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English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Word and Structure Knowledge

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. (Question 1 to 24)

Q1: When the animals arrived in the village seeking refuge from the forest fire, there was a significant ____________ among the villagers.
(a) satisfaction
(b) betrayal
(c) appreciation
(d) commotion

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is commotion, which means a state of confused and noisy disturbance.
  • When the animals came to the village, it likely caused a lot of excitement and chaos among the villagers.
  • They might have been surprised or worried about the animals' presence, leading to a lively atmosphere.
  • Other options like satisfaction, betrayal, and appreciation do not fit the context of a sudden influx of animals causing a stir.

Q2: When I initially traveled to the United Kingdom for my job, I was asked about my ____________ since they were unable to identify my exact origin.
(a) ascend
(b) ascent
(c) accent
(d) agreement

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is accent. An accent refers to the way someone pronounces words, which can indicate their geographical origin.
  • In this context, the speaker was questioned about their accent because it was not clear where they were from based on their speech.
  • Ascend and ascent relate to rising or climbing, which does not fit the context of speech.
  • Assent means agreement, which is also unrelated to the question about origin.

Q3: The ever-increasing nature of global warming has long been ignored by governments ________________ the world.
(a) thoroughly
(b) throughout
(c) through
(d) thorough

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is throughout, which means "in every part of" or "during the whole time." This indicates that governments all over the world have ignored global warming.
  • Thoroughly means completely, but it does not fit the context of the sentence as well as throughout.
  • Through suggests a passage or a method, which does not convey the intended meaning here.
  • Thorough is an adjective and does not fit grammatically in the blank.

Q4: When we reached the resort, my ____________ greeted us with a large box of presents they had prepared for the event.
(a) brother-in-law
(b) brother-in-laws
(c) brothers-in-law
(d) brothers-in-laws

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct term is brothers-in-law, which refers to multiple brothers who are related to you through marriage.
  • In this context, since the speaker mentions "they," it indicates more than one brother-in-law is involved.
  • Options (a) and (b) are incorrect because they either refer to a single brother-in-law or misuse the plural form.
  • Option (d) is also incorrect as it is not a standard way to express multiple brothers-in-law.

Q5: A/An ________________ voice emanating from the forest ___________ the hunters while they were resting.
(a) euphonious, enthralled
(b) enthralled, euphonious
(c) euphony, destroyed
(d) emphatic, encapsulate

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is euphonious, which means a pleasant-sounding voice. This type of voice would naturally captivate or enthrall the hunters.
  • The word enthralled means to be fascinated or captivated, which fits perfectly with the context of the hunters resting and being drawn in by the beautiful sound.
  • Options (b), (c), and (d) do not make sense in this context, as they either reverse the meaning or use unrelated terms.
  • Thus, the combination of euphonious and enthralled accurately describes the situation.

Q6: Political agendas these days are so unclear. They _____________ about pressing matters just for the vote banks.
(a) generalised
(b) equalises
(c) equivocate
(d) formulise

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Ans: (c)

  • The term equivocate means to be deliberately ambiguous or to avoid making a clear statement. In this context, it suggests that political agendas are not straightforward and are often vague.
  • Option (a) generalised implies making broad statements, which does not fit the context of being unclear.
  • Option (b) equalises refers to making things equal, which is unrelated to the idea of being unclear.
  • Option (d) formulise means to create a formula or plan, which does not convey the same meaning as equivocate.

Q7: __________ suggested that I give dancing a try, but ____________ told me about the body ache that comes later.
(a) Someone
(b) Anybody
(c) Anyone
(d) None

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Ans: (a)

  • Someone encouraged me to try dancing, indicating that it could be fun.
  • However, nobody warned me about the potential body aches that might follow.
  • This contrast highlights the difference between the excitement of trying something new and the reality of physical discomfort.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) as it fits both parts of the statement accurately.

