AILET Previous Year Question Paper - 2022 | CLAT Past Year Papers (2008-2024) PDF Download

 Page 1


 -1- 
 
Date of Exam. : 
Duration         : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks     : 150
Center’s Name   : ________________
Roll No.             : ________________
OMR Sheet No.  : ________________
Date of Birth     : ________________
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought.  Answer the questions 
as they are.  
 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be 
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer 
ALL the Questions.
 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For 
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one 
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN 
in the OMR Response Sheet.
  Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
  a)  Kolkata   b) Agra   c) Bhopal   d) Delhi 
   Right Method          Wrong Methods
  ———————         ————————————————————— 
      a   b    c   d           a    b    c    d      a    b    c    d      a    b   c   d   
             
 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above 
shall be considered wrong answer.
 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer 
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet 
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand 
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation 
of his/her candidature.
 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 
may have to face criminal prosecution. 
 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators 
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 
 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
?   
Page 2


 -1- 
 
Date of Exam. : 
Duration         : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks     : 150
Center’s Name   : ________________
Roll No.             : ________________
OMR Sheet No.  : ________________
Date of Birth     : ________________
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought.  Answer the questions 
as they are.  
 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be 
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer 
ALL the Questions.
 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For 
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one 
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN 
in the OMR Response Sheet.
  Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
  a)  Kolkata   b) Agra   c) Bhopal   d) Delhi 
   Right Method          Wrong Methods
  ———————         ————————————————————— 
      a   b    c   d           a    b    c    d      a    b    c    d      a    b   c   d   
             
 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above 
shall be considered wrong answer.
 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer 
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet 
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand 
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation 
of his/her candidature.
 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 
may have to face criminal prosecution. 
 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators 
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 
 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
?   
M
 
-2- 
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 14
B
Current Affairs and 
General Knowledge
30 51 – 80 15 – 18 
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38
Total Marks                                            150
Page 3


 -1- 
 
Date of Exam. : 
Duration         : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks     : 150
Center’s Name   : ________________
Roll No.             : ________________
OMR Sheet No.  : ________________
Date of Birth     : ________________
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought.  Answer the questions 
as they are.  
 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be 
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer 
ALL the Questions.
 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For 
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one 
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN 
in the OMR Response Sheet.
  Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
  a)  Kolkata   b) Agra   c) Bhopal   d) Delhi 
   Right Method          Wrong Methods
  ———————         ————————————————————— 
      a   b    c   d           a    b    c    d      a    b    c    d      a    b   c   d   
             
 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above 
shall be considered wrong answer.
 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer 
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet 
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand 
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation 
of his/her candidature.
 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 
may have to face criminal prosecution. 
 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators 
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 
 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
?   
M
 
-2- 
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 14
B
Current Affairs and 
General Knowledge
30 51 – 80 15 – 18 
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38
Total Marks                                            150
  
 -3- M
  LLB
 I. Read the excerpt from a ruling of the Court (Civil Action: American Library 
Association v. U.S.A.) and answer the following questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer. 
	 	 Under	 strict	 scrutiny,	 a	 public	 library's	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	 is	 permissible	 only	 if	 it	
is narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest and no less restrictive 
alternative	 would	 serve	 that	 interest.	 We	 acknowledge	 that	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	
furthers public libraries' legitimate interests in preventing patrons from accessing 
visual depictions of obscenity, or in the case of minors, material harmful to minors. 
Moreover,	use	of	filters	also	helps	to	prevent	patrons	from	being	unwillingly	exposed	
to patently offensive, content on the Internet.
 1. Select which of the following assumptions is the ruling of the Court is based on.
 a) Filtering software is the preferred alternative by the patrons of public libraries. 
 b) Filtering software is the most restrictive of all the alternatives used in public 
libraries.
 c) Filtering software is the only tool that can be scrutinised by the public libraries.
 d) Filtering software safeguards the interests of the patrons of public libraries. 
	 2.	 What,	 according	 to	 the	 passage,	 is	 the	 primary	 purpose	 of	 filtering	 software	 within	 a	
public library ?
	 a)	 Permit	the	use	of	classified	materials.
 b) Check the use of all visual content of a library.
 c) Record the number of searches made by patrons. 
 d) Prevent the access to inappropriate content. 
 3. Which of the following words is an antonym to the word “compelling” used in the text ?
 a) singular  b) strange  c) weak d) popular 
 II. Read the following news post and answer the questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer.
  INDIA'S MARINE EXPORTS REACH ALL TIME HIGH OF $ 7,740 MILLION
  Vijayawada: Exports of marine products from India have reached an all-time high of 
US	 $	 7,740	 million	 in	 2021-22	 against	 the	 targeted	 US	 $	 7,809	 million	 fixed	 by	 the	
centre.
  Marine Products Exports Development Authority joint director A. Jeyabal 
in a statement here on Friday said India's exports of marine products grew  
30 percent compared to 2020-21 in value terms. The compound annual growth rate 
of seafood exports during the past decade has been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.
  Jeyabal explained that India exported marine products to 121 countries during 2021-22, 
the US being the top destination with exports worth US $ 3,315 million in 2021-22 
against the target of $ 3,021 million.
  China and Japan stood at number two and three positions respectively. All three top 
destinations of Indian marine exports constitute 63 percent of India's exports in value 
terms.
SECTION – A :  ENGLISH
Page 4


