Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Class 10: Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

The document Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10 is a part of the Class 10 Course CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10.
All you need of Class 10 at this link: Class 10

Class X
Time: 90 Minutes 

M.M: 40 

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
 
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case-Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking. 

Section A

Q.1: The feeling of nationalism was illustrated by a ........................ artist Frédéric Sorrieu.
(a) English
(b) French
(c) Russian
(d) Spanish 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Frédéric Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a world made up of Democratic and Social Republic in 1948.


Q.2: The civil code of 1804 in France is also known as:
(a) The French Civil Code.
(b) The French Revolutionary Code.
(c) European Imperial Code.
(d) Napoleon Code
 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
When Napoleon returned to Monarchy in France, he destroyed democracy in France. Also in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system rational and efficient. He introduced Civil Code in 1804 which was also known as t cities of Europe. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the


Q.3: Identify the term with regard to ‘Utopian society from the options given below:
(a) It is a society that is unlikely to ever exist.
(b) It is a society under Parliamentary Democracy.
(c) It is a society under the control of a chosen few wise men.
(d) It is a society under a benevolent monarchy. 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
A Utopian Society is a vision of society that is so ideal that is unlikely to exist in reality.


Q.4: Find the incorrect option about ‘French Revolution’:
(a) It led to the transfer of sovereignty from Monarchy to a body of French citizens.
(b) The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(c) A centralized administrative system was to be put in place of old and formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
(d) Imprecation of internal customs duties and due will continue to exist in France.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Internal custom duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.


Q.5: What was the purpose of Jacobin clubs?
(a) To demoralize the people
(b) To socialize among different races
(c) To speak against France
(d) To hold activities and campaigns 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Jacobin clubs were wet up by students and other member of the educated middle classes in different cities of Europe. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.


Q.6: Which one of the following types of resources in Iron-ore 2
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Iron- ore is a mineral and these type of resources take millions of years in their formation.


Q.7: How much is the total degraded land in our country?
(a) 133 million hectares
(b) 135 million hectares
(c) 140 million hectares
(d) 130 million hectares 
 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Some human activities such as deforestation, over grazing, mining and quarrying have contributed significantly in land degradation of our country. India’s 130 million hectares of land is a part of degradation.


Q.8: Which of the following are the two main wheat-growing regions in India?
(a) the Ganga- Satluj Plains and the Deccan Trap
(b) Konkan Coast and Deccan Plateau
(c) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains
(d) None of the above 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
There are two important wheat  growing  zones  in  India  they are—The Ganga- Satluj Plains in the North-West and Black soil region of the Deccan Trap.


Q.9: Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over-irrigation
(d) Overgrazing 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
In Punjab over-irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.


Q.10: In Northern India which is the most common soil?
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Laterite soil 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The entire Northern Plains are made of Alluvial Soil which have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems–The Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.


Q.11: Belgium is a small country in Europe, its area is smaller than:
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar
 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
A Area of Haryana is 44,212 km2 and area of Belgium is 30, 689 km2. So area of Belgium is smaller than Haryana.


Q.12: Capital of Belgium is:
(a) Brussels
(b) Mons
(c) Namur
(d) Ostend 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Brussels is the capital city of Belgium.


Q.13: Out of 193 countries in the world, only ................... countries have a federal political system.
(a) 72
(b) 06
(c) 25
(d) 29 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
There are total 195 countries in the world out of which 193 are member of UN and among these only 25 largest democracies have federal political system.


Q.14: A system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country is called:
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Unitary system
(c) Monarchy
(d) Federalism 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between central authority and various constituent units of the country.


Q.15: When did Belgium shift from a unitary to a federal form of government?
(a) 1993
(b) 1963
(c) 1983
(d) 1973 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
In Belgium the regional governments were gives constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the central government from 1993.


Q.16: Belgium ------ percent population lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language  
(a) 29
(b) 39
(c) 49
(d) 59 

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.17: Belgium shares its borders with:
(a) Luxembourg of the Netherlands
(b) Germany and France
(c) France, the Netherlands, Germany, and Luxembourg
(d) None of the above 

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.18: Which sector of the Indian economy is in an alarming situation?
(a) Industry
(b) Services
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The growth rate in agriculture has been decelerating. In 2013-14 it was 4.2 but it had dropped drastically to -0.2 which is an alarming situation. It increased slightly to 1.1 in the year 2015-16, which is also not the satisfactory figure for country like India which is an agricultural economy, and agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.