Q8: Some might find it inappropriate, but a government that actively works against women's rights can only be described as _____________.
(a) misandry
(b) misogyny
(c) misogynist
(d) misogynous

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Ans: (d)

  • The term misogynous refers to a strong dislike or prejudice against women.
  • A government that hampers women's rights demonstrates misogynous behavior by not supporting gender equality.
  • While misandry refers to the dislike of men, it is not relevant in this context.
  • Misogyny and misogynist are related terms but do not fit the sentence structure as well as misogynous does.

Q9: I _________________ whatever I could, had I known how horrific things would turn out later.
(a) will have done
(b) would have done
(c) might done
(d) must do

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct phrase is "would have done," which indicates a conditional situation in the past.
  • This means that if the speaker had known about the horrific outcomes, they would have taken different actions.
  • Options like "will have done" and "must do" do not fit the conditional context of the statement.
  • Thus, "would have done" is the only option that correctly reflects the hypothetical nature of the situation.

Q10: The _______________ who delivered you when you were born now owns the nearby maternity clinic.
(a) obstetrician
(b) paediatrician
(c) dermatologist
(d) orthopaedist

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is obstetrician because this is the medical professional who specializes in childbirth and delivery.
  • A paediatrician focuses on children's health, not delivery.
  • A dermatologist deals with skin issues, while an orthopaedist specializes in bones and joints.
  • Thus, the obstetrician is the one who would have delivered you and is now associated with the maternity clinic.

Q11: “Sir,” the beggar whined, “I haven’t eaten in two days.” The beggar whined to the man that ________________.
(a) he hasn’t eaten in two days
(b) he had not been eating for two days
(c) he hadn’t eaten in two days
(d) he doesn’t eat for two days

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Ans: (c)

  • The beggar is expressing his situation to the man.
  • The correct option is (c) because it accurately reflects the beggar's statement in the past perfect tense.
  • Options (a) and (d) are incorrect due to tense issues, while (b) changes the meaning slightly.
  • Using "hadn't" indicates that the action of not eating occurred before the time he was speaking.

Q12: The car accident that led to his paralysis occurred ____________ their marriage, but she still agreed to go ahead with the wedding.
(a) prior to
(b) prior with
(c) prior for
(d) prior as

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "prior to" means before something happens. In this case, it indicates that the accident happened before their marriage.
  • Using "prior with," "prior for," or "prior as" is incorrect because they do not convey the same meaning as "prior to."
  • Thus, the correct choice is (a) "prior to," which accurately describes the timing of the accident in relation to the marriage.
  • This shows that despite the accident, she was still willing to proceed with the wedding.

Q13: The state ___________ the shops in and around the vicinity of the hospital to sell life-saving drugs at the ____________ rates possible for the poorer people.
(a) licensing, cheapest
(b) licensed, cheapest
(c) licensed, cheaper
(d) license, cheaper

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is licensed because it indicates that the state has given permission to the shops.
  • The term cheapest is used to describe the lowest possible prices for life-saving drugs, which is essential for helping poorer people.
  • Using licensed and cheapest together makes it clear that the state has authorized these shops to provide affordable medication.
  • This ensures that those in need can access necessary drugs without financial burden.

Q14: Honestly, I would prefer the generosity of the old man ____________ the arrogant attitude of the rich lady.
(a) to
(b) for
(c) or
(d) with

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is to because it indicates a preference between two contrasting options.
  • In this sentence, the speaker is comparing the generosity of the old man with the arrogant attitude of the rich lady.
  • Using "to" shows that the speaker favors one quality over the other.
  • Other options like "for," "or," and "with" do not fit the context of expressing preference correctly.

Q15: My neighbors have ____________ son and ____________ daughter. However, ____________ daughter left for college two years ago.
(a) a, a, a
(b) a, a, the
(c) the, the, the
(d) a, the, a

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Ans: (b)

  • In this sentence, we are talking about specific family members. The phrase "my neighbors" indicates that we are referring to their particular son and daughter.
  • The first two blanks use "a" because we are introducing the son and daughter for the first time, but the last blank uses "the" because we are referring to the specific daughter who has already been mentioned.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "a, a, the" which fits the context of the sentence.

