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Let X and Y be two independent random variables such that X ~ U(0, 2) and Y ~ U(1, 3).Then P(X < Y) equals
  • a)
    1/2
  • b)
    3/4
  • c)
    7/8
  • d)
    1
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
Let X and Y be two independent random variables such that X ~ U(0, 2) ...
To find P(X > Y), we need to determine the range of values for X and Y that satisfy this condition.

- The random variable X is uniformly distributed between 0 and 2, which means it can take any value between 0 and 2 with equal probability.
- The random variable Y is uniformly distributed between 1 and 3, which means it can take any value between 1 and 3 with equal probability.

Comparing the ranges of X and Y, we can see that X will always be less than Y.

So, P(X > Y) = 0.

This means that the probability of X being greater than Y is zero.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - 7/8.
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Community Answer
Let X and Y be two independent random variables such that X ~ U(0, 2) ...
7/8
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