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What is the maximum % discount that a man can offer on her MP so that he ends up selling at no profit or loss, if he had initially marked his goods up by 35% (approximately)?
- a)20%
- b)32%
- c)27%
- d)30%
- e)None of these
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
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Verified Answer
What is the maximum % discount that a man can offer on her MP so that ...
35-x-(35*x/100) = 0
3500/100 –(100x+35x/100) = 0
35 = 135/100
X = 35*100/135 = 25.9 = 26%
3500/100 –(100x+35x/100) = 0
35 = 135/100
X = 35*100/135 = 25.9 = 26%
Most Upvoted Answer
What is the maximum % discount that a man can offer on her MP so that ...
To find the maximum % discount that a man can offer on his MP (marked price) so that he ends up selling at no profit or loss, we need to consider the concept of cost price, selling price, and profit/loss.
Let's assume the cost price of the goods is $100.
According to the given information, the man initially marked his goods up by 35%. This means the marked price (MP) is 135% of the cost price (CP).
Therefore, the marked price (MP) can be calculated as:
MP = CP + (35% of CP)
MP = CP + 0.35CP
MP = 1.35CP
Now, let's consider the selling price (SP) after offering a discount. Let the discount be 'x' percent of the marked price (MP).
The selling price (SP) can be calculated as:
SP = MP - (x% of MP)
SP = MP - ((x/100)*MP)
SP = MP - (x/100)*1.35CP
Since the man wants to sell at no profit or loss, the selling price (SP) should be equal to the cost price (CP):
SP = CP
Now, let's substitute the values of MP and SP into the equation:
1.35CP - (x/100)*1.35CP = CP
Simplifying the equation:
1.35CP - 1.35(x/100)CP = CP
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
We can further simplify the equation by dividing both sides by CP:
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1/1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
Now, let's solve the equation to find the value of 'x':
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
0.35(x/100) = 0.35
x/100 = 1
x = 100
Therefore, the maximum % discount that a man can offer on his MP is 100%.
None of the given options (a) 20%, (b) 32%, (c) 27%, (d) 30% are correct. The correct answer is option (e) None of these.
Let's assume the cost price of the goods is $100.
According to the given information, the man initially marked his goods up by 35%. This means the marked price (MP) is 135% of the cost price (CP).
Therefore, the marked price (MP) can be calculated as:
MP = CP + (35% of CP)
MP = CP + 0.35CP
MP = 1.35CP
Now, let's consider the selling price (SP) after offering a discount. Let the discount be 'x' percent of the marked price (MP).
The selling price (SP) can be calculated as:
SP = MP - (x% of MP)
SP = MP - ((x/100)*MP)
SP = MP - (x/100)*1.35CP
Since the man wants to sell at no profit or loss, the selling price (SP) should be equal to the cost price (CP):
SP = CP
Now, let's substitute the values of MP and SP into the equation:
1.35CP - (x/100)*1.35CP = CP
Simplifying the equation:
1.35CP - 1.35(x/100)CP = CP
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
We can further simplify the equation by dividing both sides by CP:
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1/1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
Now, let's solve the equation to find the value of 'x':
1.35 - 1.35(x/100) = 1
0.35(x/100) = 0.35
x/100 = 1
x = 100
Therefore, the maximum % discount that a man can offer on his MP is 100%.
None of the given options (a) 20%, (b) 32%, (c) 27%, (d) 30% are correct. The correct answer is option (e) None of these.
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Community Answer
What is the maximum % discount that a man can offer on her MP so that ...
Let cp be 100 and marked price will be 135 ..so in no profit or no loss situation he would have sell it in rs 100 so discount-35/135*100=25.9%
option E
option E
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