Q16: ________ of my family members turned up for the school’s play, leaving me shocked and angry.
(a) None
(b) Anyone
(c) Anybody
(d) Somebody

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is None, which means that zero family members attended the play.
  • This indicates a feeling of disappointment and anger because the speaker expected at least someone to show up.
  • Using Anyone, Anybody, or Somebody would imply that at least one person attended, which contradicts the speaker's feelings.
  • Thus, the word None accurately reflects the situation described.

Q17: Let’s agree that we’ll reach out to __________ every month so that we can learn more about __________.
(a) each another
(b) one another
(c) one another
(d) each another

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "one another" is used when referring to interactions between two or more people.
  • In this context, "we’ll contact one another monthly" indicates a mutual communication between the parties involved.
  • The second blank also requires "each other," which is commonly used in similar contexts, but here "one another" fits better.
  • Thus, the correct choice is (c) "one another, each other," as it maintains the intended meaning of reciprocal communication.

Q18: _________ the prohibition and illegality of the procedure, the laboratory continued to work on its secret science experiment.
(a) Despite
(b) As
(c) Although
(d) Unless

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is Despite because it indicates that the laboratory continued its work in spite of the prohibition and illegality.
  • This shows a contrast between the prohibition and the laboratory's actions, emphasizing their determination.
  • Using Despite here effectively conveys that the laboratory ignored the rules and proceeded with their experiment.
  • Other options like As, Although, and Unless do not fit the context of showing contrast in this situation.

Q19: As an air hostess, Julia ___________ experienced many international flights by this time.
(a) have had
(b) will have
(c) will had
(d) would had

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Ans: (b)

  • In this sentence, we are talking about Julia's experiences up to the present time.
  • The correct option is "will have," which indicates that by now, she is expected to have completed many international flights.
  • Other options like "have had" and "would had" do not fit the context of future expectations.
  • Thus, "will have" is the right choice as it shows a future perfect tense, indicating completion by now.

Q20: If you ____________ me about your financial crisis sooner, I ____________ able to help you out.
(a) had told
(b) have told
(c) told
(d) would have told

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is had told and would have been. This structure is used for situations that did not happen in the past.
  • If you had informed me earlier about your financial crisis, I would have been in a position to assist you.
  • This implies a conditional situation where the help was dependent on the earlier communication.
  • Options (b), (c), and (d) do not fit the past conditional context required by the sentence.

Q21: As soon as we received the news of his achievement, we ___________ went to his home to congratulate him.
(a) queasily
(b) solemnly
(c) promptly
(d) excitedly

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is promptly, which means we went quickly or without delay.
  • This shows our eagerness to congratulate him right after hearing the good news.
  • Other options like queasily and solemnly do not fit the context of being quick and enthusiastic.
  • Excitedly could be a good option, but it does not convey the same sense of immediacy as promptly.

Q22: He consented to join us on the cross-country journey, _______________ we cover all his costs.
(a) unless
(b) since
(c) as well as
(d) provided that

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Ans: (d)

  • The phrase "provided that" indicates a condition. In this case, it means he will join us only if we pay for his expenses.
  • "Unless" suggests a negative condition, which doesn't fit here.
  • "Since" implies a reason, not a condition for joining.
  • "As well as" does not convey the necessary conditional meaning.

Q23: As we were traveling ___________ the highway, we spotted a large bear attempting to climb _________ the back seat of a vehicle.
(a) in, in
(b) inside, onto
(c) along, into
(d) into, at

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is along, into. This means that while driving along the highway, the bear was trying to get into the back seat of a car.
  • Using along indicates movement parallel to the highway, which is appropriate for driving.
  • The word into suggests that the bear was trying to enter the car, which fits the context of the situation.
  • Other options do not convey the same meaning or context as effectively as option (c).

Q24: __________ I won the match by a margin, it was evident that she is a better tennis player than I am.
(a) Even though
(b) As well as
(c) In spite
(d) Except

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "Even though" indicates a contrast between winning the match and acknowledging that she is a better player.
  • This shows that despite the victory, the speaker recognizes the superiority of the other player.
  • Using "As well as" or "In spite" would not convey the same contradictory meaning in this context.
  • Thus, "Even though" is the most appropriate choice to express this relationship.

