CTET Solved Question Paper - 2 (6 Jan - 2022) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET PDF Download

 Page 1


  
 
Time: 2 hours 30 mins. Total Marks: 150
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. Assertion (A): Children are unable to learn optimally 
when they are undernourished or unwell.
 Reason (R): All domains of development are inter-
related-physical development has an impact on 
cognitive development.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. Which principle of development does this illustrate: 
The child learns to stand before she can walk and 
babble before she talks?
(1) Development is sequential
(2) Development proceeds from head to toe
(3) Development is disorderly
(4) Development progresses from centre to the 
extremities.
3. Assertion (A): Children learn the knowledge, skills, 
values and customs of the society only through 
formal agencies.
 Reason (R): Socialization is a simple and linear 
process that takes place in a well-planned manner.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Jean Piaget’s constructivism proposes that 
children progress through four stages of cognitive 
development primarily:
(1) by acting upon the environment.
(2) through social interactions with more 
knowledgeable others.
(3) by imitation of others.
(4) through anticipation of rewards.
5. According to Jean Piaget, at which stage of cognitive 
development can children ‘operate on operations’ 
and perform hypothetico-deductive thinking?
(1) Sensori-motor Stage
(2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) Formal Operational Stage
6. ...............  is very important in Lev Vygotsky’s theory 
for cognitive development of children.
(1) Cultural tools (2) Maturation
(3) Punishment (4) Adaptation
7. One of the major differences in the theories of Jean 
Piaget and Lev Vygotsky is:
(1) Piaget emphasized on the role of language in 
cognitive development.
(2) Vygotsky gave primary importance to hereditary 
capacities in learning.
(3) Vygotsky emphasized the role of culture in 
cognitive development.
(4) Piaget gave importance to what the child can 
do on her own as well as what she can do with 
support.
8. Carol Gilligan critiqued Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory 
of moral development by arguing that men have 
morality of ...............  while women have morality of 
............... .
(1) justice; care
(2) care; justice
(3) goodness; sacrifice
(4) sacrifice; goodness
9. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of 
the type of intelligence and the end state possibilities 
as per the theory of Howard Gardner?
(1) Intelligence-Linguistic, End State Possibility- 
Accountant
(2) Intelligence-Spatial, End State Possibility- 
Architect
(3) Intelligence- Bodily kinesthetic, End State 
Possibility- Singer
(4) Intelligence-Naturalistic, kinesthetic-Teacher
10. National Education Policy 2020 considers 
multilingualism
(1) as a hindrance in children’s learning.
(2) as an asset in the classrooms.
(3) as a unnecessary complication in teaching-
learning process.
(4) as a barrier to inclusive education.
11. In child-centered education, assessment
(1) is undertaken through few periodic examinations.
(2) takes place through written objective type tests.
(3) does not take place at all.
(4) is considered an integral part in the process of 
learning.
12. What does National Education Policy 2020 propose 
for retention of students from socio-economically 
disadvantaged groups?
(1) Rote learning
(2) Standardisation of curriculum and assessment
(3) Performance-oriented testing
(4) Relatable and meaningful curriculum
CTET SOLVED PAPERS
Paper - 2 (Social Science)
6th January, 2022
Page 2


  
 
Time: 2 hours 30 mins. Total Marks: 150
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. Assertion (A): Children are unable to learn optimally 
when they are undernourished or unwell.
 Reason (R): All domains of development are inter-
related-physical development has an impact on 
cognitive development.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. Which principle of development does this illustrate: 
The child learns to stand before she can walk and 
babble before she talks?
(1) Development is sequential
(2) Development proceeds from head to toe
(3) Development is disorderly
(4) Development progresses from centre to the 
extremities.
3. Assertion (A): Children learn the knowledge, skills, 
values and customs of the society only through 
formal agencies.
 Reason (R): Socialization is a simple and linear 
process that takes place in a well-planned manner.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Jean Piaget’s constructivism proposes that 
children progress through four stages of cognitive 
development primarily:
(1) by acting upon the environment.
(2) through social interactions with more 
knowledgeable others.
(3) by imitation of others.
(4) through anticipation of rewards.
5. According to Jean Piaget, at which stage of cognitive 
development can children ‘operate on operations’ 
and perform hypothetico-deductive thinking?
(1) Sensori-motor Stage
(2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) Formal Operational Stage
6. ...............  is very important in Lev Vygotsky’s theory 
for cognitive development of children.
(1) Cultural tools (2) Maturation
(3) Punishment (4) Adaptation
7. One of the major differences in the theories of Jean 
Piaget and Lev Vygotsky is:
(1) Piaget emphasized on the role of language in 
cognitive development.
(2) Vygotsky gave primary importance to hereditary 
capacities in learning.
(3) Vygotsky emphasized the role of culture in 
cognitive development.
(4) Piaget gave importance to what the child can 
do on her own as well as what she can do with 
support.
8. Carol Gilligan critiqued Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory 
of moral development by arguing that men have 
morality of ...............  while women have morality of 
............... .
(1) justice; care
(2) care; justice
(3) goodness; sacrifice
(4) sacrifice; goodness
9. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of 
the type of intelligence and the end state possibilities 
as per the theory of Howard Gardner?
(1) Intelligence-Linguistic, End State Possibility- 
Accountant
(2) Intelligence-Spatial, End State Possibility- 
Architect
(3) Intelligence- Bodily kinesthetic, End State 
Possibility- Singer
(4) Intelligence-Naturalistic, kinesthetic-Teacher
10. National Education Policy 2020 considers 
multilingualism
(1) as a hindrance in children’s learning.
(2) as an asset in the classrooms.
(3) as a unnecessary complication in teaching-
learning process.
(4) as a barrier to inclusive education.
11. In child-centered education, assessment
(1) is undertaken through few periodic examinations.
(2) takes place through written objective type tests.
(3) does not take place at all.
(4) is considered an integral part in the process of 
learning.
12. What does National Education Policy 2020 propose 
for retention of students from socio-economically 
disadvantaged groups?
(1) Rote learning
(2) Standardisation of curriculum and assessment
(3) Performance-oriented testing
(4) Relatable and meaningful curriculum
CTET SOLVED PAPERS
Paper - 2 (Social Science)
6th January, 2022
  
