Q1: With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(c) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Ans: (b)
Hence Option (b) is correct.
Q2: In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Ans: (b)
These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials
Q3: Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Ans: (b)
India has been the world’s top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade. India emerged the world’s largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing Thailand from its leadership position.
Q4: Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Hence option (a) is correct.
Q5: Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Therefore option (c) is correct.
Q6: Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen. Hence, statement 1 is correct. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q7: The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission
Ans: (b)
Under the Lead bank Scheme, the service area approach was introduced in 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. Each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area if 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.
Q8: Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
US dollar denominated debt is the largest component of India's External Debt, followed by Indian rupee, SDR, Yen and Euro. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Commercial Borrowings continue to be the largest component of India's external Debt followed by NRI deposit and short term credit. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Q9: Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice
Ans: (b)
The deposit itself is a liability owed by the bank to the depositor. Bank deposits refer to this liability rather than to the actual funds that have been deposit. Hence option B is the correct answer.
Q10: In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
View AnswerQ11: Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note
Ans: (d)
P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered.
Q12: With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
View AnswerQ13: What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of RS 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Ans: (d)
The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans. The Intercreditor Agreement, a recommendation of the Sunil Mehta committee, aims to deal with bad loans as an attempt to speed up the Resolution of stressed Assets.
Q14: The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank
Ans: (a)
Bank Board Bureau is responsible for selection and appointment of Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions.
Q15: Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The independent regulator TRAI is the first independent regulator in India.
Q16: Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Ans: (a)
Sub Index of Ease of Doing Business Index comprises starting a business, Getting a location (labour market regulation, construction permits, getting electrictiy, registering property), Accessing finance (Getting credit, Protecting Minority investor), Dealing with day to day operation (Paying taxes, enforcing contracts).
Q17: In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Ans: (c)
The E-waste Rules place main responsibility of e-waste management on the producers of the electrical and electronic equipment by introducing the concept of “extended producer responsibility” (EPR). The producers are given a significant responsibility—financial or physical—for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The e-waste (Management & Handling) Rules, 2011 have been notified in May 2011 and are effective from 01-05-2012.
Q18: The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Ans: (c)
The economic cost of foodgrains consists of three components, namely the MSP including central bonus, if applicable, as the price paid to farmers, procurement incidentals, and the cost of distribution.
Q19: Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
PPPs measure the total amount of goods and services that a single unit of a country’s currency can buy in another country. The PPP between countries A and B measures the amount of country A’s currency required to purchase a basket of goods and services in country A as compared to the amount of country B’s currency to purchase a similar basket of goods and services in country B.
Q20: Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
Ans: (d)
The import of vegetable oils in India is highest in last five years due to a cut in duty as mandatory under the Malaysia-India Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (MICECA). Signed in October 2010 with South East Asian countries,
Q21: Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Ans: (d)
Q22: Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
The Storage of Payment System Data directive issued by RBI requires all System Providers to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system in India only. Also, System Providers shall provide a System Audit Report (SAR) and the audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empaneled auditors.
Q23: The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country
Ans: (b)
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