Q25: Choose the correct synonym of the given word.
Diaphanous
(a) Opaque
(b) Obfuscatory
(c) Gossamer
(d) Impenetrable

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Ans: (c)

  • The word diaphanous refers to something that is light, delicate, and translucent.
  • Among the options, gossamer also means something that is very thin and light, making it the correct synonym.
  • In contrast, opaque means not able to be seen through, and impenetrable means impossible to pass through, which are opposite in meaning.
  • Obfuscatory refers to something that confuses or makes unclear, which is unrelated to the meaning of diaphanous.

Q26: Choose the correct synonym of the given word.
Senility
(a) Strength
(b) Tenacity
(c) Brawniness
(d) Dotage

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Ans: (d)

  • The word senility refers to the condition of being senile, which is often associated with declining mental or physical abilities due to old age.
  • The correct synonym is dotage, which specifically describes the period of life when a person is old and may experience diminished mental capacity.
  • Other options like strength, tenacity, and brawniness relate to physical power or determination, which are not synonymous with senility.
  • Thus, dotage is the best match for the meaning of senility.

Q27: Choose the correct antonym of the given word.
Compendiary
(a) Dilatant
(b) Pithy
(c) Succinct
(d) Brusque

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Ans: (a)

  • The word compendiary refers to something that is concise or summarizes information effectively.
  • The correct antonym, dilatant, means something that is expansive or elaborative, which is the opposite of being concise.
  • Pithy and succinct both imply brevity, while brusque refers to being abrupt, which does not directly oppose compendiary.
  • Thus, dilatant is the best choice as it signifies a more detailed or lengthy approach.

Q28: Choose the correct antonym of the given word.
Toady
(a) Stooge
(b) Lackey
(c) Fawner
(d) Independent

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Ans: (d)

  • The word toady refers to someone who flatters or ingratiates themselves with someone in power, often to gain favor.
  • The correct antonym is independent, which means not relying on others or being self-sufficient.
  • Options like stooge, lackey, and fawner all imply a sense of servitude or flattery, which is the opposite of being independent.
  • Thus, independent stands out as the correct choice, as it represents the opposite concept of a toady.

Choose the option with correct spelling. (Question 29 to 30)

Q29: How is the word spelled that refers to ‘a fermented milk beverage akin to yogurt’?
(a) Kifir
(b) Kefir
(c) Kufir
(d) Kafir
Ans: (b)

  • The correct spelling of the word is Kefir, which is a type of fermented milk drink.
  • Kefir is made by adding kefir grains to milk, which ferments the milk and gives it a tangy flavor.
  • This drink is known for its probiotic properties, making it beneficial for gut health.
  • It is often compared to yogurt but has a thinner consistency and a more complex flavor profile.

Q30: How do you spell the term for ‘a hotel staff member who helps guests’?
(a) Concirge
(b) Concerge
(c) Conceirge
(d) Concierge 

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct spelling is Concierge, which refers to a hotel employee who assists guests with various services.
  • This role often includes helping with reservations, providing information, and ensuring a pleasant stay.
  • Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect spellings and do not represent the term accurately.
  • Remember, the correct spelling is crucial for clear communication in the hospitality industry.

Reading

Read the Passage and answer the question that follow. (Question 31 to 35)

In order to eliminate or at least control stress, it is vital to know and understand the causes of stress. Of course, there are many causes of stress, and they are as varied as the people who suffer from it, but there are a few places to look first. And by learning about these causes of stress, you can figure out where stress is entering your life.

One of the most common and most complained-about causes of stress is work. However, it is not only the day-to-day tasks and routine pressures of work that can lead to stress. In fact, the mere concern about keeping a job can be a source of stress. Unfortunately, the combined stress of both work itself and the possibility of losing it creates a sort of double stress in which people feel they have to work even harder in order to keep their jobs, making the stress that much worse.

As well, for those who have not entered the working world yet, school can be a great source of stress. The constant pressure of schoolwork, friends, teachers, tests, quizzes, papers, and everything else can be enough to make anyone feel like they are trapped in a vice. In addition, the deadlines are all immovable, so students are constantly under time pressure. Thus, students need to manage stress just as much as people who work.

