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Let f  be a real-valued function defined on the interval (–1, 1) such that   and let  f –1  be the inverse function of f. Then (f –1)' (2) is equal to
  • a)
    1
  • b)
    1/3
  • c)
    1/2
  • d)
    1/e
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) s...
Now on differentiating, we get

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Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) s...
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Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) s...
Now on differentiating, we get

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Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) such that and let f –1 be the inverse function of f. Then (f –1)' (2) is equal toa)1b)1/3c)1/2d)1/eCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? for JEE 2025 is part of JEE preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the JEE exam syllabus. Information about Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) such that and let f –1 be the inverse function of f. Then (f –1)' (2) is equal toa)1b)1/3c)1/2d)1/eCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for JEE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval(–1, 1) such that and let f –1 be the inverse function of f. Then (f –1)' (2) is equal toa)1b)1/3c)1/2d)1/eCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?.
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