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Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) = 
. Then f is
. Then f is- a)Many–one and onto
- b)One–one and onto
- c)Into and one one
- d)Many one and into
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Verified Answer
Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many&ndash...
Correct answer is D.
Most Upvoted Answer
Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many&ndash...
-empty set A to a non-empty set B, we say that R is a function from A to B if for every element a in A there exists a unique element b in B such that (a,b) belongs to R.
In other words, a function maps each element of the domain A to a unique element of the codomain B. It is important to note that the domain and codomain can be the same set or different sets.
For example, the function f(x) = x^2 is a function from the set of real numbers to itself (i.e., f: R → R). For every real number x, there exists a unique real number x^2 such that (x,x^2) belongs to the relation defined by f.
On the other hand, the relation {(1,a), (2,b), (3,c)} is not a function from the set {1,2,3} to the set {a,b,c} because there is no unique element in the codomain for the element 1 in the domain.
In other words, a function maps each element of the domain A to a unique element of the codomain B. It is important to note that the domain and codomain can be the same set or different sets.
For example, the function f(x) = x^2 is a function from the set of real numbers to itself (i.e., f: R → R). For every real number x, there exists a unique real number x^2 such that (x,x^2) belongs to the relation defined by f.
On the other hand, the relation {(1,a), (2,b), (3,c)} is not a function from the set {1,2,3} to the set {a,b,c} because there is no unique element in the codomain for the element 1 in the domain.
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Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many&ndash...
Correct answer is D.
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Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
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Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? for JEE 2025 is part of JEE preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the JEE exam syllabus. Information about Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for JEE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?.
Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? for JEE 2025 is part of JEE preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the JEE exam syllabus. Information about Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for JEE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Let f: R → R be a mapping such that f(x) =. Then f isa)Many–one and ontob)One–one and ontoc)Into and one oned)Many one and intoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?.
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