Q1: Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
- the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
- hunting is not allowed in such area
- people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
View Answer 
Ans: (b)
Community Reserve- The Chief Wildlife Wardenof the State is the governing authority:
- When a place is designated as a Community Reserve, a Community Reserve Management Committee is established to oversee its management.
- The Chief Wildlife Warden offers advice but does not act as the direct governing authority.
- Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Huntingis not permitted in such an area: - In Community Reserves, hunting wild animals is strictly forbidden according to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 to safeguard wildlife.
- Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
- People in these areas can gather non-timber forest products:
- Community Reserves promote the responsible use of natural resources. Local communities are generally allowed to collect non-timber forest products (NTFP), as long as it is done sustainably and follows the rules set by the management committee.
- Thus, Statement 3 is correct.
- Residents of these areas can use traditional farming methods:
- In a Community Reserve, traditional land use practices, like farming, are often limited to protect the area’s conservation objectives.
- Therefore, Statement 4 is incorrect.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect.
Q2: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
- Marsupials are any members of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia, characterised by premature birth and continued development of the newborn while attached to the nipples on the mother’s lower belly.
- They are known as pouched mammals, because the adult females have a marsupium, or pouch.
- Young marsupials (called joeys) do most of their early development outside of their mother's body, in a pouch.
- Marsupials are not naturally found in India. There are over 330 species of marsupials. Around two-thirds of them live in Australia. The other third live mostly in South America, where some interesting ones include the flipper-wearing yapok, bare-tailed woolly opossum. Hence, statement-I is correct.
- However, marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not only in montane grasslands with no predators. They can live in any part of the forest habitat.
- For example, some marsupials live in rainforests, deserts, woodlands, and savannas. Hence, statement-II is NOT correct.
Therefore, option (c) is correct.
Q3: ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
View Answer 
Ans: (a)
- The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, option (a) is correct.
- It was established in 1948.
- The ISSG manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD), which provides information on invasive alien species worldwide. The ISSG also maintains other online resources such as the Aliens-L listserv, the Invasive Species Compendium, the Global Register of Introduced and Invasive Species, and the Environmental Impact Classification for Alien Taxa.
Q4: Consider the following fauna:
- Lion-tailed Macaque
- Malabar Civet
- Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View Answer 
Ans: (a)
About Lion-Tailed Macaque
- Lion-tailed macaque, also called the wanderoo, lives in the upper parts of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests.
- They can be found at various heights, ranging from 330 to 6,000 feet (100–1,850 meters).
- This species is native to the Western Ghats of India.
- Lion-tailed macaques are active during the day and usually live in groups of 10 to 20 members.
- The scientific name is Macaca silenus, classifying them as an Old World monkey.
- Males are known for marking their territory by using calls.
- They have a rich communication system with up to 17 different vocal sounds.
- These macaques are named for their long, thin, and tufted tail that resembles a lion's mane.
- In the wild, they are exclusively found in India.
- They are a primate species that is endemic to the small and fragmented rainforests of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
- IUCN Status: Endangered
- CITES: Appendix I
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
- Point 1 regarding their status is not accurate.
About Malabar Civet
- The Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and shy creature.
- It is also native to the Western Ghats of India.
- These civets are primarily found in wooded areas and on the hills of evergreen rainforests.
- IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
- They are among the 15 most threatened mammals globally today.
- Point 2 is correct.
About Sambar Deer
- Sambar deer is found in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
- This species has been listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 2008.
- Sambar deer are elusive and are most active during the dusk and nighttime.
- Point 3 is not accurate.
- Thus, option (a) is the correct choice.
Q5: Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
- Honeybees perform waggle dance to communicate the location of food sources or new nest sites to their colony mates. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- The dance consists of a straight run followed by a loop to one side and then another straight run followed by a loop to the other side, forming a figure-eight pattern. The angle of the straight run relative to gravity indicates the direction of the food source relative to the sun, and the duration of the straight run indicates the distance of the food source from the hive.
- Young bees that were isolated from older foragers could perform waggle dance spontaneously, but they made more errors in encoding distance information than bees that had older role models.
- This suggests that honeybees learn from observing and practising with experienced dancers before they become proficient foragers themselves. Therefore, honeybees’ waggle dance is both innate and learned, like human language or songbird communication.