 -1- 
 
Date of Exam. : 
Duration         : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks     : 150
Center’s Name   : ________________
Roll No.             : ________________
OMR Sheet No.  : ________________
Date of Birth     : ________________
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought.  Answer the questions 
as they are.  
 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be 
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer 
ALL the Questions.
 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For 
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one 
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN 
in the OMR Response Sheet.
  Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
  a)  Kolkata   b) Agra   c) Bhopal   d) Delhi 
   Right Method          Wrong Methods
  ———————         ————————————————————— 
      a   b    c   d           a    b    c    d      a    b    c    d      a    b   c   d   
             
 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above 
shall be considered wrong answer.
 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer 
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet 
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand 
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation 
of his/her candidature.
 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 
may have to face criminal prosecution. 
 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators 
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 
 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
?   
M
 
-2- 
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 14
B
Current Affairs and 
General Knowledge
30 51 – 80 15 – 18 
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38
Total Marks                                            150
  
 -3- M
  LLB
 I. Read the excerpt from a ruling of the Court (Civil Action: American Library 
Association v. U.S.A.) and answer the following questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer. 
	 	 Under	 strict	 scrutiny,	 a	 public	 library's	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	 is	 permissible	 only	 if	 it	
is narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest and no less restrictive 
alternative	 would	 serve	 that	 interest.	 We	 acknowledge	 that	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	
furthers public libraries' legitimate interests in preventing patrons from accessing 
visual depictions of obscenity, or in the case of minors, material harmful to minors. 
Moreover,	use	of	filters	also	helps	to	prevent	patrons	from	being	unwillingly	exposed	
to patently offensive, content on the Internet.
 1. Select which of the following assumptions is the ruling of the Court is based on.
 a) Filtering software is the preferred alternative by the patrons of public libraries. 
 b) Filtering software is the most restrictive of all the alternatives used in public 
libraries.
 c) Filtering software is the only tool that can be scrutinised by the public libraries.
 d) Filtering software safeguards the interests of the patrons of public libraries. 
	 2.	 What,	 according	 to	 the	 passage,	 is	 the	 primary	 purpose	 of	 filtering	 software	 within	 a	
public library ?
	 a)	 Permit	the	use	of	classified	materials.
 b) Check the use of all visual content of a library.
 c) Record the number of searches made by patrons. 
 d) Prevent the access to inappropriate content. 
 3. Which of the following words is an antonym to the word “compelling” used in the text ?
 a) singular  b) strange  c) weak d) popular 
 II. Read the following news post and answer the questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer.
  INDIA'S MARINE EXPORTS REACH ALL TIME HIGH OF $ 7,740 MILLION
  Vijayawada: Exports of marine products from India have reached an all-time high of 
US	 $	 7,740	 million	 in	 2021-22	 against	 the	 targeted	 US	 $	 7,809	 million	 fixed	 by	 the	
centre.
  Marine Products Exports Development Authority joint director A. Jeyabal 
in a statement here on Friday said India's exports of marine products grew  
30 percent compared to 2020-21 in value terms. The compound annual growth rate 
of seafood exports during the past decade has been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.
  Jeyabal explained that India exported marine products to 121 countries during 2021-22, 
the US being the top destination with exports worth US $ 3,315 million in 2021-22 
against the target of $ 3,021 million.
  China and Japan stood at number two and three positions respectively. All three top 
destinations of Indian marine exports constitute 63 percent of India's exports in value 
terms.
SECTION – A :  ENGLISH
M
 
