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Shankar IAS MCQs: International Environmental Convention | Famous Books for UPSC Exam (Summary & Tests) PDF Download

Q1: Statement 1: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was pivotal in shaping the global environmental agenda.
Statement 2: The highest decision-making body of UNEP is the UN Environment Assembly.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: UNEP has been central to coordinating global environmental policy since its establishment in 1972. Its highest governing body is the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA), which meets periodically to set global environmental priorities and policies. UNEA replaced the Governing Council as UNEP's universal decision-making body and provides universal membership to all UN Member States.

Q2: At the 2019 UN Environment Assembly session, India played a pivotal role by piloting resolutions on Single-use Plastics and Sustainable Nitrogen management.
(a) True
(b) False
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: At the fourth session of the UN Environment Assembly in 2019, India co-sponsored and piloted important resolutions aimed at addressing plastic pollution (single-use plastics) and sustainable nitrogen management to reduce environmental harms from excessive nitrogen use. These resolutions highlighted policy measures at global level to tackle plastic waste and nutrient management.

Q3: Statement 1: India's contribution to the Aichi Biodiversity Targets includes setting aside over 17.41% of its geographical area for conservation.
Statement 2: The Hyderabad Pledge was made during the CoP 11 meeting in India.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: Aichi Target 11 under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) called for conserving at least 17% of terrestrial and inland water areas. India has reported protecting more than 17% of its geographical area toward this target. The Hyderabad Pledge was made at CBD COP11 held in Hyderabad, India (2012) and reaffirmed national commitments to biodiversity conservation.

Q4: Statement 1: The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims to phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) to reduce global warming.
Statement 2: India has committed to reducing HFC use by roughly 85% of their baselines by 2047 under the Kigali Agreement.
(a) Both statements are true
(b) Both statements are false
(c) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: The Kigali Amendment (2016) to the Montreal Protocol provides for a global phasedown of HFCs, which are potent greenhouse gases though they do not deplete the ozone layer. India accepted a phasedown schedule under Kigali that envisages large reductions in HFC consumption over time, with a long-term target that effectively results in an approximate 85% reduction relative to baselines by 2047 under India's agreed schedule.

Q5: Assertion (A): The Kigali Agreement aims to phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) globally.
Reason (R): HFCs are known to contribute significantly to global warming.
Are (A) and (R) true, and is (R) the correct explanation of (A)?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 
(a)
Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct. The Kigali Amendment was agreed to because HFCs, though not ozone depleting, have very high global warming potentials (GWPs). Phasing down HFCs therefore contributes to limiting global temperature rise.

Q6: Which of the following is not a goal of the Aichi Biodiversity Targets?
(a) Ensuring sustainable management of agriculture and forestry.
(b) Phasing out mercury use in various products by 2020.
(c) Conserving at least 17% of terrestrial and inland water areas.
(d) Preventing the extinction of known threatened species.
Ans: 
(b)
Explanation: The Aichi Targets (2011-2020) under the CBD focus on biodiversity conservation, sustainable use of ecosystems, preventing extinctions and improving policy and governance for biodiversity. The phase-out of mercury is dealt with separately by the Minamata Convention on Mercury, not by the Aichi Targets.

Q7: Statement 1: India has successfully phased out HCFC-141b under its HCFC Phase Out Management Plan.
Statement 2: HCFC-141b is a potent greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans: 
(b)
Explanation: HCFC-141b is an ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol and countries including India have implemented HCFC Phase-out Management Plans (HPMPs) to eliminate its use. While HCFC-141b has a non-zero global warming potential, the primary regulatory concern under the Montreal Protocol has been its ozone depletion potential. In many exam contexts the statement that it is primarily a potent greenhouse gas is treated as misleading; thus the correct answer recorded is that only Statement 1 is true.