13. In several middle school classrooms it is observed 
that boys often raise their hands to answer more than 
girls and tend to dominate classroom discussions. In 
such context, the teacher should
(1) accept that boys are more intelligent than girls.
(2) accept that girls do not have the potential to 
study in middle class.
(3) analyze how gender differences are inborn and 
cannot be modified.
(4) analyze the context of the children and her own 
pedagogy.
14. Which of the following defines a progressive 
classrooms?
(1) Learning for exams
(2) Focus on experiential learning
(3) Decontextualized curriculum
(4) Teacher centric pedagogy
15. Which of the following questions tests higher-order 
thinking skills such as analysis and evaluation?
(1) What differences do you find between private 
and public health services in your area and why?
(2) What does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 state?
(3) How many states are there in India?
(4) How are the members of Legislative Assembly 
elected?
16. With respect to inclusion of students with disabilities 
in regular schools, which of the following provision 
is against the Rights of persons with disabilities Act 
(2016)?
(1) Extra time for completion of examination paper
(2) Facility of scribe to meet the students’ needs
(3) Compulsory second and third language courses
(4) Reasonable accommodation as per individual’s 
needs
17. To address the diverse learning needs of the 
students, which of the following is a barrier?
(1) Engagement in the activities in multiple ways
(2) Expression of opinion in multiple ways
(3) Labeling and ranking of students in multiple 
ways
(4) Representation of information in multiple ways
18. Which of the following learning disability directly 
affects communication skills and comprehension 
abilities?
(1) Dyscalculia (2) Dysgraphia
(3) Dysphoria (4) Dysphasia
19. To ensure the successful inclusion of students with 
Dysgraphia, it is important to:
(1) allow use of audio recorder or a laptop in class
(2) extensively use written tests for assessment
(3) make it compulsory to write on plain/unruled 
sheets
(4) set fixed timeline to finish the given work
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 
student with ‘creativity’?
(1) Their problem-solving skills are of higher order
(2) They can solve problems through divergent 
ways
(3) They have low sense of curiosity to learn new 
topics
(4) They often come up with novel ideas and 
innovations
21. Teachers in a middle grade classroom should:
(1) be open to make adaptations as per learners’ 
needs
(2) focus their attention majorly on high achievers
(3) ignore learner diversity in the classroom
(4) use one standardized mode of assessment only
22. Assertion (A): While teaching a concept, a teacher 
should encourage her students to brainstorm the 
instances and examples of contrast.
 Reason (R): Non-examples don’t play any role in 
understanding of a concept.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
23. Few students in a class were not able to achieve the 
individual learning goals set for them. In such a 
scenario, a teacher should:
(1) consider their failure as dishonourable and 
shameful.
(2) expel these students and recommend them to a 
special school.
(3) keep very low expectations of success from them 
in future endeavours.
(4) view failure as a part of the developmental 
process of learning.
24. A teacher intends to assess declarative knowledge 
among her students. Which of the following 
question is appropriate for this purpose?
(1) How to bake a cake?
(2) How to balance a bicycle on a rough terrain?
(3) What is the formula for calculating ‘volume’?
(4) What is the procedure of soil preparation for 
wheat plantation?
25. A teacher intends to facilitate the development of 
metacognition among her students. Which of the 
following skills won’t be helpful for this purpose?
(1) Evaluating (2) Monitoring
(3) Planning (4) Rote-memorisation
26. Constructivist approach considers learning as:
(1) disorganised and unilateral
(2) idiosyncratic and disconnected
(3) interactive and active
(4) passive and dependent
27. Which of the following step is likely to hinder 
problem-solving skills among students?
(1) Activating the schema to comprehend the 
problem
(2) Focusing attention on relevant information 
about problem
(3) Getting stuck on one fixed way of representing a 
problem
(4) Identifying the possible solutions of the problem
28. Contemporary perspectives of cognitive 
development view misconceptions as:
(1) completely insignifcant and an obstacle for 
teaching-learning process.
(2) Higher-order metacognitive skills found typically 
in ‘gifted’ students.
(3) Naive ideas and understanding having their 
roots in ones’ past experiences.
(4) Neurological deficits and identifying 
characteristics of Dyslexia.
Page 3


  
 
Time: 2 hours 30 mins. Total Marks: 150
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. Assertion (A): Children are unable to learn optimally 
when they are undernourished or unwell.
 Reason (R): All domains of development are inter-
related-physical development has an impact on 
cognitive development.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. Which principle of development does this illustrate: 
The child learns to stand before she can walk and 
babble before she talks?
(1) Development is sequential
(2) Development proceeds from head to toe
(3) Development is disorderly
(4) Development progresses from centre to the 
extremities.
3. Assertion (A): Children learn the knowledge, skills, 
values and customs of the society only through 
formal agencies.
 Reason (R): Socialization is a simple and linear 
process that takes place in a well-planned manner.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Jean Piaget’s constructivism proposes that 
children progress through four stages of cognitive 
development primarily:
(1) by acting upon the environment.
(2) through social interactions with more 
knowledgeable others.
(3) by imitation of others.
(4) through anticipation of rewards.
5. According to Jean Piaget, at which stage of cognitive 
development can children ‘operate on operations’ 
and perform hypothetico-deductive thinking?
(1) Sensori-motor Stage
(2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) Formal Operational Stage
6. ...............  is very important in Lev Vygotsky’s theory 
for cognitive development of children.
(1) Cultural tools (2) Maturation
(3) Punishment (4) Adaptation
7. One of the major differences in the theories of Jean 
Piaget and Lev Vygotsky is:
(1) Piaget emphasized on the role of language in 
cognitive development.
(2) Vygotsky gave primary importance to hereditary 
capacities in learning.
(3) Vygotsky emphasized the role of culture in 
cognitive development.
(4) Piaget gave importance to what the child can 
do on her own as well as what she can do with 
support.
8. Carol Gilligan critiqued Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory 
of moral development by arguing that men have 
morality of ...............  while women have morality of 
............... .
(1) justice; care
(2) care; justice
(3) goodness; sacrifice
(4) sacrifice; goodness
9. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of 
the type of intelligence and the end state possibilities 
as per the theory of Howard Gardner?
(1) Intelligence-Linguistic, End State Possibility- 
Accountant
(2) Intelligence-Spatial, End State Possibility- 
Architect
(3) Intelligence- Bodily kinesthetic, End State 
Possibility- Singer
(4) Intelligence-Naturalistic, kinesthetic-Teacher
10. National Education Policy 2020 considers 
multilingualism
(1) as a hindrance in children’s learning.
(2) as an asset in the classrooms.
(3) as a unnecessary complication in teaching-
learning process.
(4) as a barrier to inclusive education.
11. In child-centered education, assessment
(1) is undertaken through few periodic examinations.
(2) takes place through written objective type tests.
(3) does not take place at all.
(4) is considered an integral part in the process of 
learning.
12. What does National Education Policy 2020 propose 
for retention of students from socio-economically 
disadvantaged groups?
(1) Rote learning
(2) Standardisation of curriculum and assessment
(3) Performance-oriented testing
(4) Relatable and meaningful curriculum
CTET SOLVED PAPERS
Paper - 2 (Social Science)
6th January, 2022
  