Q.19: What is the developmental goal of an urban family girl?
(a) Entertainment facilities
(b) Freedom like her brother
(c) Higher education in a foreign country
(d) More pocket money 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The developmental goal of an urban family girl is to get freedom like her brother. She should not be restricted to remain at home and do household job alone.


Q.20: Which of the following examples comes under Organized Sector?
(a) A daily wage painter
(b) A daily wage Carpenter
(c) A Vegetable Vendor
(d) A Teacher teaching in Primary School. 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
A Teacher teaching in Primary school comes under Organized Sector become that school is registered by government and is owned by government teachers gets regular pay and some provident fund and gratuity when he/she retires. But a daily wage Painters, Carpenter and Vegetable vendor are selfemployed doing small jobs on ways and selling vegetable on the street their income is not fixed. They all come in an unorganized sector.


Q.21: The quality of our life also depends on:
(a) material things
(b) Money
(c) Non-material things
(d) None of the above 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The quality of our life also depends on non-material things like friendship of a friend, besides money or material things that one can buy with.


Q.22: Besides seeking more Income, one-way or the other, people also seek:
(a) Freedom
(b) Security
(c) Respect of others
(d) All of the above 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Besides seeking more Income, One-way or the other, People also seek freedom, Security, respect of others and equal treatment in the society.


Q.23: When we provide a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of:
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Organized Sector 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
When we provide a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of Primary Sector, e.g., producing sugar from the sugarcane is a primary activity.


Q.24: In which category does India fall?
(a) Low-Income countries
(b) Low-Middle-Income countries
(c) Higher-Income-Countries
(d) High-Middle-Income countries

Correct Answer is Option (b)
India comes in the category of Law-Middle-Income countries because its per capita income in 2019 was just US $ 1900 per annum.

Section B

Q.25: Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: 
Agenda 21 was a declaration signed by the world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) which takes place in
(a) The United States of America
(b) Brazil
(c) Germany
(d) United Kingdoms 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
It was held in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil.


Q.26: Study the following data and answer the questions that follow:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
In which year GDP of India was lowest? 
(a) 2013-14
(b) 2014-15
(c) 2015-16
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The GDP is growing over the year. It was 6.6 (lowest) in the year 2013-14. In 2014-15 it went to 7.2 and it was (Highest) 7.6 in the year 2015-16.


Q.27: Analyze the information given below considered one of the following correct options: This sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Unorganized sector

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.28: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion  (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): Napolean introduced many of the reforms within the wide suitable of territory that come under his control, that he had already introduced in France.
Reason (R): The civil code of 1804–usually known as the Napoleonic Code–did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law, and secured the right to property.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Napoleon introduced the following changes to make the administrative system more efficient in the areas ruled by him:

  • He established civil code in 1804 also known as the Napoleonic Code. It did away with all privileges based on birth. It established equality before the law and secured the right to property.
  • He simplified administrative divisions, the abolished feudal system, and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
  • In towns too, guild systems were removed.
  • Transport and communication systems were improved.
  • Peasants, artisans, businessmen and workers enjoyed the newfound freedom.


Q.29: Which of the following option best signifies this caricature?
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

(a) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(b) Victor Emmanuel II in the Italian Parliament
(c) Kaiser William II in the Prussian Parliament
(d) Napolean Bonaparte in the French Parliament

Correct Answer is Option (a)
In the given image, Bismarck is having hunter in his hand which shows how his subordinates were afraid of Bismarck when he become autocratic during assemblies.


Q.30: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
(a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

Correct Answer is Option (b)
(i) In Roman, Liber means free.
(ii) Elle was used to measure cloth.
(iii) In French, citizens who lived inside city walls known as 'le citoyen'.
(iv) In French, 'la Patrie means 'the fatherland'.


Q.31: Find the incorrect option from the following:
(a) During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists undergrounds.
(b) Secret Societies sprang up in many Indian states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
(c) To be a revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom.
(d) Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Secret Societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.


Q.32: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): The constitution of India originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the State Governments.
Reason (R): Later, the third tier of the federation was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or what we call the Central government, representing the Union of India and the State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities.


