correct.
• During ecological succession, some species colonize an area whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. So, statement 2 is correct.
• These changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and that is called a climax community. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Biodiversity is measured by two major components: Species richness and Species evenness.

• Species evenness: It is a measure of the relative abundances of species within a community. It is measured as the proportion of species at a given site, e.g. low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Species richness: It is the measure of the number of species found in a community
  1. Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem.
  2. Beta diversity: It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in amount of species between the ecosystems
  3. Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region. So, statement 2 is correct.

In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. Various reasons are proposed for this phenomenon, some important ones are (a) Speciation is generally a function of time. As tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification, (b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable, thus leading to promote niche specialization and lead to a greater species diversity etc. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

The term ‘biodiversity hotspot’ was coined by Norman Myers (1988). Conservation International in association with Myers introduced the following two strict quantitative criteria, for a region to qualify as a hotspot:

• It has to have lost ≥ 70% of its original native habitat. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemic. So, statement 2 is correct.

At present, there are 36 biodiversity rich areas in the world that have been qualified as hotspots.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Nutrient cycling: It refers to various cycles that keep the nutrients cycling so as to support life on the earth. Such nutrient cycles include the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle and the sulphur cycle etc. They are of two types: (a) gaseous and (b) sedimentary. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Gaseous cycles are generally perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients whereas in sedimentary cycles nutrients might get locked into sediments and are not always immediately available. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Primary Production

• It is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight or energy. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
• Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. So, statement 1 is correct.

Gross Primary Production (GPP)

• It is the total rate at which the radiant energy is stored by the process of photosynthesis in green plants. It can also be defined as the total amount of solar energy captured and stored in the form of organic substances by the green plants. This is also known as total photosynthesis or total assimilation. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Net primary productivity (NPP)

• From the gross primary productivity a part is utilized by the plants for its own metabolism.
• Net primary productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism that GPP = NPP + plant respiration

Secondary productivity

• It is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers. So, statement 3 is correct.
• The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, despite occupying about 70 percent of the surface, the productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest is on land. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Ex-situ conservation:

• It is literally an ‘off site’ conservation policy that involves techniques linking the transfer of an objective species, experiencing various threats, away from its native habitat to a much safer abode.
• This involves the conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated species. The strategies include the establishment of botanical gardens, zoos, conservation strands and genes, pollen, seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks. This requires knowledge of the genetic structure of population sampling techniques, methods of regeneration and maintenance of varietal gene pools particularly in cross-pollinated plants.
• Examples of Ex-situ conservation include Botanical Garden, Zoological Garden, Seed Bank or Gene Bank, Arboreta, Aquaria, Home garden, cryopreservation, etc.
• Biosphere reserve falls under the category of In-situ or on-site conservation.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Joint Forest Management

• It is a concept, which is based on the principle of rights of local communities in forests, a mechanism to manage the forest that is owned by the State but appropriated by local communities, also an approach involving the evolution of a very complex property rights regime to generate a sustainable interface between the Forest Department and the local community. So, statement 1 is correct.
• In the present form, it can be traced to the Arabari experiment during 1971-72 initiated by foresters in the state of West Bengal. This experiment provided strong feedback for the incorporation of the system in the National Forest Policy of 1988. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• As per the provisions of National Forest Policy 1988, the Government of India in 1990 outlined and conveyed to State Governments a framework for creating a massive people’s movement through the involvement of village committees for the protection, regeneration and development of degraded forest lands.
• The joint forest management program in the country is structured on the broad framework provided by the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• The program received a major boost when a JFM cell was created in August 1998 in the erstwhile Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF), to monitor the progress of JFM and act as a clearinghouse for information on JFM.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Ectotherms: These are cold-blooded animals. These are any animal whose regulation of body temperature depends on external sources, such as sunlight or a heated rock surface. The ectotherms include the fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and invertebrates. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Endotherms: These are warm-blooded animals. They maintain a constant body temperature independent of the environment. The endotherms primarily include birds and mammals; however, some fish are also endothermic. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Eurythermal and Stenothermal organisms: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures, they are called eurythermal. But, a vast majority of them are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures, such organisms are called stenothermal. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine to a large extent their geographical distribution. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Detritus food chains:

• The detritus food chain starts from the dead organic matter such as dead bodies of animals or fallen leaves, which are eaten by microorganisms and then followed by detritus feeding organisms (detritivores) and their predators. In a detritus food chain or food web, the energy comes from dead organic matter (i.e. detritus) instead of green producers. These food chains are less dependent on direct solar energy. For example, the food chain operating in the decomposing accumulated litter in a temperate forest ecosystem is a detritus food chain. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Unlike the grazing food chain, the detritus food chain produces a large amount of energy. This type of food chain ensures maximum utilization and minimum wastage of the available material. It is useful in the fixation of inorganic nutrients and utilizing them up to the maximum. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Detritus food chains and grazing food chains, under natural conditions, are not completely isolated from one another. For example, dead bodies of small animals that were once part of the grazing food chain become incorporated in the detritus food chain as do the faeces of grazing food animals. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Greenhouse Gases (GHGs): Atmospheric gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapor, etc. are capable of trapping the out-going infrared radiation from the earth‘s surface thereby causing the greenhouse effect. Hence these gases are known as greenhouse gases and the heating effect is known as the greenhouse effect. Global warming potential (GWP) is a measure of how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere up to a specific time horizon, relative to carbon dioxide.

• Carbon dioxide (CO₂)^-1
• Methane (CH₄)^-56
• Nitrous Oxide(N₂O)^-280
• Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆)^-1630 So, the correct order is 2-1-3-4.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the 194 countries who are parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010, as part of the Convention’s financial mechanism. It aims to deliver equal amounts of funding to mitigation and adaptation, while being guided by the Convention’s principles and provisions.

The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a critical element of the historic Paris Agreement. It is the world’s largest climate fund, mandated to support developing countries raise and realize their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) ambitions towards low-emissions, climate-resilient pathways. So, statement 1 is correct.

GCF is mandated to invest 50% of its resources to mitigation and 50% to adaptation in grant equivalent. At least half of its adaptation resources must be invested in the most climate vulnerable countries (SIDS, LDCs, and African States). The GCF programming strategy recognizes that we must scale up both mitigation and adaptation efforts. GCF aims to leverage synergies and minimize potential trade-offs between adaptation and mitigation. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Recently, the 14^th Conference of Parties (COP14) to United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was concluded in Greater Noida in India. In an unprecedented global campaign to save productive land, country parties have agreed to make the Sustainable Development Goal target of achieving land degradation neutrality by 2030 a national target for action. This year, India being the global host for COP 14 took over the COP Presidency from China for the next two years till 2021. COP 14 also adopted a landmark decision to buttress global efforts to better mitigate and manage the risks of drought and to build resilience. Attention was also drawn to the role; the private sector plays in land restoration going forward, including through promoting sustainable value chains, as well as the incentives that will draw them in, such as the regulation in support of innovation for sustainable land management and rewarding conservation, restoration and sustainable use of resources. So, both the statements are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

India’s INDC centre around the country’s policies and programmes for:

• Sustainable Lifestyles - To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
• Cleaner Economic Development - To adopt a climate friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
• Reducing Emission intensity of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) - To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 level. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Increasing the Share of Non-Fossil Fuel Based Electricity - To achieve about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030 with the help of transfer of technology and low-cost international finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF). So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Enhancing Carbon Sink (Forests) - To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. So, statement 3 is correct.
• Adaptation - To better adapt to climate change by enhancing investments in development programmes in sectors vulnerable to climate change, particularly agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health and disaster management.
• Mobilizing Finance - To mobilize domestic and new & additional funds from developed countries to implement the above mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the resource required and the resource gap.
• Technology Transfer and Capacity Building - To build capacities, create domestic framework and international architecture for quick diffusion of cutting-edge climate technology in India and for joint collaborative R&D for such future technologies.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified specific standards for the thermal power plants to control the emissions under "Environment (Protection) Amendment Rules, 2015'.

• Flue-gas desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants and from the emissions of other sulfur oxide emitting processes such as waste incineration. So, option (1) is correct.
• Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR) and Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system for controlling
• NOx emissions. Selective non-catalytic reduction (SNCR) is a post-combustion emissions control
• Technology for reducing NOx by injecting an ammonia type reactant into the furnace at a properly
• Determined location. So, option (2) is correct.
• Electro-Static Precipitators (ESPs) are to be deployed for control of particulate matter (PM) in thermal
• Power stations. So, option (3) is correct.
• Installation of cooling towers in order to change over to a closed cooling water system for controlling water consumption. Convert existing once-through-based condenser cooling (OTBCC) systems to recirculation type. So, option (4) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UNFCCC was opened for signature on 9 May 1992. It entered into force on 21 March 1994. The objective of the treaty is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system. The treaty itself set no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries. So, statement (1) is correct.

It contains no enforcement mechanisms. The treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the treaty provides a framework for negotiating specific international treaties (called "protocols") that may set binding limits on greenhouse gases. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Parties to it are classified as Annex-I, Annex-II and non-Annex countries.