13. In several middle school classrooms it is observed 
that boys often raise their hands to answer more than 
girls and tend to dominate classroom discussions. In 
such context, the teacher should
(1) accept that boys are more intelligent than girls.
(2) accept that girls do not have the potential to 
study in middle class.
(3) analyze how gender differences are inborn and 
cannot be modified.
(4) analyze the context of the children and her own 
pedagogy.
14. Which of the following defines a progressive 
classrooms?
(1) Learning for exams
(2) Focus on experiential learning
(3) Decontextualized curriculum
(4) Teacher centric pedagogy
15. Which of the following questions tests higher-order 
thinking skills such as analysis and evaluation?
(1) What differences do you find between private 
and public health services in your area and why?
(2) What does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 state?
(3) How many states are there in India?
(4) How are the members of Legislative Assembly 
elected?
16. With respect to inclusion of students with disabilities 
in regular schools, which of the following provision 
is against the Rights of persons with disabilities Act 
(2016)?
(1) Extra time for completion of examination paper
(2) Facility of scribe to meet the students’ needs
(3) Compulsory second and third language courses
(4) Reasonable accommodation as per individual’s 
needs
17. To address the diverse learning needs of the 
students, which of the following is a barrier?
(1) Engagement in the activities in multiple ways
(2) Expression of opinion in multiple ways
(3) Labeling and ranking of students in multiple 
ways
(4) Representation of information in multiple ways
18. Which of the following learning disability directly 
affects communication skills and comprehension 
abilities?
(1) Dyscalculia (2) Dysgraphia
(3) Dysphoria (4) Dysphasia
19. To ensure the successful inclusion of students with 
Dysgraphia, it is important to:
(1) allow use of audio recorder or a laptop in class
(2) extensively use written tests for assessment
(3) make it compulsory to write on plain/unruled 
sheets
(4) set fixed timeline to finish the given work
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 
student with ‘creativity’?
(1) Their problem-solving skills are of higher order
(2) They can solve problems through divergent 
ways
(3) They have low sense of curiosity to learn new 
topics
(4) They often come up with novel ideas and 
innovations
21. Teachers in a middle grade classroom should:
(1) be open to make adaptations as per learners’ 
needs
(2) focus their attention majorly on high achievers
(3) ignore learner diversity in the classroom
(4) use one standardized mode of assessment only
22. Assertion (A): While teaching a concept, a teacher 
should encourage her students to brainstorm the 
instances and examples of contrast.
 Reason (R): Non-examples don’t play any role in 
understanding of a concept.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
23. Few students in a class were not able to achieve the 
individual learning goals set for them. In such a 
scenario, a teacher should:
(1) consider their failure as dishonourable and 
shameful.
(2) expel these students and recommend them to a 
special school.
(3) keep very low expectations of success from them 
in future endeavours.
(4) view failure as a part of the developmental 
process of learning.
24. A teacher intends to assess declarative knowledge 
among her students. Which of the following 
question is appropriate for this purpose?
(1) How to bake a cake?
(2) How to balance a bicycle on a rough terrain?
(3) What is the formula for calculating ‘volume’?
(4) What is the procedure of soil preparation for 
wheat plantation?
25. A teacher intends to facilitate the development of 
metacognition among her students. Which of the 
following skills won’t be helpful for this purpose?
(1) Evaluating (2) Monitoring
(3) Planning (4) Rote-memorisation
26. Constructivist approach considers learning as:
(1) disorganised and unilateral
(2) idiosyncratic and disconnected
(3) interactive and active
(4) passive and dependent
27. Which of the following step is likely to hinder 
problem-solving skills among students?
(1) Activating the schema to comprehend the 
problem
(2) Focusing attention on relevant information 
about problem
(3) Getting stuck on one fixed way of representing a 
problem
(4) Identifying the possible solutions of the problem
28. Contemporary perspectives of cognitive 
development view misconceptions as:
(1) completely insignifcant and an obstacle for 
teaching-learning process.
(2) Higher-order metacognitive skills found typically 
in ‘gifted’ students.
(3) Naive ideas and understanding having their 
roots in ones’ past experiences.
(4) Neurological deficits and identifying 
characteristics of Dyslexia.
  
29. Students with performance-avoidance goals focus 
on
(1) enjoyment of activity (2) fear of failing
(3) hope of success (4) sense of pride
30. Which of the following set of attributions on success 
or failure on a task is likely to cause increase in 
students’ motivation and attempts to engage in 
similar tasks in the future?
(1) External, Non-controllable
(2) External, Stable
(3) Internal, Stable
(4) Internal, Controllable
Social Science/Social Studies
31. Which of the following statements are correct about 
the famous epic Silapadikaram:
A. It was composed by Ilango
B. It was composed in Tamil language
C. This describes the story of the daughter of 
Kovalan and Madhavi
D. It was composed around 500 years ago.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) C and D only (4) A, C, and D only
32. Which of the following political powers were the 
three parties, in the “tripartite struggle” for the 
control of Kannauj?
(1) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala
(2) Chola, Chalukya and Pandya
(3) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chalukya
(4) Rashtrakuta, Chalukya and Pala
33. Ashokan inscriptions have been found in several 
places within and outside the country.
 Which of the following options show the correct 
locations?
(1) Kalibangan, Chanhudaro, Dholavira, Sotkakoh
(2) Jaugada, Maski, Topra, Lampaka
(3) Ganweriwala, Inamgaon, Daojali Hading
(4) Hunsgi, Bhimbetka, Kurnool, Paiyampalli
34. Two thousand years ago, a trader narrates that he 
has been to Gaza, Petra and Apologos.
 Which of the following trade routes has he travelled 
through?
(1) Route controlled by Roman emperors
(2) Route under the rulers of Persia
(3) Route controlled by Kushanas
(4) Route under the rulers of China
35. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Statement (A): Behind Emperor Shahjahan’s throne, 
peitra dura images depicted the legendary Greek 
God Orpheus playing the lute. It was believed that 
Orpheu’s music could calm ferocious beasts until 
they coexited together peaceably.
 Statement (B): The construction of Shahjahan’s 
audience hall aimed to communicate that all could 
live together in harmony.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the 
correct explanation of (A).
36. Which of the following are true about Rigvedic 
society?
A. There was no regular army.
B. Some of the hymns were composed by women.
C. Dasas and Dasyus also performed sacrifices.
D. The Rajas did not have capital cities or palaces.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only (4) B and D only
37. “Just as the waters of rivers lose their names and 
separateness when they flow into the mighty ocean, 
so are Varna and ranks and family forgotten…..”. 
Above statement is taken from which one of the 
following text?
(1) Buddhist text (2) Jaina text
(3) Pali text (4) Vedic text
38. The ‘nij’ system of indigo cultivation had its own set 
of problems for the peasants during the East India 
Company. Which of the following problems that 
they faced was a consequence of the ‘nij’ system?
(1) Those living around the indigo factory faced 
eviction from their land.
(2) One-fourth of their land were forced into indigo-
cultivation.
(3) Contracts got them cash advances but the debt 
kept increasing.
(4) The village headmen were forcing them to sign 
contracts.
39. Who among the following published a book, 
‘Stripurushatulna’ criticising the social differences 
between men and women.
(1) Pandita Ramabai
(2) Savitribai Phule
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(4) Tarabai Shinde
40. Which of the following was associated with the 
movement against caste distinction?
(1) Sanatam Dharma Sabhas
(2) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
(3) Satnami Movement
(4) Brahman Sabha
41. Assertion (A): The Satnami movement in Central 
India was founded by Ghasi Das.
 Reason (R): By the second half of the nineteenth 
century, people from within the “lower” castes began 
organising movements against caste discrimination 
and demanded social equality and justice.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
42. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Assertion (A): The Non-cooperation Movement 
gained momentum through 1921-22.
 Reason (R): Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, 
C. R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up 
their practices.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Page 4