Q.33: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): Union List includes subjects of national importance such as the defense of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communication, and currency.
Reason (R): They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule:
(i) The Parliament has exclusive powers to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List. This list has at present 100 subjects (originally 97 subjects) like defense, banking, foreign affairs, currency, atomic energy, insurance, communication, inter-state trade and commerce, census, audit and so on.
(ii) The state legislature has in normal circumstances exclusive powers to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List. This has at present 61 subjects (originally 66 subjects) like public order, police, public health and sanitation, agriculture, prisons, local government, fisheries, markets, theaters, gambling and so on.
(iii) Both, the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.


Q.34: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, Freedom Security, and respect for others.
Reason (R): In some cases, these may be more important than more income or more consumption.
 
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The three characteristics of development are as follows:
(i) Different people have different development goals.
(ii) Income is the most important component of development for some people. It may be destructive for the other.
(iii) For development, people look at mixed goals. Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others.


Q.35: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): Money or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which life depends.
Reason (R): It is the only important goal of one’s life.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Like we can buy books from money but not knowledge, for getting knowledge we have to read the books and we cannot buy good health from money and we also cannot buy pollution-free environment, happiness etc. from money.


Q.36: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A): Intermediate goods are used up in producing final goods and services.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the final good.
 
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector and value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.


Q.37: Find the incorrect option: The various measures for sustainable development are:
(a) Increased use of non-renewable resources.
(b) Introduction of organic farming
(c) Controlling overexploitation and creating awareness to provide sustainable development.
(d) Less use of fossil fuels. 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
There should be increased use of renewable resources like solar energy, wind energy which can be renewed in nature. Whereas overuse of non-renewable resources will exhaust them after a few years of use. We have a fixed stock of non-renewable resources on Earth which cannot be replenished.


Q.38: If one buys a packet of biscuits in the market for ₹15, it already includes the:
(a) Value of flour
(b) Value of vegetable oil used
(c) Value of wheat
(d) Value of all (A), (B), and (C)

Correct Answer is Option (d)
In the process of making biscuits, many activities are included in it like buying wheat from farmers, getting grinded by flour mill, the biscuit company uses sugar and oil to make biscuits, their labor cost, packaging cost, transportation, etc., are all included in the cost of biscuit packet (which is the final good) sold in the market for ₹15/packet.


Q.39: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
(a) (i) – (b), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (a)
(b) (i) – (c), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (d)
(c) (i) – (a), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (c)
(d) (i) – (d), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b)

Correct Answer is Option (d)
(i) Economy: The economic framework which helps us to describe the economic life of the country and its people.
(ii) Development: It is also known as progress.
(iii) Sustainable Economic Development: It is the process of economic development which aims to maintain the quality of life of both the present and future generations without having natural resources and the environment.
(iv) National Development: It means an increase in per capita income and also self-sufficiency of an economy.


Q.40: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
(a) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (c)
(b) (i) – (c), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (d)
(c) (i) – (b), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (a)
(d) (i) – (a), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b)

Correct Answer is Option (c)
State List contains subjects of state and local importance while  Union List includes subjects of national importance. In the same manner, there are some subjects which lie in Concurrent List, on which both the central and the state governments can make the laws as well as there are few subjects that were not mentioned in any of the list, which is known as residuary Subjects.


Q.41: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
(a) (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b) 
(b) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d) 
(c) (i) – (c), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (a) 
(d) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (c)

Correct Answer is Option (a)
(i) Economic Activities: It is an activity that gives an income in return, it deals with money.
(ii)  Non- Economic Activity: Activities that do not deal with money or which do not give any income in return.
(iii)  Developing countries: These are the countries in which income rises along with the standard of living. 
(iv) Underdeveloped country: A country that does not have a high income and the standard of living is very low.


Q.42: Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Problems of the two-party system
(b) A car with two steering
(c) Problems of a coalition government
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c)
When two or more political parties form a government & if they both form an opinion to run the government, conflicts arise.


Q.43: Name one prudential reason for power-sharing?
(a) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
(b) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
(c) Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system
(d) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Prudential reasons bring out better outcomes for power-sharing.