Q8: The Kunming Declaration encourages:
(a) The '30 by 30' target for 30% protected status on Earth's land and oceans by 2030.
(b) The phase-out of mercury use in measuring devices by 2025.
(c) The establishment of an International Centre for Below Sea Level Farming.
(d) A complete ban on illegal wildlife trade by 2022.
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: The Kunming Declaration, agreed at CBD COP15 processes, endorsed the global goal often described as '30 by 30' - protecting at least 30% of terrestrial and marine areas by 2030. Other options either relate to different instruments (e.g., Minamata Convention relates to mercury) or are not part of the Kunming Declaration's formal text.

Q9: Which of the following sites in India is recognized under the FAO's Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) program?
(a) Sundarbans, West Bengal
(b) Traditional Agricultural System, Koraput, Odisha
(c) Tea Gardens of Assam
(d) Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh
Ans:
(b)
Explanation: The FAO's GIAHS programme recognises unique, traditional agricultural systems that combine biodiversity, resilient knowledge systems and cultural practices. The Traditional Agricultural System of Koraput in Odisha has been recognised under GIAHS for its distinctive practices and biodiversity value.

Q10: The Minamata Convention primarily addresses the issue of:
(a) Biodiversity loss.
(b) Ozone layer depletion.
(c) Mercury pollution.
(d) Climate change due to CO2 emissions.
Ans:
(c)
Explanation: The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty specifically aimed at protecting human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. It covers supply, trade, use in products and processes, and emissions control.

Q11: Statement 1: The UNEP Environment Assembly's third session in 2017 focused on achieving a pollution-free planet.
Statement 2: The session addressed sub-themes like renewable energy and deforestation.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans: 
(b)
Explanation: UNEA-3 (2017) adopted the theme "Towards a pollution-free planet" and its deliberations focused on types of pollution including air, land, freshwater and marine pollution, and the management of chemicals and waste. Renewable energy and deforestation were not the primary sub-themes of that session.

Q12: In the context of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), what does the Asia Environment Enforcement Awards primarily recognize?
(a) Efforts in renewable energy adoption.
(b) Contributions to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions.
(c) Actions against transboundary environmental crime.
(d) Initiatives in wildlife conservation.
Ans:
(c)
Explanation: The Asia Environment Enforcement Awards, supported by UNEP and partners, honour outstanding enforcement actions and operations that disrupt transboundary environmental crime such as illegal wildlife trade, illegal logging, illegal waste trafficking and related organised crime.

Q13: Which of the following initiatives is not directly associated with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?
(a) Champions of the Earth award.
(b) Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
(c) Asia Environment Enforcement Awards.
(d) Single-use Plastics resolution.
Ans:
(b)
Explanation: The Champions of the Earth is UNEP's principal environmental award; the Asia Environment Enforcement Awards are also UNEP-linked; UNEP played a leading role in discussions on single-use plastics at UNEA. The Aichi Biodiversity Targets are the work of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), not an initiative of UNEP.

Q14: Statement 1: The Kigali Agreement is an amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
Statement 2: Its primary goal is to phase out the use of carbon dioxide and methane.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans:
(b)
Explanation: The Kigali Amendment amends the Montreal Protocol to phase down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). It does not target carbon dioxide (CO2) or methane (CH4), which are addressed under climate change frameworks such as the UNFCCC.

Q15: Which of the following is a key focus of the Minamata Convention on Mercury?
(a) Promoting the use of renewable energy sources.
(b) Reducing mercury emissions from coal-fired power plants.
(c) Addressing the loss of biodiversity due to mercury pollution.
(d) Phasing out the use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Ans:
(b)
Explanation: The Minamata Convention includes measures to control and reduce mercury emissions from a range of sources, including coal-fired power plants, industrial processes and artisanal gold mining. It also addresses products and processes that use mercury and promotes safer alternatives.

Q16: Statement 1: India piloted resolutions on Single-use Plastics and Sustainable Nitrogen management at the 2019 UNEP Environment Assembly.
Statement 2: These resolutions were aimed at addressing the global nitrogen cycle and its environmental impact.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Only Statement 1 is true.
(c) Only Statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.
Ans:
(a)
Explanation: India played a prominent role at UNEA-4 (2019) by piloting resolutions on single-use plastics and on sustainable nitrogen management. The nitrogen resolution aims to encourage sustainable nitrogen practices to reduce pollution and environmental impacts arising from excess reactive nitrogen in ecosystems.

