Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Class 10: Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

The document Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10 is a part of the Class 10 Course CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10.
All you need of Class 10 at this link: Class 10


Class-X
Time: 90 Minutes
M.MM: 40

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

  1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
  2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
  3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
  4. Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
  5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
  6. All questions carry equal marks.
  7. There is no negative marking.
Section - A

Q.1: Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in Berne?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Otto Von Bismark

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Giuseppe formed this society to transform Italy into a united republican state.

Q.2: Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
(a) Unification of Germany
(b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
(c) Unification of Italy
(d) Unification of Vietnam

Correct Answer is Option (b).
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

Q.3: Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options
(a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
(b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
(c) It was a customs union at the initiative of Prussia.
(d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Zollverein was a customs union formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia. It abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.

Q.4: Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended with victory and unification of Germany?
(a) Austria, Poland and France
(b) Austria, Denmark and France
(c) Austria, Turkey and France
(d) Austria, England and France

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Prussia emerged victorious after fighting three wars over seven years against the combined forces of Austria, Denmark and France and the process of unification of Germany was completed.

Q.5: Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early- nineteenth century Europe.
(a) Romanticism
(b) Liberalism
(c) Socialism
(d) Rationalism

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Among all the other options liberalism is the correct one as it stands for equality and freedom that protects individual’s democratic right.

Q.6: Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
(a) Groundnut- Assam
(b) Tea- Gujarat
(c) Coffee- Karnataka
(d) Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer is Option (c).
(i) Groundnut grows in Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, etc.
(ii) Tea grows in Assam, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, etc.
(iii) Coffee grows in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, etc.
(iv) Sugarcane grows in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Karnataka, etc.

Q.7: The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called_____________.
(a) Barren land
(b) Forest land
(c) Grazing land
(d) Fallow land

Correct Answer is Option (d).
A land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year for increasing its fertility is known as the fallow land.

Q.8: Which one of the following conferences convened to discuss environmental protection and socio- economic development at the global level in 1992?
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
(d) World Summit on Sustainable Development

Correct Answer is Option (c).
In June 1992, for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century, more than 100 heads of states participated in the first International Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil to protect the environment and socioeconomic development at the global level.

Q.9: India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
(a) Plains
(b) Plateaus
(c) Islands
(d) Mountains

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.10: Which one of the following human activities  has  contributed  significantly in  land degradation?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Shelter belts
(d) Ploughing

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.11: Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
(a) Nepal
(b) India
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Majoritarianism means that the majority community rules a country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.

Q.12: Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
(a) Reduces socio- economic conflicts
(b) Provides ethnic-cultural development
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
(d) Restricts supremacy of one party

Correct Answer is Option (a).
Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Q.13: Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium  has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
(a) Democratic Government
(b) Socialist Government
(c) Community Government
(d) Liberal Government

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Community government is an elected body by the people belonging to one language, one culture or any common property no matter where they live.

Q.14: Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) USA
(d) Belgium

Correct Answer is Option (c).
It is a federation in which several independent states come together on their own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity, they can increase their security. It includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.

Q.15: Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
(a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
(b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level
(c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
(d) It influences and coordinates in the decision making process.

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Q.16: In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects

Correct Answer is Option (c).
The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the concurrent list is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.

Q.17: Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under article 371 A of the Constitution of India?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer is Option (a).
States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371) due to their peculiar social and historical circumstances, especially to enjoy the protection of land rights of indigenous peoples, their culture and also preferential employment in government services.

Q.18: Which one of the following is an example of Primary sector activity?
(a) Baking
(b) Outsourcing
(c) Farming
(d) Banking

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Primary activity includes those occupations which are closely related to man’s natural environment. 

Q.19: Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group?
(a) Net Attendance Ratio
(b) Enrolment Rate
(c) Literacy Rate
(d) Drop out Ratio

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Q.20: Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.21: Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Human Development Index is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which is used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.

Q.22: “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
(a) Economic development
(b) Human Development
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) National Development

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Sustainable development is maintaining a delicate balance between the human needs to improve lifestyle and feeling of well-being, and preserving natural resources and ecosystems, on which we and future generations depend.

