UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2024: Indian Polity | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Ans: (d) Four
Delimitation Commissions are constituted to redraw the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on population changes. As of December 2023, four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India:

Ans: (a) 1,2 and 3

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, brought significant changes to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India by adding three languages:

1. Konkani: Spoken predominantly in the Konkan region of Goa, Karnataka, and Maharashtra.
2. Manipuri (Meitei): The official language of Manipur, spoken by the Meitei community.
3. Nepali: Widely spoken in Nepal and also by a significant population in India, particularly in the northeastern states.

These languages were included to promote their recognition and usage in official capacities throughout India. This amendment reflected India's commitment to linguistic diversity and cultural inclusivity. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 3, as these three languages were added by the Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992.

Ans: (b) Only two.

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: This pair is correctly matched. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was indeed associated with the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

2. Socialist Party - C. Rajagopalachari: This pair is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari was not associated with the Socialist Party. He was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and later founded the Swatantra Party.

3. Congress for Democracy - Jagjivan Ram: This pair is incorrect. Jagjivan Ram was associated with the Congress (I), not the Congress for Democracy.

4. Swatantra Party - Acharya Narendra Dev: This pair is incorrect. Acharya Narendra Dev was not associated with the Swatantra Party. He was a prominent socialist leader.

Therefore, only the first pair, Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, is correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3.

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution: This statement is correct. Part IX A of the Constitution deals with municipalities, providing for their establishment, composition, powers, and responsibilities.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution: This statement is correct. Part XVIII of the Constitution (Articles 352 to 360) contains provisions related to emergencies, including national emergency, state emergency (previously termed as President's rule), and financial emergency.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution: This statement is correct. Part XX of the Constitution (Articles 368) deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution of India.

Therefore, all three statements are correct, and the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Ans: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

• Inter-State trade and commerce: This falls under the Union List, not the State List. It is regulated by the Central Government under Article 301-307 of the Constitution.

• Inter-State migration: This is not explicitly mentioned as a subject under either the Union List or the State List. Migration, especially in terms of rights and restrictions, generally falls under laws related to citizenship, which is a Union subject.

• Inter-State quarantine: This is indeed a Union subject under the Union List. It relates to public health and is regulated by the Central Government to prevent the spread of diseases between states.

• Corporation tax: This is a Union subject under the Union List (specifically under "Taxes on income other than agricultural income"). It is exclusively within the jurisdiction of the Central Government.

Therefore, among the options given, (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List is the correct statement as per the Constitution of India.

Ans: (d) Article 21

• Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16: Provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 19: Guarantees certain fundamental rights regarding freedom of speech, assembly, association, etc.
• Article 21: Ensures the protection of life and personal liberty. Over the years, the Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right implicit within the right to life and personal liberty.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Article 21.

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee: This statement is correct. The Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee to examine matters related to the ethical conduct of members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha: This statement is incorrect. While members of the Lok Sabha can certainly raise concerns about unethical conduct, complaints can also be made by citizens or other individuals. It's not limited to only members of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice: This statement is correct. The Ethics Committee generally avoids taking up matters that are already under judicial consideration (sub-judice matters).

Therefore, the correct answer, based on the statements provided, is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Ans: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the first temporary or provisional President of the Constituent Assembly from 9 December 1946 to 11 December 1946. He was succeeded by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who then became the President of the Constituent Assembly until its completion and adoption of the Constitution.

Ans: (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1,2 and 3

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills: This statement is correct. Article 109 of the Constitution of India specifies the special procedure that must be followed for the introduction and passage of Money Bills in Parliament.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States: This statement is correct. According to Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), and not in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it: This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations for amendments, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha: This statement is incorrect. The Lok Sabha has the discretion to accept or reject any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. However, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill directly; it can only suggest amendments.

Therefore, the correct statements, based on the options provided, are (c) 1, 2 and 3.

Ans: (a) 1,2 and 3 only

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. According to the amended provisions of the NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises the following members:

1. Governor of the Constituent State: The Governors of the North Eastern states are members of the NEC.

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State: The Chief Ministers of the North Eastern states are also members of the NEC.

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India: The President of India nominates three members to the NEC.

4. The Home Minister of India: The Home Minister of India is not a member of the NEC.

Therefore, based on the options provided, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Ans: (b) 1 and 2 Only

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha: This statement is incorrect. The provisions of the 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' (assuming it refers to a specific legislation) coming into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha is not a universally known fact and would depend on the specific details of the legislation, which are not provided here.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act: This statement is correct. If a law has a specific duration or sunset clause, it can be in force for a limited period, after which it may need to be renewed or extended.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes: This statement is not mentioned in the given information and cannot be confirmed based on the context provided.

Therefore, only statement 2 is definitively correct based on the provided information. Hence, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2 only.

Ans: (c)  the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

A Writ of Prohibition is a legal remedy issued by a higher court (such as the Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal, instructing them to stop or prohibit further proceedings in a particular case. This writ is typically issued when the lower court is acting beyond its jurisdiction or is conducting proceedings that are legally improper or unlawful.

Key points to remember:

• It is not issued to government officers (option a).
• It does not instruct Parliament or Legislative Assembly to pass a law (option b).
• It is not issued to the government to prohibit unconstitutional policies (option d).

Therefore, option (c) is correct because it accurately describes the purpose and scope of a Writ of Prohibition as it pertains to judicial proceedings in lower courts or tribunals.

Ans: (b) 2 only

Ans: (b) 2 only

Ans: (a) 1only

Ans: (b) 1 and 2

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

   • This statement is correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all bills pending in it (whether introduced or not) lapse and do not carry over to the next Lok Sabha.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

   • This statement is correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha at the time of dissolution, it lapses and needs to be reintroduced in the new Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

   • This statement is incorrect. If the President has notified their intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses for consideration of a bill, the bill does not lapse on dissolution. It can still be taken up in the joint sitting convened after the new Lok Sabha is constituted.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2.

Ans: (c) 2 and 3

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

   • This statement is correct. Prorogation is the formal end of a session of Parliament, and the President can prorogue either House of Parliament without the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

   • This statement is correct. While prorogation typically follows adjournment sine die (indefinite adjournment), the President can prorogue a House even when it is in session if deemed necessary.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

   • This statement is incorrect. The dissolution of the Lok Sabha is solely the prerogative of the President, but it is done on the advice of the Prime Minister and not the Council of Ministers. The President exercises this power independently.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 2 and 3.