Q.44: Find the incorrect option from the following:
(a) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(b) Such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
(c) We call this a vertical distribution of powers.
(d) Because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. 

Correct Answer is Option (c)

When power is shared among different organs at the same level to exercise different powers, it is known as the horizontal distribution of power.


Q.45: Major steps towards decentralization taken in 1992 were:
(a) To hold regular elections of local government bodies.
(b) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.
(c) State Election Commission has been created in each state.
(d) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
According to the 73rd amendment act, 1/3rd of seats are reserved for women apart from the total number of seats in order to uplift and empower them.


Q.46. In which year, a major step was taken towards decentralization?
(a) In 1994
(b) In 1989
(c) In 1992
(d) In 1997

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The major steps were taken towards decentralization after 1992


Section C

Direction: This section consists of the cases. There is a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any All questions from this section.
I. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property, and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realized, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make the state’s power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in the future.
Q.47: Which of the following statement correctly describes European conservative ideology?
(a) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon.
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in the economic sphere.
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Conservatism stands for the people who don’t like changes.


Q.48: Identify the purpose to convene the Congress of Vienna in 1815 from the following options.
(a) To declare competition of German unification.
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian Unification.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
In 1815, the European powers collectively defeated Napoleon to draw up a settlement for Europe.


Q.49: What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.
(a) To reestablish peace and stability in Europe.
(b) To establish socialism in Europe.
(c) To introduce democracy in France.
(d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria.
 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon.


Q.50: How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.
(a) With the restoration of the Bourbon Dynasty
(b) Austria was not given control of Northern Italy
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(d) By giving power to the German confederation 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
A modern army, an efficient  bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.


Q.51: Conservatives did not believe in establishing and preserving _______________
(a) The Monarchy
(b) The Democracy
(c) Social Hierarchies
(d) Traditional institutions of state and society

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.52: Which one of the following was not the result of the Treaty of Vienna 1815?
(a) The kingdom of the Netherlands was set up in the North.
(b) Austria was given control of Northern Italy.
(c) Prussia was given important new territories on its Western frontiers.
(d) Russia was given German confederation of 39 states

Correct Answer is Option (d)


II. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: 
We live on land, we perform our economic activities on land and we use it in different ways. Thus the land is a natural resource of utmost importance. It supports natural vegetation, wildlife, human life, economic activities, transport and communication systems. However, land is an asset of a finite magnitude, therefore, it is important to use the available land for various purpose with careful planning. India has land under a variety of relief features, normally: Mountains, Plateaus, Plains and Islands About 43 percent of land area is plain, which provides facilities for agriculture and industry. Mountains account for 30 percent of total surface area of the country and ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects. About 27 percent of the area of the country is plateau region. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.
Q.53: What supports natural vegetation, wildlife and human life?
(a) Water
(b) Forests
(c) Land
(d) Mountains 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Land is a natural resource which supports natural vegetation, wild life and human life.


Q.54: Which land feature provides facilities for Agriculture and Industry?
(a) Mountains
(b) Plateaus
(c) Plains
(d) Islands 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
India’s about 43 percent of land area is plain, which provides facilities for Agriculture and Industry.


Q.55: Mountains accounts for how much of total surface area of our country?
(a) 30 percent
(b) 40 percent
(c) 35 percent
(d) 50 percent 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Mountains accounts for 30 percent of the total surface area of our country.


Q.56: Which feature of our land possess rich reserves of Minerals, Fossil fuels and Forests.
(a) Mountains
(b) Islands
(c) Plains
(d) Plateaus 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
About 27 percent of the area of the country is plateau region. It possesses rich reserves of mineral.


Q.57: Land supports natural vegetation, wildlife, and human population so land is _____ resource.
(a) Optimum
(b) Potential
(c) Natural
(d) Man Made

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.58: The plateau region of India can be developed as __________ 
(a) Industries
(b) Extraction of minerals
(c) Tourist Zones
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Section ‘D’

I. On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Q.59: On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Salal
(b) Bhakra-Nangal
(c) Tehri
(d) Rana Pratap Sagar 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
On the border of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh, Satluj and Beas river basin is marked as (A) where Bhakra Nangal dam is built.


Q.60: On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Gujarat

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Marked ‘B’ is an eastern state ‘Assam’. Major tea-producing states are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.

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