Another cause of stress is simple family life. Unfortunately, though we hope that our home lives can be sources of relief from daily stress, they can often be sources of stress all their own. For children as well as parents and spouses, the home can often be its own source of pressure. For parents, stress can often come from simply worrying about their children. Thus, despite the joy that children can bring, they can also cause stress and worry.

Unfortunately, parents can be causes of stress as well. Though they often have their children’s best interests in mind, they can also put a lot of pressure on their children, causing them to worry not only about school or life but also how their parents will react when they hear about some new event, success, or error. It is as though there is no place to turn when things go wrong, creating extra stress. No, it is not easy being a parent, but it isn’t always easy being a child or a teenager either, since parents can often be causes of stress as much as sources of comfort from it.

On top of that, spouses can also cause stress. Let’s face it, husbands and wives often have expectations of their significant others, and it is not always easy to live up to those expectations.

Money is also a major cause of stress, simply because there never seems to be enough of it. Thus, as the money keeps going out but never seems to come in enough, stress just keeps mounting. Unfortunately, spouses, children and sometimes parents can often remind us of our shortfalls, and they will often increase the stress. Thus, money stress just keeps piling up higher and higher, and there never seems to be a way out. 
Though this is only a partial list of all the possible causes of stress, these are some of the most common sources. However, no matter where the problem arises, stress will not make it better. Rather, in order to solve the problems that lead to stress, the best place to start is by managing the stress, then working to solve the problems with a clear and uncluttered mind.

Q31: Read the statements I and II and select the correct option.
Statement I: Maintaining a job and completing daily tasks can motivate a person to put in more effort. 
Statement II: Being aware of job insecurity can be sufficient to induce stress.
(a) Statement II is the effect of Statement I.
(b) Statement I is the effect of Statement II.
(c) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 

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Ans: (b)

  • Statement I suggests that when someone keeps a job and finishes their daily responsibilities, it can encourage them to work harder.
  • Statement II indicates that just knowing about job insecurity can cause stress.
  • Here, Statement II is a result of Statement I; the stress from job insecurity can arise because of the pressure to perform well at work.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that Statement I is influenced by Statement II.

Q32: Select the false statement regarding the factors contributing to stress.
(a) Parents are responsible for their children’s stress at times.
(b) Money always reduces the chances of stress worsening.
(c) Spouses as well as parents can equally contribute to a stressful life.
(d) For a working individual, worrying about job security can lead to stress.

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Ans: (b)

  • The statement that money always reduces the chances of stress worsening is incorrect. In reality, financial issues can often lead to increased stress levels.
  • Parents can indeed contribute to their children's stress, and spouses can also play a role in creating a stressful environment.
  • Concerns about job security are a common source of stress for many working individuals.
  • Understanding these factors can help in managing stress effectively.

Q33: Stress can be managed by _________.
(a) rebuking everyone
(b) managing it and then trying to solve it with a peaceful mind
(c) visiting a doctor
(d) ignoring the problem

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Ans: (b)

  • To effectively handle stress, it is important to focus on management and finding solutions calmly.
  • Instead of reacting negatively, like rebuking others or being careless, a peaceful approach is more beneficial.
  • While visiting a doctor can help, the key is to first manage the stress and seek solutions with a clear mind.
  • Thus, option (b) emphasizes the importance of a calm and thoughtful approach to stress management.

Q34: Select the term that means the opposite of ‘incorporate’.
(a) Include
(b) Invite
(c) Eliminate
(d) Receive

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Ans: (c)

  • The word incorporate means to include or combine something.
  • The opposite of this action is to eliminate, which means to remove or exclude.
  • Options like include and invite suggest adding or welcoming, which do not convey the opposite meaning.
  • Thus, the correct answer is eliminate, as it directly contrasts with the idea of incorporating.