  
 
Time: 2 hours 30 mins. Total Marks: 150
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. Assertion (A): Children are unable to learn optimally 
when they are undernourished or unwell.
 Reason (R): All domains of development are inter-
related-physical development has an impact on 
cognitive development.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. Which principle of development does this illustrate: 
The child learns to stand before she can walk and 
babble before she talks?
(1) Development is sequential
(2) Development proceeds from head to toe
(3) Development is disorderly
(4) Development progresses from centre to the 
extremities.
3. Assertion (A): Children learn the knowledge, skills, 
values and customs of the society only through 
formal agencies.
 Reason (R): Socialization is a simple and linear 
process that takes place in a well-planned manner.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Jean Piaget’s constructivism proposes that 
children progress through four stages of cognitive 
development primarily:
(1) by acting upon the environment.
(2) through social interactions with more 
knowledgeable others.
(3) by imitation of others.
(4) through anticipation of rewards.
5. According to Jean Piaget, at which stage of cognitive 
development can children ‘operate on operations’ 
and perform hypothetico-deductive thinking?
(1) Sensori-motor Stage
(2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) Formal Operational Stage
6. ...............  is very important in Lev Vygotsky’s theory 
for cognitive development of children.
(1) Cultural tools (2) Maturation
(3) Punishment (4) Adaptation
7. One of the major differences in the theories of Jean 
Piaget and Lev Vygotsky is:
(1) Piaget emphasized on the role of language in 
cognitive development.
(2) Vygotsky gave primary importance to hereditary 
capacities in learning.
(3) Vygotsky emphasized the role of culture in 
cognitive development.
(4) Piaget gave importance to what the child can 
do on her own as well as what she can do with 
support.
8. Carol Gilligan critiqued Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory 
of moral development by arguing that men have 
morality of ...............  while women have morality of 
............... .
(1) justice; care
(2) care; justice
(3) goodness; sacrifice
(4) sacrifice; goodness
9. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of 
the type of intelligence and the end state possibilities 
as per the theory of Howard Gardner?
(1) Intelligence-Linguistic, End State Possibility- 
Accountant
(2) Intelligence-Spatial, End State Possibility- 
Architect
(3) Intelligence- Bodily kinesthetic, End State 
Possibility- Singer
(4) Intelligence-Naturalistic, kinesthetic-Teacher
10. National Education Policy 2020 considers 
multilingualism
(1) as a hindrance in children’s learning.
(2) as an asset in the classrooms.
(3) as a unnecessary complication in teaching-
learning process.
(4) as a barrier to inclusive education.
11. In child-centered education, assessment
(1) is undertaken through few periodic examinations.
(2) takes place through written objective type tests.
(3) does not take place at all.
(4) is considered an integral part in the process of 
learning.
12. What does National Education Policy 2020 propose 
for retention of students from socio-economically 
disadvantaged groups?
(1) Rote learning
(2) Standardisation of curriculum and assessment
(3) Performance-oriented testing
(4) Relatable and meaningful curriculum
CTET SOLVED PAPERS
Paper - 2 (Social Science)
6th January, 2022
  
13. In several middle school classrooms it is observed 
that boys often raise their hands to answer more than 
girls and tend to dominate classroom discussions. In 
such context, the teacher should
(1) accept that boys are more intelligent than girls.
(2) accept that girls do not have the potential to 
study in middle class.
(3) analyze how gender differences are inborn and 
cannot be modified.
(4) analyze the context of the children and her own 
pedagogy.
14. Which of the following defines a progressive 
classrooms?
(1) Learning for exams
(2) Focus on experiential learning
(3) Decontextualized curriculum
(4) Teacher centric pedagogy
15. Which of the following questions tests higher-order 
thinking skills such as analysis and evaluation?
(1) What differences do you find between private 
and public health services in your area and why?
(2) What does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 state?
(3) How many states are there in India?
(4) How are the members of Legislative Assembly 
elected?
16. With respect to inclusion of students with disabilities 
in regular schools, which of the following provision 
is against the Rights of persons with disabilities Act 
(2016)?
(1) Extra time for completion of examination paper
(2) Facility of scribe to meet the students’ needs
(3) Compulsory second and third language courses
(4) Reasonable accommodation as per individual’s 
needs
17. To address the diverse learning needs of the 
students, which of the following is a barrier?
(1) Engagement in the activities in multiple ways
(2) Expression of opinion in multiple ways
(3) Labeling and ranking of students in multiple 
ways
(4) Representation of information in multiple ways
18. Which of the following learning disability directly 
affects communication skills and comprehension 
abilities?
(1) Dyscalculia (2) Dysgraphia
(3) Dysphoria (4) Dysphasia
19. To ensure the successful inclusion of students with 
Dysgraphia, it is important to:
(1) allow use of audio recorder or a laptop in class
(2) extensively use written tests for assessment
(3) make it compulsory to write on plain/unruled 
sheets
(4) set fixed timeline to finish the given work
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 
student with ‘creativity’?
(1) Their problem-solving skills are of higher order
(2) They can solve problems through divergent 
ways
(3) They have low sense of curiosity to learn new 
topics
(4) They often come up with novel ideas and 
innovations
21. Teachers in a middle grade classroom should:
(1) be open to make adaptations as per learners’ 
needs
(2) focus their attention majorly on high achievers
(3) ignore learner diversity in the classroom
(4) use one standardized mode of assessment only
22. Assertion (A): While teaching a concept, a teacher 
should encourage her students to brainstorm the 
instances and examples of contrast.
 Reason (R): Non-examples don’t play any role in 
understanding of a concept.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
23. Few students in a class were not able to achieve the 
individual learning goals set for them. In such a 
scenario, a teacher should:
(1) consider their failure as dishonourable and 
shameful.
(2) expel these students and recommend them to a 
special school.
(3) keep very low expectations of success from them 
in future endeavours.
(4) view failure as a part of the developmental 
process of learning.
24. A teacher intends to assess declarative knowledge 
among her students. Which of the following 
question is appropriate for this purpose?
(1) How to bake a cake?
(2) How to balance a bicycle on a rough terrain?
(3) What is the formula for calculating ‘volume’?
(4) What is the procedure of soil preparation for 
wheat plantation?
25. A teacher intends to facilitate the development of 
metacognition among her students. Which of the 
following skills won’t be helpful for this purpose?
(1) Evaluating (2) Monitoring
(3) Planning (4) Rote-memorisation
26. Constructivist approach considers learning as:
(1) disorganised and unilateral
(2) idiosyncratic and disconnected
(3) interactive and active
(4) passive and dependent
27. Which of the following step is likely to hinder 
problem-solving skills among students?
(1) Activating the schema to comprehend the 
problem
(2) Focusing attention on relevant information 
about problem
(3) Getting stuck on one fixed way of representing a 
problem
(4) Identifying the possible solutions of the problem
28. Contemporary perspectives of cognitive 
development view misconceptions as:
(1) completely insignifcant and an obstacle for 
teaching-learning process.
(2) Higher-order metacognitive skills found typically 
in ‘gifted’ students.
(3) Naive ideas and understanding having their 
roots in ones’ past experiences.
(4) Neurological deficits and identifying 
characteristics of Dyslexia.
  