Q6: Consider the following statements:
- Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
- Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
- Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
- Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
View Answer 
Ans: (d)
- Mushrooms act as antibacterial, immune system enhancer and cholesterol lowering agents; additionally, they are important sources of bioactive compounds. As a result of these properties, some mushroom extracts are used to promote human health and are found as dietary supplements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Magic mushrooms (psychoactive fungi) that grow in the United States, Mexico, South America, and many other parts of the world, contain psilocybin and psilocin, which are hallucinogens and are Class I controlled substances. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Fungi are living things, just like insects are, capable of evolving and adapting. Many synthetic pesticides have lost efficacy over the years because the target insects have just evolved and built-up tolerance to them. But like any other relationship between parasite and host, predator and prey, the fungus-based biopesticides have the ability to evolve right along with any adaptation the insects might come up with to hinder them. They are also nontoxic to humans and other wildlife. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- A mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India has revealed not only 600 varieties of fungi, but also led to a new discovery: a bioluminescent — or light emitting — variety of mushroom. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Q7: Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
- They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View Answer 
Ans: (b)
Indian squirrels are located in India (south of the Vindhyas) and Sri Lanka. They inhabit various environments, including:
- Tropical dry forests
- Rainforests
- Mangrove forests
- Grasslands
- Scrub areas
- Parks
- Gardens
- Urban zones
- Indian squirrels are mostly solitary and typically come together only during the breeding season.
- They are diurnal, meaning they are active during the day, spending their time both in trees and on the ground.
- Indian squirrels construct nests in the treetops, using materials like grass and branches.
- They store food such as nuts and seeds underground. This behavior helps them prepare for cold weather when food is harder to find.
- Indian squirrels are omnivores. Their diet mainly consists of:
- Nuts
- Fruits
- Seeds
- Insects
- Small mammals
- Reptiles
- Eggs
- Occasionally bird chicks
- Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).
Q8: Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear
View Answer 
Ans: (b)
Researchers have spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects using a stick from a hole in a tree in the wild. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q9: Consider the following:
- Aerosols
- Foam agents
- Fire retardants
- Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air- conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q10: Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
- Affordable housing
- Mass rapid transport
- Health care
- Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
S3i has signed a landmark shareholders’ agreement to invest in a 250-megawatt solar power plant located in Rajasthan. Collaborating with strategic and institutional investors, S3i aims to invest in large-scale infrastructure projects in developing countries focusing on its mandated areas of affordable housing, renewable energy and health. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
Q11: Consider the following activities:
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
- Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
- Carbon sequestration is both a natural and artificial process by which carbon dioxide is removed from the Earth’s atmosphere and then stored in liquid or solid form.
- Ground basalt has been used as mineral fertiliser since the early thirties. Ground basalt captures CO2 from the atmosphere and the soil pore space, raises the soil pH and reduces ocean acidification. One tonne of basalt captures 0.153–0.165 tonne CO2, depending on infiltration rate.
- Ground basalt added to agricultural fertiliser captures atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2), raises the soil pH, reduces ocean acidification and supplies important nutrients such as magnesium, potassium, calcium, iron and phosphorus. Hence, 1 is correct.
- Oceans absorb about 25% of the carbon dioxide emitted through human activities each year.
- As such, the polar regions absorb more carbon dioxide and by 2100, most of the global oceans are expected to be made up of carbon dioxide, potentially altering the chemistry of the ocean, making it more acidic.
- Since carbon makes ocean acidic, increasing alkalinity of oceans would help in carbon sequestration. Hence, 2 is correct.
- In carbon capture and storage (CCS) processes, carbon dioxide is first separated from other gases contained in industrial emissions.
- It is then compressed and transported to a location that is isolated from the atmosphere for long-term storage.
- Suitable storage locations might include geologic formations such as deep saline formations (sedimentary rocks whose pore spaces are saturated with water containing high concentrations of dissolved salts), depleted oil and gas reservoirs, or the deep ocean. Hence, 3 is correct.
Q12: Consider the following statements:
- Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraftes.
- Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q13: Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
- Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
- Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
- There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View Answer 
Ans: (b)
Mercury Pollution:
Gold Mining Activity as a Source of Mercury Pollution:- In small-scale and artisanal gold mining, miners often use mercury to extract gold from other minerals.
- This method results in mercury being released into the environment, leading to serious mercury pollution.
- Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Coal-based Thermal Power Plants and Mercury Pollution:- Coal naturally contains small amounts of mercury.
- When coal is burned in power plants, it releases mercury into the air, which adds to the mercury pollution.
- Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Safe Level of Mercury Exposure:- Although mercury is very harmful, organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have set guidelines for safe levels of mercury exposure.
- These guidelines indicate a level of risk that is considered acceptable, but it is always better to have lower exposure.
- Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
- The correct answer is Option 2: Only two.
Q14: Consider the following statements:
- In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
- The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining
- access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
View Answer 
Ans: (c)
- Biodiversity Governance in India: India’s Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
- The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources.
- Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body in the State shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The main function of the BMC is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people. The BMC shall be responsible for ensuring the protection of the knowledge recorded in PBR, especially to regulate its access to outside persons and agencies.
- In addition to preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR), the BMCs in their respective jurisdiction shall also be responsible for the following:
- Conservation, sustainable use and access and benefit sharing of biological resources.
- Regulation of access to the biological resources and/ or associated Traditional Knowledge, for commercial and research purposes.
- The BMC shall also maintain a Register giving information about the details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted, details of the collection fee imposed and details of the benefits derived and the mode of their sharing from area within its jurisdiction.
- The BMC may levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.