Q.23: Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?
(a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(b) An engineer getting all employment benefits.
(c) A cleaning staff in a private school.
(d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home.

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Organized sector is one where the employment terms are fixed and regular, as well as the enterprises, are registered with the government.

Section - B

Q.24: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an employment the government would have to ________________.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
(b) Provide another scheme for the same
(c) Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance
(d) Provide health care as compensation

Correct Answer is Option (a).
The mandate of the MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This Act is an important step towards the realization of the right to work.

Q.25: Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon ?
(a) Concentration of power in few hands.
(b) Democracy is like a horse-cart.
(c) Putin and Bush are good friends.
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a).

In a democratic country, Elected representatives have powers in their hands and they want to concentrate these powers.

Q.26: Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislature, executive, judiciary

(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Q.27: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The Central Government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government.
Reason (R): But in federal system, the Central Government cannot order the state government to do something.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).
The Central Government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government. But in federal system it cannot order the State Government to do something because State Government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government. Both these  governments are separately answerable to the people.

Q.28: Which of the following falls under the Concurrent List?
(A) Trade
(B) Adoption
(C) Agriculture
(D) Foreign affairs

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Adoption falls into Concurrent list because the Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States

Q.29: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Different persons can have different developmental goals.
Reason (R): What may be development for one may not be development for other.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Industrialists wants to get more electricity so he may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of farmers ‘and people who are displaced, such as tribal even they might resent this and may prefer small check of dams or tanks to irrigate their land. So different persons can have  different persons can have  different developmental goals and  what may be development for one may  not be development for the other. It may even  be destructive for the other.

Q.30: Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct option. One way to find out if we are properly nourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call Body Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. It is found out by height and weight of an individual.
(A) Calculation of height
(B) Calculation of weight
(C) Calculation of MBI
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Q.31: Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union -1707’ from the following options.
(A) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(B) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Correct Answer is Option (c).
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

Q.32: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B: 
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

(a) (i) – (2), (ii) – (3), (iii) – (4), (iv) – (1)
(b) (i) – (4), (ii) – (3), (iii) – (2), (iv) – (1)
(c) (i) – (4), (ii) – (1), (iii) – (3), (iv) – (2)
(d) (i) – (1), (ii) – (4), (iii) – (2), (iv) – (3)

Correct Answer is Option (c).
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy.

(ii) Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process of Germany’s Unification.


(iii) The defeat at Waterloo ended Napoleon Bonaparte’s rule as the Emperor of France.


(iv) Chief Minister Cavour led the movement to unify the Italy. 


Q.33: Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: He was perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. In 1833, he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy Movement and participated in a Republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834.
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Camillo de Cavour
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.34: Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Treaty of Constantinople
(ii) First upheaval took place in France
(iii) Lord Byron died
(iv) Greek Struggle for independence begins
Option :
(a) (i) - (ii) - (iii) - (iv)
(b) (ii) - (iv) - (i) - (iii)
(c) (iv) - (iii) - (ii) - (i)
(d) (iii) - (iv) - (ii) - (i)

Correct Answer is Option (c).
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy. 

(ii) Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process of Germany’s Unification.

(iii) The defeat at Waterloo ended Napoleon Bonaparte’s rule as the Emperor of France. 

(iv) Chief Minister Cavour led the movement to unify the Italy. 

Q.35: Find the incorrect option from the following:
(a) The first upheaval took place in France in July 1930.
(b) The Bourbon Kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
(c) 'When America sneezes' Metternich once remarked, ' the rest of Europe catches cold.'
(d) The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

Correct Answer is Option (c).

‘When France sneezes’, Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold’.


Q.36: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
Reason (R): Monarchs were beginning to realize that the cycles of revolution and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.37: Identify the term with regard to ‘Utopian society ’ from the options given below:
(a) It is a society that is unlikely to ever exist.
(b) It is a society under Parliamentary Democracy.
(c) It is a society under the control of a chosen few wise men.
(d) It is a society under a benevolent monarchy.

Correct Answer is Option (a).
A Utopian Society is a vision of society that is so ideal that is unlikely to exist in reality.

Q.38: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The Scottish Highlands suffered terrible repression whenever they attempted to assert their independence.
Reason (R): Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Scottish  Suffered because of  the  long-drawn-out process  and  Ireland  got support from  the English  to suppress the Catholic  revolts.

