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A mapping f: R → R which is defined a s f( x ) = cos x; x ε R is
  • a)
    one-one only
  • b)
    onto only
  • c)
    one-one onto
  • d)
    neither one-one nor onto
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Verified Answer
A mapping f: R → R which is defined a s f( x ) = cos x; x &epsilo...
Given , f(x) = cos x
It is clear from the figure that f(x) is neither one-one nor a onto function.
Since, whenever we drawn a line parallel to x-axis, then it intersects at infinite points to the curve. So, f(x) is not one-one.
And, range o f f ( x ) = [-1, 1]
Codomain of f(x) = R
Range of f(x) ≠ codomain of f(x)
Hence, f(x) is not onto.
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Most Upvoted Answer
A mapping f: R → R which is defined a s f( x ) = cos x; x &epsilo...
Given , f(x) = cos x
It is clear from the figure that f(x) is neither one-one nor a onto function.
Since, whenever we drawn a line parallel to x-axis, then it intersects at infinite points to the curve. So, f(x) is not one-one.
And, range o f f ( x ) = [-1, 1]
Codomain of f(x) = R
Range of f(x) ≠ codomain of f(x)
Hence, f(x) is not onto.
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A mapping f: R → R which is defined a s f( x ) = cos x; x ε R isa)one-one onlyb)onto onlyc)one-one ontod)neither one-one nor ontoCorrect answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
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