Q35: What are some potential sources of stress for an employed individual?
(a) Work environment
(b) Academic assignments, tests, educators, and guardians
(c) Family issues, conflicts between partners, and financial concerns
(d) Both A and C 

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Ans: (d)

  • The work environment can be a significant source of stress due to deadlines and responsibilities.
  • Family issues and financial problems can also contribute to stress levels.
  • Options A and C both highlight important areas that can lead to stress for working adults.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that both the workplace and family-related issues are potential causes of stress.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. (Question 36 to 40)

Responsible Tourism is a new concept in the tourism industry. This concept was developed by Jost Krippendorf in the 1980s. His aim was “to develop and promote new forms of tourism that will bring the greatest possible benefit to all the participants-travellers, the host population, and the tourist business-without causing intolerable ecological and social damage.”

Responsible Tourism can be defined as “tourism that creates better places for people to live and better places to visit”. Some of the main objectives of Responsible Tourism are as follows:

  1. To respect local cultures-traditions, religions and promote heritage.
  2. To protect the environment-its flora, fauna and landscapes.
  3. To conserve natural resources-from source to destination.
  4. To benefit local communities, both economically and socially.
  5. To minimize pollution through noise, waste disposal and congestion.

In a nutshell, Responsible Tourism is that form of tourism in which initiatives and responsibilities are taken by both the tourists and the travel agencies to maximize the positive impacts and minimize the negative impacts on the environment, traditions and cultural heritage of the region.

Responsible Tourism is a rapidly growing global trend. India has abundant scope to emerge as a Responsible Tourism destination. The Indian tourism industry has grown immensely in the last five years, and it is for sure that in the upcoming years, India will become a hot tourist destination in South-East Asia. To sustain this growth process, it is necessary that all the stakeholders of the Indian tourism industry, i.e., tour operators, government agencies and NGOs, work in cohesion. They must protect the heritage of our country, which in turn will benefit both the local communities and the tourists.

To develop India as a Responsible Tourism destination, ICRT India, which stands for International Centre for Responsible Tourism works in collaboration with the private sector, government and local communities. It is a Bangalore-based non-profit organization, established in 2006, whose main objective is to “take responsibility for achieving sustainable tourism and to create better places for people to live in and for people to visit.” It provides policy advice, research and consultation on developing Responsible Tourism in India.

Among all Indian states, Kerala has pioneered innovative tourism ideas. It is a state rich in traditions and culture. It has started Responsible Tourism in the state to create awareness among all stakeholders for a better environment to live in and visit. Kerala organized the second International Responsible Tourism Conference from March 21st to March 24th, 2008.

Some of the successful Responsible Tourism projects in India are:

“Sunderban Jungle Camp” initiated by Help Tourism Group to connect the heritage sites and protected areas of Sunderban with the livelihood of the local communities through community-based, environmentally and socially responsible tourism.

Another Responsible Tourism project in India is in the Anakkara Spice Tourism Village in the Idukki district of Kerala. This project was started in October 2004 by Women in Agriculture (WIA), a group of women who has joined hands to preserve nature, share the benefits of tourism among the local populace and boost the local economy. This project has enabled these ladies to improve their standard of living by providing their share of income for the well-being of their family.

Q36: Read the statements I and II and select the correct option. 
Statement I: ICRT is a Bangalore-based profitable organization that was established in 2006. 
Statement II: One of the Responsible Tourism Projects of India is in the Anakkara Spice Tourism Village in the Idukki district of Kerala.
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(c) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect.
(d) Both the Statements I and II are correct.

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Statement I is incorrect because ICRT is not primarily a profitable organization; it focuses on responsible tourism.
  • Statement II is correct as the Anakkara Spice Tourism Village is indeed a recognized Responsible Tourism Project in Kerala.
  • Thus, the correct option is that Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct.
  • This highlights the importance of understanding the nature of organizations and their projects in tourism.

Q37: Select the accurate statements regarding tourism in India.
(a) i, ii and iv only
(b) i, ii and iii only
(c) i, iii and iv only
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv 

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Tourism in India is a significant sector that contributes to the economy and cultural exchange.
  • The correct answer is (c) because it includes statements i, iii, and iv, which accurately reflect the various aspects of tourism.
  • Each statement highlights important features of tourism, such as its impact on local communities and the diversity of attractions.
  • Understanding these statements helps in grasping the overall significance of tourism in India.