-4- 
LLB
 4. The phrase “an all-time high” indicates that India’s marine
 a) export rate has never been so high. 
 b) exports have grown less expensive. 
 c) export rate increases with each month. 
 d) exports have reached their highest limit.
 5. Substitute the underlined phrase with the option closest in meaning.
  “The compound annual growth rate of seafood exports during the past decade has 
been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.” 
 a) calculated    b) announced  
	 c)	 specified	 	 	 d)	 shared
 6. Which of the following statements are true for the given text ?
 (i) 2022 is fast becoming the most successful year for Indian exports, in terms of 
marine products.
 (ii) The director of “Marine Products Exports Development Authority” is  
Mr. A. Jeyabal.
 (iii) Mr. A. Jeyabal is sure that India will grow as an exporter of marine products.
 (iv) There is most demand for India’s marine products in the US.
 a) (i), (ii) and (iii)   b) (i) and (iv)
 c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)   d) (i) and (ii)
 7.  The most appropriate by-line for the article would be
 a) Glowing Prospects b) A Legacy
	 c)	 A	Befitting	Tribute	 d)	 Profiting	from	Sustainability	
 8. It can be inferred from the text that 
 a) All of India’s marine exports to Japan and China are done from Vijayawada. 
 b) More than half of India’s marine exports go to the US, China and Japan, in value 
terms. 
 c) India is the leading exporter of marine goods to 121 countries.
 d) India reached the proposed sales target determined by the centre in the year 
2021-22.
 9. Select the sentence that is the most appropriate conclusion for the given text.
 a) Several exports promotion schemes for Fisheries have been implemented by the 
Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), a statutory body set 
up in 1972. 
 b) The twin Godavari districts contributed to 50 per cent exports of the Vannamei 
shrimp. 
 c) Despite the heavy odds faced by the sector, India’s marine products exports reached 
a record high. 
 d) With a budget of Rs. 20,050 crores, this is the biggest ever investment to bring 
about a Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the 
fisheries	sector	in	I ndia.
Page 5


 -1- 
 
Date of Exam. : 
Duration         : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks     : 150
Center’s Name   : ________________
Roll No.             : ________________
OMR Sheet No.  : ________________
Date of Birth     : ________________
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought.  Answer the questions 
as they are.  
 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of one mark each to be 
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer 
ALL the Questions.
 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). For 
every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one 
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN 
in the OMR Response Sheet.
  Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
  a)  Kolkata   b) Agra   c) Bhopal   d) Delhi 
   Right Method          Wrong Methods
  ———————         ————————————————————— 
      a   b    c   d           a    b    c    d      a    b    c    d      a    b   c   d   
             
 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above 
shall be considered wrong answer.
 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet and Answer 
Booklet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet 
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand 
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation 
of his/her candidature.
 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 
may have to face criminal prosecution. 
 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators 
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 
 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
?   
M
 
-2- 
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 14
B
Current Affairs and 
General Knowledge
30 51 – 80 15 – 18 
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 19 – 38
Total Marks                                            150
  
 -3- M
  LLB
 I. Read the excerpt from a ruling of the Court (Civil Action: American Library 
Association v. U.S.A.) and answer the following questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer. 
	 	 Under	 strict	 scrutiny,	 a	 public	 library's	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	 is	 permissible	 only	 if	 it	
is narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest and no less restrictive 
alternative	 would	 serve	 that	 interest.	 We	 acknowledge	 that	 use	 of	 filtering	 software	
furthers public libraries' legitimate interests in preventing patrons from accessing 
visual depictions of obscenity, or in the case of minors, material harmful to minors. 
Moreover,	use	of	filters	also	helps	to	prevent	patrons	from	being	unwillingly	exposed	
to patently offensive, content on the Internet.
 1. Select which of the following assumptions is the ruling of the Court is based on.
 a) Filtering software is the preferred alternative by the patrons of public libraries. 
 b) Filtering software is the most restrictive of all the alternatives used in public 
libraries.
 c) Filtering software is the only tool that can be scrutinised by the public libraries.
 d) Filtering software safeguards the interests of the patrons of public libraries. 
	 2.	 What,	 according	 to	 the	 passage,	 is	 the	 primary	 purpose	 of	 filtering	 software	 within	 a	
public library ?
	 a)	 Permit	the	use	of	classified	materials.
 b) Check the use of all visual content of a library.
 c) Record the number of searches made by patrons. 
 d) Prevent the access to inappropriate content. 
 3. Which of the following words is an antonym to the word “compelling” used in the text ?
 a) singular  b) strange  c) weak d) popular 
 II. Read the following news post and answer the questions by choosing the most 
appropriate answer.
  INDIA'S MARINE EXPORTS REACH ALL TIME HIGH OF $ 7,740 MILLION
  Vijayawada: Exports of marine products from India have reached an all-time high of 
US	 $	 7,740	 million	 in	 2021-22	 against	 the	 targeted	 US	 $	 7,809	 million	 fixed	 by	 the	
centre.
  Marine Products Exports Development Authority joint director A. Jeyabal 
in a statement here on Friday said India's exports of marine products grew  
30 percent compared to 2020-21 in value terms. The compound annual growth rate 
of seafood exports during the past decade has been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.
  Jeyabal explained that India exported marine products to 121 countries during 2021-22, 
the US being the top destination with exports worth US $ 3,315 million in 2021-22 
against the target of $ 3,021 million.
  China and Japan stood at number two and three positions respectively. All three top 
destinations of Indian marine exports constitute 63 percent of India's exports in value 
terms.
SECTION – A :  ENGLISH
M
 