Q.39: In which of the following states black soil is predominantly found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(D) Jharkhand

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Q.40: Which are the States in India famous for commercial farming?
(a) Punjab and Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal and Odisha
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Q.41: Which is helpful in inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds?
(a) Green Revolution
(b) Scientific Research
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) White Revolution

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.42: In which Indian State mining has caused sever land degradation?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Kerala
(d) Jharkhand

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Sushila is employed in an organized sector where she works under fixed terms of employment and cannot be terminated in a casual manner without notice.

Q.43: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The process of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two.
Reason (R): Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).

The process of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there  is a balance  between the  two. But sometimes it is disturbed due  to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and  mining, etc.

Q.44: Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and Socio- Economic development at the global level.
(ii) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
(iii) The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
(iv) In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.
Options :
(a) (iv) - (i) - (iii) - (ii)
(b) (iii) - (ii) - (i) - (iv)
(c) (iv) - (iii) - (ii) - (i)
(d) (i) - (iii) - (iv) - (ii)

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.45: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B:
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.46: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) : 
The degree of commercialization of agriculture varies from one region to another.
Reason (R) : 
For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Section - C

(This section consists of the cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
I. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the center was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations.

Q.47: During mid-19th century, Italy was divided into ____________ states.
(a) six

(b) seven
(c) eight
(d) nine
Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.48: Which of the following part of Italy was ruled by an Italian princely house?
(a) Rome
(b) Venetia
(c) Lombardy
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.49: Who dominated the south regions of Italy?
(a) Pope
(b) Bourbon Kings of Spain
(c) Austrian Habsburgs
(d) Bourbon Kings of France
Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.50: Besides Italy, which of the following nation had a long history of political fragmentation?
(a) Germany
(b) Britain
(c) USA
(d) Japan

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.51: North regions of Italy were dominated by
(a) Pope
(b) Bourbon Kings of Spain
(c) Austrian Habsburgs
(d) Bourbon Kings of France

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Q.52: Why did the Italian language had common form?
(a) Because of the scattered states
(b) Because of the regional & local variations
(c) Because of the political fragmentation
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (d).

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
The physical diversities and the plurality of cultures in India. These are also reflected in agricultural practices and cropping patterns in the country. Various types of food and fibre crops, vegetables and fruits, spices and condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops grown in the country. India has three cropping seasons — Rabi, Kharif and Zaid. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Though these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops. However, the success of the Green Revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soya bean. Some of the most important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. In between the rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘Zaid’ are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.
Q.53: Which of the following is a cropping season during the Southwest Monsoon?
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zaid
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b).
The Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.

Q.54: In which of the following months are Rabi crops harvested?
(a) April to June
(b) October to December
(c) September-October
(d) January to March

Correct Answer is Option (a).
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.

Q.55: Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
(a) Maize
(b) Bajra
(c) Cotton
(d) Peas

Correct Answer is Option (d).
Some of the important Kharif crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soya bean.

Q.56: Which of the following paddy crops does not grow in Assam?
(a) Pusa
(b) Aus
(c) Aman
(d) Boro

Correct Answer is Option (a).
In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro.

Q.57: Crop which takes almost a year to grow
(a) Rice

(b) Paddy
(c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.58: Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhandare the major producer of
(a) Rice

(b) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Tea

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Marked dam is Nagarjuna Sagar built on borders of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana on River Krishna.

Section - D

(Attempt both the map based questions.)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Q.59: On the political map of India, which soil is found in (A) region?
(a) Arid Soil
(b) Mountainous Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil
(d) Laterite Soil

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Mountainous soil is found in the hilly and mountainous areas like Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim etc.

Q.60: On the same map, which dam is situated in marked (B) state?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Hirakud
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar
(d) Tehri

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Odisha is marked as (B) where Hirakud dam is built on river Mahanadi.

The document Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10 is a part of the Class 10 Course CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10.
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Previous Year Questions with Solutions

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shortcuts and tricks

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Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

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Semester Notes

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Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

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ppt

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practice quizzes

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Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 4 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

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MCQs

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pdf

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Exam

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