Q38: Responsible tourism’s objective(s) is/are ___________.
(a) to protect the environmental aspects and minimize pollution
(b) to benefit local communities and conserve natural resources
(c) to respect local cultural aspects
(d) all of these 

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Responsible tourism aims to ensure that travel has a positive impact on the environment and local communities.
  • It includes efforts to protect the environment, support local economies, and respect cultural heritage.
  • All the options listed contribute to the overall goal of responsible tourism.
  • Thus, the correct answer is all of these, as it encompasses all the objectives mentioned.

Q39: The primary goal of initiating Responsible Tourism in Kerala is _______________.
(a) to maintain the balance of socio-economic development
(b) to make people aware of tourism
(c) to create an awareness among the leaders of political parties in the state
(d) to create an awareness among the stakeholders about a better environment to live in 

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The main aim of Responsible Tourism in Kerala is to promote a better living environment.
  • This involves educating stakeholders about sustainable practices that benefit both the community and the environment.
  • By focusing on awareness, it encourages everyone involved to take part in preserving the natural and cultural resources.
  • This approach helps ensure that tourism contributes positively to the local community and the environment.

Q40: Select the term that means “the capacity to remain united or fit together effectively.”
(a) Preserve
(b) Sustainable
(c) Cohesion
(d) Unbearable

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is Cohesion, which refers to the ability of elements to stick together or fit well.
  • This term is often used in various contexts, such as in science, where it describes how molecules bond.
  • In everyday language, cohesion can refer to how well a team works together or how ideas connect logically.
  • Other options like "Preserve" and "Sustainable" do not convey the same meaning of unity or fitting together.

Spoken and Written Expression

Choose the correct option to complete each conversation. (Question 41 to 45)

Q41: Shane: An alma mater refers to the school or college from which one _________________, not the one you’re currently in.
(a) graduated
(b) is graduated from
(c) was graduated
(d) has graduated

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The term alma mater specifically means the school or college that a person graduated from.
  • It does not refer to the institution a person is currently attending.
  • Option (a) is correct because it uses the past tense, indicating completion of education.
  • Other options either use incorrect forms or tenses that do not fit the context.

Q42: Detective: Whether you accept it or not, death is an __________ aspect of human existence, and as detectives, we strive to provide closure to a victim’s family by solving the crime.
(a) admiring
(b) adamant
(c) insolent
(d) integral

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • In this context, the word integral means that death is a necessary and essential part of life.
  • Detectives acknowledge that dealing with death is a significant aspect of their job.
  • They aim to help families find closure by solving the crimes related to the deaths.
  • Other options like admiring, adamant, and insolent do not fit the context of the statement.

Q43: Nidhi: Aditya confessed that he _______ was responsible for all the delays in entering details for the event.
(a) yourself
(b) himselves
(c) himself
(d) myself

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • In this sentence, Aditya is taking responsibility for the backlog.
  • The correct word to use here is "himself," which refers back to Aditya.
  • Using "yourself," "himselves," or "myself" would not fit grammatically in this context.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "himself," indicating that he acknowledges his own role in the situation.

Q44: Principal: _______________ the severity of the weather, the school will remain closed for a week starting tomorrow.
(a) On behalf of
(b) On top for
(c) Except for
(d) On account of

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The phrase "On account of" means "because of" or "due to," which fits perfectly in this context.
  • The school is closing because of the severe weather conditions.
  • Other options do not convey the same meaning and do not fit the sentence correctly.
  • Thus, the correct choice is (d) "On account of."

Q45: Sammy: I thought you ___________________ given the project, considering your qualifications and availability for that time.
(a) might have been
(b) would have been
(c) has been
(d) might have had been

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The correct phrase is "might have been," which indicates a possibility in the past.
  • Option (b) "would have been" suggests a certainty that is not implied here.
  • Option (c) "has been" refers to the present perfect tense, which is not suitable for this context.
  • Option (d) "might have had been" is grammatically incorrect.