-4- 
LLB
 4. The phrase “an all-time high” indicates that India’s marine
 a) export rate has never been so high. 
 b) exports have grown less expensive. 
 c) export rate increases with each month. 
 d) exports have reached their highest limit.
 5. Substitute the underlined phrase with the option closest in meaning.
  “The compound annual growth rate of seafood exports during the past decade has 
been 8.23 percent, he pointed out.” 
 a) calculated    b) announced  
	 c)	 specified	 	 	 d)	 shared
 6. Which of the following statements are true for the given text ?
 (i) 2022 is fast becoming the most successful year for Indian exports, in terms of 
marine products.
 (ii) The director of “Marine Products Exports Development Authority” is  
Mr. A. Jeyabal.
 (iii) Mr. A. Jeyabal is sure that India will grow as an exporter of marine products.
 (iv) There is most demand for India’s marine products in the US.
 a) (i), (ii) and (iii)   b) (i) and (iv)
 c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)   d) (i) and (ii)
 7.  The most appropriate by-line for the article would be
 a) Glowing Prospects b) A Legacy
	 c)	 A	Befitting	Tribute	 d)	 Profiting	from	Sustainability	
 8. It can be inferred from the text that 
 a) All of India’s marine exports to Japan and China are done from Vijayawada. 
 b) More than half of India’s marine exports go to the US, China and Japan, in value 
terms. 
 c) India is the leading exporter of marine goods to 121 countries.
 d) India reached the proposed sales target determined by the centre in the year 
2021-22.
 9. Select the sentence that is the most appropriate conclusion for the given text.
 a) Several exports promotion schemes for Fisheries have been implemented by the 
Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), a statutory body set 
up in 1972. 
 b) The twin Godavari districts contributed to 50 per cent exports of the Vannamei 
shrimp. 
 c) Despite the heavy odds faced by the sector, India’s marine products exports reached 
a record high. 
 d) With a budget of Rs. 20,050 crores, this is the biggest ever investment to bring 
about a Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the 
fisheries	sector	in	I ndia.
  
 -5- M
  LLB
 III. Read the book descriptions for three different books up for sale online and answer 
the questions by choosing the correct options.
The On Being a Veterinarian 
Series gives pre-vet and 
veterinary students a 
glimpse into what it's really 
like to be a small animal 
veterinarian. Each book in 
the series provides insight 
on a different aspect of small 
animal veterinary medicine 
to help future veterinary 
doctors better prepare for 
the challenges of this career. 
Book puts the reader in the 
doctor's shoes for a day to 
illustrate the importance of 
emotional resilience. Tools 
for building resilience are 
provided,	as	are	scientific	
explanations for how and 
why they work.
So, You Want to be a 
Veterinarian is suggested 
reading for aspiring 
veterinarians, their 
parents, and their 
mentors. It succinctly 
describes colleges of 
veterinary medicine 
and their admission 
requirements, application 
procedures, curriculums, 
faculties, and facilities, 
and provides information 
that increases the odds of 
success in the admission 
process. It goes on to 
describe the veterinary 
profession and its 
multiple practice types, 
species and disciplinary 
specialties, and 
employment opportunities 
in industry, government, 
academy, and the 
military.
I Want to be a Veterinarian 
is part of a new I 
Can Read series that 
introduces young readers 
to important community 
helpers. This Level One 
I Can Read is perfect for 
children learning to sound 
out words and sentences. 
Whether shared at home 
or in a classroom, the 
short sentences, familiar 
words, and simple 
concepts of Level One 
books support success 
for children eager to start 
reading on their own.
For anyone looking for 
books about community 
helpers for kids, this book 
is a great choice as it is 
bright and upbeat and 
feature characters who are 
diverse in terms of gender, 
race, age, and body type. 
 10. By using the phrase “gives a glimpse into”, the text suggests that On Being a Veterinarian 
Series
 a) imparts extensive knowledge about the personal and professional aspects of a 
veterinarian’s life. 
 b) gives detailed descriptions about the veterinary profession and its multiple practice 
types.
 c) offers comprehensive health advice to small animal veterinary doctors. 
 d) provides salient features of small animal veterinary medicine to help prepare future 
doctors	for	the	difficulties	of	their	profession.	
 11. A ‘small animal veterinarian’ involves dealing with
 a) farm animals   b) companion animals
 c) zoo animals   d) endangered animals
 12. Which underlined phrase is similar in meaning to “increases the odds of success” ? 
(So, You Want to be a Veterinarian)
 a) The estimates for chances in achieving the goal are maximum when you plan 
ahead.
 b) The increases in bets to gain victory, are not just common in academic circles.
 c) When a business studies the competition, it improves its chances of surging 
ahead. 
 d) A lesser-known fact is that focussing on yourself ensures long-term gains.