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Mock Test Paper - 3 (Geography Optional Paper- II): Answers | Geography Optional for UPSC PDF Download

Answers

Section A

Q1. (a) On the outline map of India provided, mark the location of the following. Write in your answer booklet the physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural significance of each in no more than 30 words. 
(i) Kutch
(ii) Auroville
(iii) Ziro Valley
(iv) Atal Tunnel
(v) Coorg
(vi) Bhitarkanika
(vii) Hampi
(viii) Tawang
(ix) Agatti Island
(x) Rann of Kutch

Ans:
(i) Kutch: Salt marshes, unique desert ecosystem, supports biodiversity, and hosts Rann Utsav, boosting cultural tourism.
(ii) Auroville: Experimental township, promotes sustainable living, cultural harmony, and eco-friendly practices globally.
(iii) Ziro Valley: Apatani tribal culture, UNESCO tentative heritage, supports organic farming and eco-tourism.
(iv) Atal Tunnel: Strategic connectivity in Himalayas, boosts tourism, and enhances military logistics in Ladakh.
(v) Coorg: Coffee plantations, rich biodiversity, supports eco-tourism and cultural heritage of Kodava community.
(vi) Bhitarkanika: Mangrove ecosystem, crocodile sanctuary, vital for coastal protection and biodiversity conservation.
(vii) Hampi: UNESCO World Heritage, ancient Vijayanagara ruins, significant for cultural and historical tourism.
(viii) Tawang: Buddhist monastery, strategic border location, promotes cultural tourism and spiritual heritage.
(ix) Agatti Island: Coral reefs, supports marine biodiversity, key for tourism in Lakshadweep.
(x) Rann of Kutch: World’s largest salt desert, hosts migratory birds, vital for ecological and tourism significance.

Q1. (b) Why does air pollution continue to be a persistent challenge in the Indo-Gangetic Plains? 
Ans: Air pollution in the Indo-Gangetic Plains remains a persistent challenge due to stubble burning, industrial emissions, vehicular exhaust, and coal-based power plants. Seasonal factors like winter inversion trap pollutants, exacerbating smog in cities like Delhi. In 2024, Delhi’s AQI frequently crossed 400, driven by stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana. Weak enforcement of emission norms, inadequate public transport, and unplanned urbanization worsen the crisis. Dust from construction and biomass burning in rural areas further degrade air quality. Despite measures like GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan), inconsistent implementation and lack of regional coordination hinder progress. Promoting renewable energy, stricter industrial regulations, and afforestation are critical for sustainable solutions. 

Q1. (c) How does India’s topography influence its renewable energy potential? Suggest a diagram.
Ans: India’s diverse topography significantly shapes its renewable energy potential. The Himalayas offer vast hydropower potential, with projects like the 2024 Tehri Phase-II expansion. Western Ghats and coastal areas harness wind energy, with Tamil Nadu leading in wind farms. Rajasthan’s Thar Desert is ideal for solar energy, hosting the Bhadla Solar Park, among the world’s largest. Plains facilitate biomass energy from agricultural waste, while coastal regions explore tidal and wave energy, as seen in Gujarat’s 2025 pilot projects. However, challenges like land acquisition and ecological concerns limit scalability. A diagram showing India’s physiographic regions with renewable energy sources (e.g., solar in deserts, wind in coasts) would clarify spatial distribution. 
Diagram Suggestion: Map of India highlighting physiographic regions with renewable energy sources.

Q1. (d) Explain how coastal erosion impacts India’s coastal ecosystems and communities.
Ans: Coastal erosion severely impacts India’s coastal ecosystems and communities by degrading mangroves, reducing biodiversity, and disrupting fisheries, a key livelihood. In 2024, Odisha’s coast lost 28% of its mangrove cover due to erosion. It accelerates land loss, threatening settlements, as seen in Kerala’s Alappuzha, where 2025 cyclones displaced thousands. Saline intrusion degrades agricultural land, affecting rice cultivation in Sundarbans. Infrastructure like ports faces damage, increasing maintenance costs. Rising sea levels and frequent storms, like Cyclone Dana (2024), intensify erosion. Community displacement disrupts socio-economic stability, while loss of natural barriers increases vulnerability to future disasters. Mitigation requires mangrove restoration and sustainable coastal management. 

Q2. (a) Critically analyze the factors contributing to the increasing frequency of cyclonic storms in the Arabian Sea.
Ans:
Introduction: The Arabian Sea has witnessed an increasing frequency of cyclonic storms, driven by climate change and oceanic-atmospheric interactions, posing challenges to India’s coastal regions.
Body:

  • Warming Sea Surface Temperatures (SST): Rising SSTs, exceeding 28°C, fuel cyclone formation. In 2024, Cyclone Asna intensified due to warmer Arabian Sea waters.

  • Climate Change: Increased greenhouse gases enhance atmospheric moisture, leading to intense cyclones. Cyclone Tauktae (2021) exemplifies this trend.