Achievers Section

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. (Question 46 to 47)

Q46: The state is _________ affluent people who also hold all the _________ positions in government offices, while the poor continue to suffer.
(a) saved by, preceding
(b) influenced by, prominence
(c) run by, prominent
(d) programmed by, postulate

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The statement indicates that the state is controlled or managed by wealthy individuals.
  • These affluent people occupy important roles in government, which suggests they have significant influence.
  • The term "prominent" refers to their high status in society and government.
  • In contrast, the poor are depicted as continuing to face hardships, highlighting a disparity in wealth and power.

Q47: When I received the news that I was to be a guest of honour, I felt _____________ to be invited, and it’ll be a huge honour to even be invited.
(a) gobsmacked
(b) overwhelmed
(c) satiated
(d) obliterated

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The word gobsmacked means being extremely surprised or shocked. In this context, it shows the speaker's excitement about the invitation.
  • Overwhelmed is a suitable alternative that conveys a similar feeling of surprise but is not the correct answer here.
  • The other options, satiated and obliterated, do not fit the context of being pleasantly surprised by an invitation.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) gobsmacked, as it perfectly captures the speaker's astonishment and joy at being invited.

Q48: Choose the correct synonym of the given word.
Magniloquent
(a) Curt
(b) Turgid
(c) Laconic
(d) Trenchant

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The word magniloquent means using high-flown or extravagant language. It describes someone who speaks in a grand or pompous way.
  • The correct synonym is turgid, which also refers to language that is overly complex or inflated.
  • In contrast, curt means brief and rude, laconic means using few words, and trenchant means sharp or incisive, which do not match the meaning of magniloquent.
  • Thus, the best choice that reflects the meaning of magniloquent is turgid.

Q49: Choose the correct antonym of the given word.
Nescience
(a) Cognizance
(b) Sciolism
(c) Inscience
(d) Ignorance

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The word Nescience means a lack of knowledge or awareness.
  • The correct antonym is Cognizance, which means awareness or knowledge.
  • Sciolism refers to superficial knowledge, while Inscience is not commonly used.
  • Ignorance is a synonym of Nescience, not an antonym.

Q50: Choose the correct option to complete the conversation. 
Abhay: Rohan is ________, as he easily gets lost in the neighbourhood despite living here for so many years.
(a) full of beans
(b) salt of the earth
(c) one sandwich short of a picnic
(d) not the sharpest tool in the shed

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Olympiad Preparation for Class 10  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • In this conversation, Abhay is commenting on Rohan's tendency to get lost, which suggests he is not very aware or attentive.
  • The phrase "one sandwich short of a picnic" is a humorous way to imply that someone is a bit lacking in intelligence or common sense.
  • The other options do not fit the context of someone being confused or lost.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c), as it accurately describes Rohan's situation.
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FAQs on English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 - Olympiad Preparation for Class 10

1. What topics are covered in the English Olympiad for Class 10?
Ans.The English Olympiad for Class 10 typically covers a variety of topics including vocabulary, grammar, comprehension, reading skills, and writing skills. It may also include questions on literature and language structure, focusing on both spoken and written expression.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the English Olympiad?
Ans.Effective preparation for the English Olympiad involves regular practice of sample papers, reviewing grammar rules, enhancing vocabulary through reading, and practicing comprehension skills. Joining study groups or attending coaching classes can also be beneficial.
3. What is the format of the English Olympiad exam for Class 10?
Ans.The format of the English Olympiad exam for Class 10 generally includes multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blanks, and descriptive questions. The exam is designed to assess both theoretical knowledge and practical language usage.
4. Are there any recommended books for English Olympiad preparation?
Ans.Yes, several books are recommended for English Olympiad preparation, including "Olympiad Success in English" and "English Olympiad Workbook." These books provide practice questions and explanations that can help students understand the exam pattern.
5. What are the benefits of participating in the English Olympiad?
Ans.Participating in the English Olympiad offers numerous benefits, such as improving language skills, enhancing critical thinking, gaining confidence in written and spoken expression, and providing an opportunity to compete at a national or international level. Additionally, it can add value to a student’s academic profile.
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