State and prove darboux theorem?
Darboux’s theorem, in analysis (a branch of mathematics), statement that for a function f(x) that is differentiable (has derivatives) on the closed interval [a, b], then for every x with f′(a) < x < f′(b), there exists some point c in the open interval (a, b) such that f′(c) = x. In other words, the derivative function, though it is not necessarily continuous, follows the intermediate value theorem by taking every value that lies between the values of the derivatives at the endpoints. The intermediate value theorem, which implies Darboux’s theorem when the derivative function is continuous, is a familiar result in calculus that states, in simplest terms, that if a continuous real-valued function f defined on the closed interval [−1, 1] satisfies f(−1) < 0 and f(1) > 0, then f(x) = 0 for at least one number x between −1 and 1; less formally, an unbroken curve passes through every value between its endpoints. Darboux’s theorem was first proved in the 19th century by the French mathematician Jean-Gaston Darboux.
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State and prove darboux theorem?
Darboux Theorem
The Darboux theorem, also known as the intermediate value property, states that if a function f(x) is differentiable on an interval [a, b], then it satisfies the intermediate value property. In other words, if f(a) and f(b) have opposite signs, then there exists at least one point c in the interval (a, b) such that f(c) = 0.
Proof:
To prove the Darboux theorem, we can consider two cases:
Case 1: f(a) < 0="" and="" f(b)="" /> 0
In this case, we can define a new function g(x) = f(x) - x. Since f(x) is differentiable on [a, b], g(x) is also differentiable on the same interval.
Claim 1: g(a) < 0="" and="" g(b)="" /> 0
Proof of Claim 1:
Since f(a) < 0="" and="" f(b)="" /> 0, we have g(a) = f(a) - a < 0="" and="" g(b)="f(b)" -="" b="" /> 0.
Claim 2: There exists a point c in (a, b) such that g'(c) = 0
Proof of Claim 2:
Since g(x) is differentiable on [a, b], it satisfies the conditions of the Rolle's theorem. Therefore, there must exist a point c in (a, b) such that g'(c) = 0.
Now, let's analyze g'(c):
g'(c) = f'(c) - 1
Since g'(c) = 0, we have f'(c) = 1.
Claim 3: There exists a point d in (a, b) such that f(d) = 0
Proof of Claim 3:
Using the mean value theorem, we know that if f'(c) = 1, then there exists a point d in (a, b) such that f(d) = f(c) + f'(c)(d - c) = 0.
Therefore, we have proved that if f(a) < 0="" and="" f(b)="" /> 0, then there exists at least one point d in (a, b) such that f(d) = 0.
Case 2: f(a) > 0 and f(b) < />
This case can be proven similarly to Case 1 by considering the function -f(x) instead of f(x). By applying the same steps, we can show that there exists at least one point c in (a, b) such that f(c) = 0.
Hence, we have proved the Darboux theorem, which states that if a function f(x) is differentiable on an interval [a, b] and f(a) and f(b) have opposite signs, then there exists at least one point c in the interval (a, b) such that f(c) = 0.