29. Students with performance-avoidance goals focus 
on
(1) enjoyment of activity (2) fear of failing
(3) hope of success (4) sense of pride
30. Which of the following set of attributions on success 
or failure on a task is likely to cause increase in 
students’ motivation and attempts to engage in 
similar tasks in the future?
(1) External, Non-controllable
(2) External, Stable
(3) Internal, Stable
(4) Internal, Controllable
Social Science/Social Studies
31. Which of the following statements are correct about 
the famous epic Silapadikaram:
A. It was composed by Ilango
B. It was composed in Tamil language
C. This describes the story of the daughter of 
Kovalan and Madhavi
D. It was composed around 500 years ago.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) C and D only (4) A, C, and D only
32. Which of the following political powers were the 
three parties, in the “tripartite struggle” for the 
control of Kannauj?
(1) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala
(2) Chola, Chalukya and Pandya
(3) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chalukya
(4) Rashtrakuta, Chalukya and Pala
33. Ashokan inscriptions have been found in several 
places within and outside the country.
 Which of the following options show the correct 
locations?
(1) Kalibangan, Chanhudaro, Dholavira, Sotkakoh
(2) Jaugada, Maski, Topra, Lampaka
(3) Ganweriwala, Inamgaon, Daojali Hading
(4) Hunsgi, Bhimbetka, Kurnool, Paiyampalli
34. Two thousand years ago, a trader narrates that he 
has been to Gaza, Petra and Apologos.
 Which of the following trade routes has he travelled 
through?
(1) Route controlled by Roman emperors
(2) Route under the rulers of Persia
(3) Route controlled by Kushanas
(4) Route under the rulers of China
35. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Statement (A): Behind Emperor Shahjahan’s throne, 
peitra dura images depicted the legendary Greek 
God Orpheus playing the lute. It was believed that 
Orpheu’s music could calm ferocious beasts until 
they coexited together peaceably.
 Statement (B): The construction of Shahjahan’s 
audience hall aimed to communicate that all could 
live together in harmony.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the 
correct explanation of (A).
36. Which of the following are true about Rigvedic 
society?
A. There was no regular army.
B. Some of the hymns were composed by women.
C. Dasas and Dasyus also performed sacrifices.
D. The Rajas did not have capital cities or palaces.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only (4) B and D only
37. “Just as the waters of rivers lose their names and 
separateness when they flow into the mighty ocean, 
so are Varna and ranks and family forgotten…..”. 
Above statement is taken from which one of the 
following text?
(1) Buddhist text (2) Jaina text
(3) Pali text (4) Vedic text
38. The ‘nij’ system of indigo cultivation had its own set 
of problems for the peasants during the East India 
Company. Which of the following problems that 
they faced was a consequence of the ‘nij’ system?
(1) Those living around the indigo factory faced 
eviction from their land.
(2) One-fourth of their land were forced into indigo-
cultivation.
(3) Contracts got them cash advances but the debt 
kept increasing.
(4) The village headmen were forcing them to sign 
contracts.
39. Who among the following published a book, 
‘Stripurushatulna’ criticising the social differences 
between men and women.
(1) Pandita Ramabai
(2) Savitribai Phule
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(4) Tarabai Shinde
40. Which of the following was associated with the 
movement against caste distinction?
(1) Sanatam Dharma Sabhas
(2) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
(3) Satnami Movement
(4) Brahman Sabha
41. Assertion (A): The Satnami movement in Central 
India was founded by Ghasi Das.
 Reason (R): By the second half of the nineteenth 
century, people from within the “lower” castes began 
organising movements against caste discrimination 
and demanded social equality and justice.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
42. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Assertion (A): The Non-cooperation Movement 
gained momentum through 1921-22.
 Reason (R): Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, 
C. R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up 
their practices.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
   