• Annex-I countries: The Convention obliges them to reduce GHG emissions, to protect and to develop sinks and to report the measures they take to prevent climate change and data about GHG emissions. This category comprises 42 countries and the EU.
• Annex-II countries: These countries are obliged to transfer environment-friendly technologies to especially developing countries and take all necessary steps to encourage, facilitate, and finance access to these technologies on top of other responsibilities they have as Annex I countries. This category comprises 23 countries and the EU.
• Non-annex countries: These countries are encouraged to reduce GHG emissions, cooperate on research and technology, and protect sinks, but are not bound by other obligations like the Annex I and II countries. This category currently includes 154 countries. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

A team of researchers from IIT-Kharagpur has found that most cities in the country are turning into "urban heat islands" in all seasons during day and night. The study, "Anthropogenic forcing exacerbating the urban heat islands in India," noted that the relatively warmer temperatures in urban areas, compared to suburbs, have potential health hazards due to heat waves apart from pollution.

Urban Heat Islands

• An urban heat island (UHI) is where the temperature in a densely populated city is as much as 2 degrees higher than suburban or rural areas.
• The difference in temperature is noticed usually during the night and when winds are weak. The UHI is noticed when both the summer and winter seasons are at their peak.

Reasons behind the formation of Urban Heat Islands

• It happens because of the materials used for pavements, roads and roofs, such as concrete, asphalt (tar) and bricks, which are opaque, do not transmit light but have a higher heat capacity and thermal conductivity than rural areas, which have more open space, trees and grass. So, statement (1) is correct.
• Geometric effects are also a cause for UHI. The tall buildings within many urban areas provide multiple surfaces for the reflection and absorption of sunlight, increasing the efficiency with which urban areas are heated. This is called the "urban canyon effect."
• Another effect of buildings is the blocking of wind, which also inhibits cooling by convection and prevents pollutants from dissipating.
• Waste heat from automobiles, air conditioning, industry, and other sources also contributes to the UHI.

Impacts of Urban Heat Islands

• Due to this higher temperature in urban areas, the UHI increases the colonization of species that like warm temperatures, such as lizards and geckos. So, statement (2) is not correct.
• In addition, cities tend to experience heat waves which affect human and animal health, leading to heat cramps, sleep deprivation and increased mortality rates.
• UHIs also impact nearby water bodies, as warmer water (thanks to the pavements, rooftops and so on) is transferred from the city to drains in sewers, and released into nearby lakes and creeks, thus impairing their water quality.
• UHI also decreases air quality in the cities, thanks to industrial and automobile exhaust pollution, a higher extent of particulate matter, and greater amounts of dust than in rural areas. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

• The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention, is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste. So, pair (1) is correct.
• The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs). POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and are toxic to humans and wildlife. So, pair (2) is correct.
• The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to the importation of hazardous chemicals. The Convention promotes an open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans. So, pair (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

• The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was agreed to in 1985. The Montreal Protocol under the Vienna Convention (the Protocol) was agreed to in 1987. It established global monitoring and reporting on ozone depletion. It also created a framework for the development of protocols for taking more binding action. So, statement (1) is correct.
• Montreal Protocol entered into force on 26 August 1989. So, statement (2) is correct.
• The Montreal Protocol was established to phase out substances that deplete ozone. It was designed to stop the production and import of ozone-depleting substances and reduce their concentration in the atmosphere to help protect the earth's ozone layer.16 September is International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer. It celebrates the anniversary of the day the Montreal Protocol came into effect. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

• Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 supersede the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 for effective conservation and management of wetlands in the country. However, the 2017 rules, in the definition of wetland, do not include river channels, paddy fields, human-made water bodies/tanks specifically for drinking water purposes and structures specifically constructed for aquaculture, salt production, recreation, and irrigation purposes. So, statement (1) is not correct.
• The definition of wetlands and their inclusion is done by the respective state/ UT. The new rules, notified by the environment ministry, decentralize wetlands management by giving states powers to not only identify and notify wetlands within their jurisdictions but also keep a watch on prohibited activities. So, statement (2) is correct.
• As per the 2010 version of the rules, there was a Central Wetlands Regulatory Authority (CWRA) which will now be replaced by a national committee, with only an advisory role. Another major change is about the process of appeal against the decisions of wetland authorities. According to the 2010 rules, anyone aggrieved with the CWRA's decisions could have filed an appeal with the National Green Tribunal (NGT), but the new 2017 rules are silent on the appeal process. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c)