Q17: The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) program, administered by FAO, recognizes:
(a) Only ancient agricultural practices.
(b) Regions with unique, sustainable agricultural systems.
(c) The best practices in industrial agriculture.
(d) Only the agricultural systems in developed countries.
Ans: 
(b)
Explanation: FAO's GIAHS highlights regions where traditional agricultural systems exhibit outstanding biodiversity, cultural values and sustainability, encouraging conservation and use of these systems as models for resilient agriculture. It is not limited to ancient practices or to developed countries and is distinct from industrial agricultural best practices.

Q18: In the context of the Kigali Agreement, what is the timeline for India to start its transition to phase out HFCs?
(a) 2019
(b) 2024
(c) 2028
(d) 2036
Ans:
(c)
Explanation: Under the differentiated schedule adopted in the Kigali Amendment, India is among the parties assigned to a later phase-down group with a scheduled start of HFC controls around 2028. This is part of the staggered approach that provides developing countries more time to transition.

Q19: Which Indian organization was recognized by the Asia Environment Enforcement Awards for its efforts against environmental crime?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
(c) Forest Survey of India
(d) National Green Tribunal
Ans:
(b)
Explanation: The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) of India received recognition for its enforcement actions and coordination in combating wildlife crime, including transboundary wildlife trafficking. Awards like the Asia Environment Enforcement Awards acknowledge law-enforcement success and cooperation in addressing environmental offences.

Q20: What was the primary purpose of India's ratification of the Minamata Convention?
(a) To phase out the use of HFCs.
(b) To control the transboundary movement of mercury.
(c) To reduce carbon emissions from industries.
(d) To increase the use of renewable energy sources.
Ans: 
(b)
Explanation: By ratifying the Minamata Convention, India committed to measures aimed at protecting human health and the environment from mercury, including controlling the supply and trade of mercury and reducing emissions and releases. The Convention also regulates mercury-containing products and promotes safer alternatives.

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FAQs on Shankar IAS MCQs: International Environmental Convention - Famous Books for UPSC Exam (Summary & Tests)

1. What are the major objectives of international environmental conventions?
Ans. The major objectives of international environmental conventions include the protection of the global environment, the promotion of sustainable development, the conservation of biodiversity, and the reduction of pollution. These conventions aim to establish frameworks for cooperation among countries to address environmental challenges that transcend national borders, such as climate change, deforestation, and marine pollution.
2. Can you name some significant international environmental conventions?
Ans. Significant international environmental conventions include the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal, and the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Each of these conventions focuses on specific environmental issues and aims to achieve international cooperation in addressing them.
3. How do international environmental conventions facilitate cooperation among countries?
Ans. International environmental conventions facilitate cooperation among countries by providing a platform for dialogue, negotiation, and commitment to shared environmental goals. They establish legally binding agreements or frameworks that encourage nations to implement policies and actions to protect the environment. Additionally, these conventions often include mechanisms for monitoring progress, sharing information, and providing financial and technical assistance to developing countries.
4. What role do non-governmental organisations (NGOs) play in international environmental conventions?
Ans. Non-governmental organisations (NGOs) play a crucial role in international environmental conventions by advocating for stronger environmental protections, raising public awareness, and holding governments accountable for their commitments. They often participate in the negotiation process, provide scientific research and expertise, and engage in grassroots campaigns to mobilise public support for environmental issues. NGOs can also serve as a bridge between local communities and international decision-makers.
5. How can countries ensure compliance with international environmental conventions?
Ans. Countries can ensure compliance with international environmental conventions by implementing national legislation that aligns with international commitments, conducting regular assessments and reporting on their environmental performance, and establishing monitoring and enforcement mechanisms. Additionally, fostering public participation and involving stakeholders in decision-making processes can enhance accountability and support for compliance efforts.
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