43. Read the following statements A and B and choose 
the correct option.
(A) After 1919, the struggle against the British rule 
gradually became a mass movement, involving 
peasants, tribals, students and women and 
Mahatma Gandhi emerged as a mass leader.
(B) At times, using Gandhiji’s name, tribals and 
peasants undertook actions that did not confirm 
to Gandhian ideals.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.
44. Which of the following features are mentioned in 
the Indian Constitution, which came into effect on 
26 January 1950?
(A) Adoption of Universal adult franchise.
(B) All Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed 
to vote in state and national elections.
(1) (A) is incorrect, (B) is correct.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is correct, (B) is incorrect.
45. Identify the type of celestial bodies from the 
characteristics given below.
A. They are made up of gases.
B. They have their own heat and light.
C. They are big and hot.
(1) Galaxies (2) Stars
(3) Planets (4) Satellites
46. Which of the following represents the correct 
matching of heat zones of the earth?
a. Torrid zone (i) Area lying between the 
Tropic of Cancer and the 
Arctic Circle.
b. T emperate 
zone
(ii) Area lying between the 
Arctic Circle and the North 
Pole
c. Frigid zone (iii) Area lying between the 
Tropic of Cancer and the 
Tropic of Capricorn.
 Choose the correct option:
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii) (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii) (4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
47. Identify the meridian of longitude from the given 
characteristics.
A. The value of the line is 0°.
B. The line runs from North Pole to South Pole.
C. The line passes through Greenwich.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) 180°E and 180°W Meridian
(2) Tropic of cancer
(3) Equador
(4) Prime Meridian
48. Which of the following is correct matching of the 
longitudes and latitudes?
A. Indian Standard Meridian (i) 0°
B. Greenwich Meridian (ii) 66½°S
C. Antarctic Circle (iii) 23½°N
D. Tropic of Cancer (iv) 82½°E
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
49. Mediterranean vegetation is found in which of the 
following regions.
A. Central America B. California in the USA
C. South-West Africa D. South-West Australia
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
50. Read the statements and choose the correct option. 
 Assertion (A): Three-fourths of the Earth’s surface is 
covered by water.
 Reason (R): There is more salt water than fresh 
water on Earth’s surface.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
51. From the given processes below choose the processes 
involved in a water cycle.
A. Condensation B. Insolation
C. Evaporation D. Precipitation
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
52. Land breeze, sea breeze, and loo are ............... .
(1) seasonal winds (2) planetary winds
(3) local winds (4) permanent winds
53. Read the statements related to air pressure and 
choose the correct option.
A. Air pressure is the pressure exerted by the 
weight of clouds on the earth’s surface.
B. Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and 
wet weather.
(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) A is false, B is true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) A is true, B is false.
54. Which of the following is the correct matching of 
different resources and their characteristics?
A. Non-renewable 
Resources
(i) get renewed or 
replenished quickly
B. Actual Resources (ii) whose quantity is 
known
C. Renewable 
Resources
(iii) whose entity quantity 
may not be known
D. Potential 
Resources
(iv) have limited stock
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
55. Which of the following is the correct way to conserve 
resources?
A. Reusing used items
B. Discarding items after use.
C. Reducing items consumed.
D. Recycling items after use.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and D (4) B, C and D
Page 5


  
 
Time: 2 hours 30 mins. Total Marks: 150
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. Assertion (A): Children are unable to learn optimally 
when they are undernourished or unwell.
 Reason (R): All domains of development are inter-
related-physical development has an impact on 
cognitive development.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. Which principle of development does this illustrate: 
The child learns to stand before she can walk and 
babble before she talks?
(1) Development is sequential
(2) Development proceeds from head to toe
(3) Development is disorderly
(4) Development progresses from centre to the 
extremities.
3. Assertion (A): Children learn the knowledge, skills, 
values and customs of the society only through 
formal agencies.
 Reason (R): Socialization is a simple and linear 
process that takes place in a well-planned manner.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Jean Piaget’s constructivism proposes that 
children progress through four stages of cognitive 
development primarily:
(1) by acting upon the environment.
(2) through social interactions with more 
knowledgeable others.
(3) by imitation of others.
(4) through anticipation of rewards.
5. According to Jean Piaget, at which stage of cognitive 
development can children ‘operate on operations’ 
and perform hypothetico-deductive thinking?
(1) Sensori-motor Stage
(2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) Formal Operational Stage
6. ...............  is very important in Lev Vygotsky’s theory 
for cognitive development of children.
(1) Cultural tools (2) Maturation
(3) Punishment (4) Adaptation
7. One of the major differences in the theories of Jean 
Piaget and Lev Vygotsky is:
(1) Piaget emphasized on the role of language in 
cognitive development.
(2) Vygotsky gave primary importance to hereditary 
capacities in learning.
(3) Vygotsky emphasized the role of culture in 
cognitive development.
(4) Piaget gave importance to what the child can 
do on her own as well as what she can do with 
support.
8. Carol Gilligan critiqued Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory 
of moral development by arguing that men have 
morality of ...............  while women have morality of 
............... .
(1) justice; care
(2) care; justice
(3) goodness; sacrifice
(4) sacrifice; goodness
9. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of 
the type of intelligence and the end state possibilities 
as per the theory of Howard Gardner?
(1) Intelligence-Linguistic, End State Possibility- 
Accountant
(2) Intelligence-Spatial, End State Possibility- 
Architect
(3) Intelligence- Bodily kinesthetic, End State 
Possibility- Singer
(4) Intelligence-Naturalistic, kinesthetic-Teacher
10. National Education Policy 2020 considers 
multilingualism
(1) as a hindrance in children’s learning.
(2) as an asset in the classrooms.
(3) as a unnecessary complication in teaching-
learning process.
(4) as a barrier to inclusive education.
11. In child-centered education, assessment
(1) is undertaken through few periodic examinations.
(2) takes place through written objective type tests.
(3) does not take place at all.
(4) is considered an integral part in the process of 
learning.
12. What does National Education Policy 2020 propose 
for retention of students from socio-economically 
disadvantaged groups?
(1) Rote learning
(2) Standardisation of curriculum and assessment
(3) Performance-oriented testing
(4) Relatable and meaningful curriculum
CTET SOLVED PAPERS
Paper - 2 (Social Science)
6th January, 2022
  