  • Weakening Wind Shear: Reduced vertical wind shear allows cyclones to sustain strength, as observed in Cyclone Dana (2024).

  • Monsoon Variability: Erratic monsoon patterns, influenced by El Niño, contribute to cyclone formation during pre- and post-monsoon seasons.

  • Anthropogenic Factors: Coastal urbanization and deforestation reduce natural barriers, amplifying cyclone impacts, as seen in Mumbai’s 2025 flooding.
    Conclusion: Mitigating cyclone frequency requires climate action, early warning systems, and coastal afforestation. India’s 2024 NDMA upgrades show progress, but global cooperation is vital. 

Q2. (b) Discuss the role of India’s river systems in shaping its agricultural productivity with recent examples.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s river systems are the backbone of its agricultural productivity, supporting irrigation, soil fertility, and food security.
Body:

  • Irrigation Support: Rivers like Ganga and Indus irrigate 60% of India’s farmland. In 2024, Punjab’s canal systems boosted wheat yields.

  • Soil Fertility: Alluvial soils from rivers like Brahmaputra enhance rice production in Assam.

  • Dams and Reservoirs: Bhakra Nangal dam on Sutlej supports multi-cropping in Haryana, increasing productivity.

  • Challenges: Over-extraction and pollution, as in Yamuna, reduce water availability. In 2025, Delhi faced irrigation shortages due to contamination.

  • Recent Initiatives: The 2024 Jal Shakti Abhiyan promoted river rejuvenation, aiding agriculture in Uttar Pradesh.
    Conclusion: Rivers are critical for agriculture, but sustainable management, as seen in 2024 river-linking pilots, is essential to address water scarcity and pollution. 

Q2. (c) Evaluate the challenges of urban flooding in India’s metropolitan cities with reference to 2024 events.
Ans:
Introduction: Urban flooding in India’s metropolitan cities has intensified, with 2024 events highlighting systemic challenges.
Body:

  • Unplanned Urbanization: Encroachment on wetlands, as in Chennai’s 2024 floods, reduces natural drainage.

  • Inadequate Infrastructure: Clogged drains and outdated sewer systems failed in Mumbai during 2024’s heavy rains.

  • Climate Change: Intense rainfall, like Delhi’s 2024 cloudburst, overwhelms urban systems.

  • Deforestation: Loss of green cover in Bengaluru exacerbates runoff, as seen in 2025 floods.

  • Solutions: Smart drainage systems and wetland restoration, piloted in Kolkata (2024), show promise.
    Conclusion: Addressing urban flooding requires integrated urban planning and climate-resilient infrastructure, with 2024’s Swachh Bharat Mission upgrades as a step forward. 

Q3. (a) Examine the impact of climate change on India’s Himalayan ecosystems and suggest mitigation strategies. 
Ans:
Introduction: Climate change profoundly impacts India’s Himalayan ecosystems, threatening biodiversity, water resources, and livelihoods.
Body:

  • Glacial Retreat: Himalayan glaciers, like Gangotri, receded 30 meters annually (2024 data), reducing river flows.

  • Biodiversity Loss: Warming threatens species like snow leopards, with 20% habitat loss reported in 2025.

  • Water Scarcity: Reduced glacial melt affects rivers like Ganga, impacting irrigation in Uttarakhand.

  • Disaster Risk: Increased landslides, as in Himachal’s 2024 floods, disrupt communities.

  • Mitigation:

    • Afforestation: 2024 Green India Mission restored 10,000 hectares.

    • Renewable Energy: Hydropower projects reduce emissions.

    • Community Resilience: Training locals for disaster preparedness, as in Sikkim (2025).
      Conclusion: Protecting Himalayan ecosystems demands global climate action and localized strategies, with India’s 2024 policies showing commitment. 

Q3. (b) Discuss the significance of India’s coastal economic zones in boosting maritime trade.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s coastal economic zones (CEZs) are pivotal in enhancing maritime trade, leveraging strategic location and infrastructure.
Body:

  • Strategic Location: CEZs like Kandla and Mundra facilitate trade with Middle East and Africa.

  • Infrastructure: In 2024, JNPA handled 7 million TEUs, boosting exports.

  • Economic Impact: CEZs contribute 30% to India’s trade GDP, supporting jobs.

  • Challenges: Environmental degradation and land disputes, as in Ennore (2025), hinder growth.

  • Recent Developments: Sagarmala’s 2024 port modernization enhanced efficiency.
    Conclusion: CEZs are vital for trade, but sustainable practices are crucial for long-term success. 

Q3. (c) (PYQ) Soils of India are clear reflections of the structure and process.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s soils reflect its geological structure and environmental processes, shaping agricultural and ecological patterns.
Body:

  • Alluvial Soils: Formed by river deposition (Ganga), fertile for rice cultivation.

  • Black Soils: Volcanic basalt (Deccan) supports cotton in Maharashtra.