13. In several middle school classrooms it is observed 
that boys often raise their hands to answer more than 
girls and tend to dominate classroom discussions. In 
such context, the teacher should
(1) accept that boys are more intelligent than girls.
(2) accept that girls do not have the potential to 
study in middle class.
(3) analyze how gender differences are inborn and 
cannot be modified.
(4) analyze the context of the children and her own 
pedagogy.
14. Which of the following defines a progressive 
classrooms?
(1) Learning for exams
(2) Focus on experiential learning
(3) Decontextualized curriculum
(4) Teacher centric pedagogy
15. Which of the following questions tests higher-order 
thinking skills such as analysis and evaluation?
(1) What differences do you find between private 
and public health services in your area and why?
(2) What does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 state?
(3) How many states are there in India?
(4) How are the members of Legislative Assembly 
elected?
16. With respect to inclusion of students with disabilities 
in regular schools, which of the following provision 
is against the Rights of persons with disabilities Act 
(2016)?
(1) Extra time for completion of examination paper
(2) Facility of scribe to meet the students’ needs
(3) Compulsory second and third language courses
(4) Reasonable accommodation as per individual’s 
needs
17. To address the diverse learning needs of the 
students, which of the following is a barrier?
(1) Engagement in the activities in multiple ways
(2) Expression of opinion in multiple ways
(3) Labeling and ranking of students in multiple 
ways
(4) Representation of information in multiple ways
18. Which of the following learning disability directly 
affects communication skills and comprehension 
abilities?
(1) Dyscalculia (2) Dysgraphia
(3) Dysphoria (4) Dysphasia
19. To ensure the successful inclusion of students with 
Dysgraphia, it is important to:
(1) allow use of audio recorder or a laptop in class
(2) extensively use written tests for assessment
(3) make it compulsory to write on plain/unruled 
sheets
(4) set fixed timeline to finish the given work
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 
student with ‘creativity’?
(1) Their problem-solving skills are of higher order
(2) They can solve problems through divergent 
ways
(3) They have low sense of curiosity to learn new 
topics
(4) They often come up with novel ideas and 
innovations
21. Teachers in a middle grade classroom should:
(1) be open to make adaptations as per learners’ 
needs
(2) focus their attention majorly on high achievers
(3) ignore learner diversity in the classroom
(4) use one standardized mode of assessment only
22. Assertion (A): While teaching a concept, a teacher 
should encourage her students to brainstorm the 
instances and examples of contrast.
 Reason (R): Non-examples don’t play any role in 
understanding of a concept.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
23. Few students in a class were not able to achieve the 
individual learning goals set for them. In such a 
scenario, a teacher should:
(1) consider their failure as dishonourable and 
shameful.
(2) expel these students and recommend them to a 
special school.
(3) keep very low expectations of success from them 
in future endeavours.
(4) view failure as a part of the developmental 
process of learning.
24. A teacher intends to assess declarative knowledge 
among her students. Which of the following 
question is appropriate for this purpose?
(1) How to bake a cake?
(2) How to balance a bicycle on a rough terrain?
(3) What is the formula for calculating ‘volume’?
(4) What is the procedure of soil preparation for 
wheat plantation?
25. A teacher intends to facilitate the development of 
metacognition among her students. Which of the 
following skills won’t be helpful for this purpose?
(1) Evaluating (2) Monitoring
(3) Planning (4) Rote-memorisation
26. Constructivist approach considers learning as:
(1) disorganised and unilateral
(2) idiosyncratic and disconnected
(3) interactive and active
(4) passive and dependent
27. Which of the following step is likely to hinder 
problem-solving skills among students?
(1) Activating the schema to comprehend the 
problem
(2) Focusing attention on relevant information 
about problem
(3) Getting stuck on one fixed way of representing a 
problem
(4) Identifying the possible solutions of the problem
28. Contemporary perspectives of cognitive 
development view misconceptions as:
(1) completely insignifcant and an obstacle for 
teaching-learning process.
(2) Higher-order metacognitive skills found typically 
in ‘gifted’ students.
(3) Naive ideas and understanding having their 
roots in ones’ past experiences.
(4) Neurological deficits and identifying 
characteristics of Dyslexia.
  
29. Students with performance-avoidance goals focus 
on
(1) enjoyment of activity (2) fear of failing
(3) hope of success (4) sense of pride
30. Which of the following set of attributions on success 
or failure on a task is likely to cause increase in 
students’ motivation and attempts to engage in 
similar tasks in the future?
(1) External, Non-controllable
(2) External, Stable
(3) Internal, Stable
(4) Internal, Controllable
Social Science/Social Studies
31. Which of the following statements are correct about 
the famous epic Silapadikaram:
A. It was composed by Ilango
B. It was composed in Tamil language
C. This describes the story of the daughter of 
Kovalan and Madhavi
D. It was composed around 500 years ago.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) C and D only (4) A, C, and D only
32. Which of the following political powers were the 
three parties, in the “tripartite struggle” for the 
control of Kannauj?
(1) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala
(2) Chola, Chalukya and Pandya
(3) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chalukya
(4) Rashtrakuta, Chalukya and Pala
33. Ashokan inscriptions have been found in several 
places within and outside the country.
 Which of the following options show the correct 
locations?
(1) Kalibangan, Chanhudaro, Dholavira, Sotkakoh
(2) Jaugada, Maski, Topra, Lampaka
(3) Ganweriwala, Inamgaon, Daojali Hading
(4) Hunsgi, Bhimbetka, Kurnool, Paiyampalli
34. Two thousand years ago, a trader narrates that he 
has been to Gaza, Petra and Apologos.
 Which of the following trade routes has he travelled 
through?
(1) Route controlled by Roman emperors
(2) Route under the rulers of Persia
(3) Route controlled by Kushanas
(4) Route under the rulers of China
35. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Statement (A): Behind Emperor Shahjahan’s throne, 
peitra dura images depicted the legendary Greek 
God Orpheus playing the lute. It was believed that 
Orpheu’s music could calm ferocious beasts until 
they coexited together peaceably.
 Statement (B): The construction of Shahjahan’s 
audience hall aimed to communicate that all could 
live together in harmony.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the 
correct explanation of (A).
36. Which of the following are true about Rigvedic 
society?
A. There was no regular army.
B. Some of the hymns were composed by women.
C. Dasas and Dasyus also performed sacrifices.
D. The Rajas did not have capital cities or palaces.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only (4) B and D only
37. “Just as the waters of rivers lose their names and 
separateness when they flow into the mighty ocean, 
so are Varna and ranks and family forgotten…..”. 
Above statement is taken from which one of the 
following text?
(1) Buddhist text (2) Jaina text
(3) Pali text (4) Vedic text
38. The ‘nij’ system of indigo cultivation had its own set 
of problems for the peasants during the East India 
Company. Which of the following problems that 
they faced was a consequence of the ‘nij’ system?
(1) Those living around the indigo factory faced 
eviction from their land.
(2) One-fourth of their land were forced into indigo-
cultivation.
(3) Contracts got them cash advances but the debt 
kept increasing.
(4) The village headmen were forcing them to sign 
contracts.
39. Who among the following published a book, 
‘Stripurushatulna’ criticising the social differences 
between men and women.
(1) Pandita Ramabai
(2) Savitribai Phule
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(4) Tarabai Shinde
40. Which of the following was associated with the 
movement against caste distinction?
(1) Sanatam Dharma Sabhas
(2) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
(3) Satnami Movement
(4) Brahman Sabha
41. Assertion (A): The Satnami movement in Central 
India was founded by Ghasi Das.
 Reason (R): By the second half of the nineteenth 
century, people from within the “lower” castes began 
organising movements against caste discrimination 
and demanded social equality and justice.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
42. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Assertion (A): The Non-cooperation Movement 
gained momentum through 1921-22.
 Reason (R): Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, 
C. R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up 
their practices.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
   
43. Read the following statements A and B and choose 
the correct option.
(A) After 1919, the struggle against the British rule 
gradually became a mass movement, involving 
peasants, tribals, students and women and 
Mahatma Gandhi emerged as a mass leader.
(B) At times, using Gandhiji’s name, tribals and 
peasants undertook actions that did not confirm 
to Gandhian ideals.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.
44. Which of the following features are mentioned in 
the Indian Constitution, which came into effect on 
26 January 1950?
(A) Adoption of Universal adult franchise.
(B) All Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed 
to vote in state and national elections.
(1) (A) is incorrect, (B) is correct.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is correct, (B) is incorrect.
45. Identify the type of celestial bodies from the 
characteristics given below.
A. They are made up of gases.
B. They have their own heat and light.
C. They are big and hot.
(1) Galaxies (2) Stars
(3) Planets (4) Satellites
46. Which of the following represents the correct 
matching of heat zones of the earth?
a. Torrid zone (i) Area lying between the 
Tropic of Cancer and the 
Arctic Circle.
b. T emperate 
zone
(ii) Area lying between the 
Arctic Circle and the North 
Pole
c. Frigid zone (iii) Area lying between the 
Tropic of Cancer and the 
Tropic of Capricorn.
 Choose the correct option:
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii) (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii) (4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
47. Identify the meridian of longitude from the given 
characteristics.
A. The value of the line is 0°.
B. The line runs from North Pole to South Pole.
C. The line passes through Greenwich.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) 180°E and 180°W Meridian
(2) Tropic of cancer
(3) Equador
(4) Prime Meridian
48. Which of the following is correct matching of the 
longitudes and latitudes?
A. Indian Standard Meridian (i) 0°
B. Greenwich Meridian (ii) 66½°S
C. Antarctic Circle (iii) 23½°N
D. Tropic of Cancer (iv) 82½°E
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
49. Mediterranean vegetation is found in which of the 
following regions.
A. Central America B. California in the USA
C. South-West Africa D. South-West Australia
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
50. Read the statements and choose the correct option. 
 Assertion (A): Three-fourths of the Earth’s surface is 
covered by water.
 Reason (R): There is more salt water than fresh 
water on Earth’s surface.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
51. From the given processes below choose the processes 
involved in a water cycle.
A. Condensation B. Insolation
C. Evaporation D. Precipitation
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
52. Land breeze, sea breeze, and loo are ............... .
(1) seasonal winds (2) planetary winds
(3) local winds (4) permanent winds
53. Read the statements related to air pressure and 
choose the correct option.
A. Air pressure is the pressure exerted by the 
weight of clouds on the earth’s surface.
B. Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and 
wet weather.
(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) A is false, B is true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) A is true, B is false.
54. Which of the following is the correct matching of 
different resources and their characteristics?
A. Non-renewable 
Resources
(i) get renewed or 
replenished quickly
B. Actual Resources (ii) whose quantity is 
known
C. Renewable 
Resources
(iii) whose entity quantity 
may not be known
D. Potential 
Resources
(iv) have limited stock
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
55. Which of the following is the correct way to conserve 
resources?
A. Reusing used items
B. Discarding items after use.
C. Reducing items consumed.
D. Recycling items after use.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and D (4) B, C and D
  
56. Which of the following statement related to 
resources is incorrect?
(1) Air, water, soil and minerals are natural resources.
(2) Resources can become economically valuable 
with time.
(3) People themselves are not resources.
(4) Time and technology are two important factors 
that can change substances into resources.
57. Match the following economic activities with the 
categories mentioned.
A. Primary 
activities
(i) Baking of bread and 
weaving
B. Secondary 
activities
(ii) Agriculture and fishing
C. T ertiary 
activities
(iii) trade and transport
 Choose the correct option.
(1) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii). (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii).
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i). (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii).
58. Kesar Saga is performed in which region of India?
(1) West Bengal (2) Assam
(3) Ladakh (4) Sikkim
59. Read the statements and choose the correct option.
 Statement (A): People with different cultural, 
religious and regional backgrounds participated in 
India’s struggle for independence and gained long 
awaited freedom.
 Statement (B): India’s diversity has always been a 
source of its strength.
(1) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for 
(A).
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the reason 
for (A).
60. State true or false.
A. The Council of Ministers in a state constitutes 
the Chief Minister and ministers appointed by 
him.
B. The Legislative Assembly consists of both 
opposition and ruling MLAs
C. An MP is a representative elected by the people 
to become a member of Legislative Assembly.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Only A is true.
(2) Only A and B are true.
(3) Only B and C are true.
(4) Only C is true.
61. Which of the following is also a responsibility of the 
State governments?
(1) Defence (2) Foreign Affairs
(3) Education (4) Banking
62. Weavers get the best price in the:
(1) Putting-out system
(2) Co-operatives
(3) Garment export factory
(4) International market
63. Why do agricultural labourers in India at times 
receive wages that are less than the market-
prevailing wage rates?
(A) As it is fixed by the government hence they 
accept.
(B) They may have borrowed from the farmers who 
employ them.
(C) They could get regular employment from low-
usage paying farmers.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) Only (A) and (B). (2) Only (B) and (C).
(3) Only (A) and (C). (4) Only (A).
64. Read the following statements and choose the 
correct option.
 Assertion (A): In a Democracy, people have the 
power to voice their opinion.
 Reason (R): India has a federal form of government.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
65. Read the statements given below and choose the 
correct option.
A. All societies do not think similarly about the 
roles that boys and girls play.
B. Indian society does not make distinctions 
between boys and girls when they are growing 
up.
(1) Only A is true.
(2) Only B is true.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.
66. The tyranny of the majority means:
(1) the majority and minority take decisions 
collectively.
(2) the interests of the majority are pursued at the 
cost of minority interests.
(3) the numerical dominance of one community.
(4) the majority and minority follow different paths.
67. Secularism as a concept in Indian Constitution, is 
reflected in which of the following situations?
(1) In a particular place, only one religion is allowed 
to be practiced.
(2) Display of religious symbols in courts and police 
stations.
(3) State refrains from intervening when members 
of one community dominate other members 
from same community.
(4) People have the freedom to practice their religion 
without any discrimination.
68. Which of the following guarantees the independence 
of judiciary in India?
A. The other branches of government cannot 
interfere in the work of judiciary.
B. The conduct of the judges can be discussed in 
the Parliament.
C. The judges cannot be removed from the office 
on grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
D. The judges can practice after retirement.
 Choose the correct option.
(1) B and D (2) A and C
(3) only A (4) Only D