  • Red Soils: Weathered crystalline rocks (Tamil Nadu) suit millets.

  • Laterite Soils: Leached in high-rainfall areas (Kerala), used for plantations.

  • Processes: Erosion and weathering, as in 2024’s Rajasthan desertification, shape soil profiles.
    Conclusion: Soil diversity mirrors India’s geological and climatic variations, guiding sustainable land use. 

Q4. (a) Correlate India’s geological diversity with its renewable and non-renewable energy resources. Suggest a diagram.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s geological diversity underpins its rich renewable and non-renewable energy resources.
Body:

  • Non-Renewable Resources:

    • Coal: Gondwana basins (Jharkhand) support 80% of power generation.

    • Oil: Sedimentary basins (Assam) fuel industries, with 2024 ONGC discoveries.

  • Renewable Resources:

    • Hydropower: Himalayan faults enable projects like 2024’s Subansiri.

    • Solar: Crystalline rocks in Rajasthan host Bhadla Solar Park.

    • Wind: Coastal faults in Gujarat support wind farms.

  • Challenges: Environmental impacts, as in 2025’s Western Ghats protests, limit exploitation.
    Conclusion: Geological diversity drives energy potential, but sustainable policies are essential. 
    Diagram Suggestion: Map showing geological regions with energy resources.

Q4. (b) Discuss the role of micro-irrigation in enhancing agricultural sustainability in India’s semi-arid regions.
Ans:
Introduction: Micro-irrigation enhances agricultural sustainability in India’s semi-arid regions by optimizing water use.
Body:

  • Water Efficiency: Drip irrigation saves 40% water, boosting yields in Rajasthan (2024).

  • Soil Health: Reduces salinity, as seen in Gujarat’s 2025 pilots.

  • Economic Benefits: Increases farmer income by 20% in Maharashtra.

  • Challenges: High costs and maintenance issues limit adoption.

  • Initiatives: PMKSY’s 2024 expansion promoted micro-irrigation in Vidarbha.
    Conclusion: Micro-irrigation is transformative, but subsidies and awareness are key. 

Q4. (c) Analyze the impact of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs) on India’s northern states with recent examples.
Ans:
Introduction: Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs) pose severe risks to India’s northern states, intensified by climate change.
Body:

  • Causes: Glacial melting, as in Sikkim’s 2024 Teesta GLOF, triggers floods.

  • Impacts: Destroys infrastructure, displaces communities, and disrupts hydropower.

  • Vulnerability: Uttarakhand’s 2025 Chamoli flood affected 10,000 people.

  • Mitigation: Early warning systems and glacial lake mapping, piloted in 2024, reduce risks.
    Conclusion: Proactive measures and climate action are critical to manage GLOFs. 


Section B

Q5. (a) Discuss the role of the National Green Tribunal in addressing environmental issues in India.
Ans: The National Green Tribunal (NGT), established in 2010, plays a pivotal role in addressing environmental issues in India by enforcing regulations and resolving disputes. It has imposed fines on polluters, like the 2024 penalties on Delhi’s illegal dumpsites, and banned harmful practices, such as single-use plastics in 2025. The NGT’s orders for river rejuvenation, including Yamuna cleanup, promote ecological restoration. It ensures compliance with environmental laws, protecting biodiversity in areas like Bhitarkanika. However, limited enforcement powers and delays in case resolution hinder its impact. Strengthening NGT’s authority and public awareness can enhance its effectiveness in tackling air pollution, deforestation, and industrial violations, ensuring sustainable development. 

Q5. (b) How can urban local bodies contribute to sustainable urban planning in India?
Ans: Urban local bodies (ULBs) are crucial for sustainable urban planning in India by managing land use, waste, and infrastructure. ULBs like Pune’s 2024 waste-to-energy projects promote sustainability. They can enforce green building norms, as seen in Ahmedabad’s 2025 initiatives, and develop public transport to reduce emissions. Community participation in planning, like Bengaluru’s ward committees, ensures inclusivity. However, ULBs face funding shortages and bureaucratic delays. Empowering ULBs with financial autonomy and technical expertise, as piloted in 2024’s AMRUT 2.0, can enhance their role in creating resilient, eco-friendly cities, addressing challenges like urban flooding and pollution.

Q5. (c) Evaluate the significance of India’s eastern ports in enhancing trade with ASEAN countries.
Ans: India’s eastern ports, like Visakhapatnam and Haldia, are vital for enhancing trade with ASEAN countries, handling 25% of India’s cargo. In 2024, Visakhapatnam facilitated $10 billion in exports to Singapore. These ports leverage India’s proximity to ASEAN, reducing shipping costs. Modernization under Sagarmala, including Haldia’s 2025 dredging, boosts efficiency. They support industries like electronics and textiles, strengthening supply chains. However, environmental concerns and infrastructure gaps pose challenges. Deepening trade ties through ports, as seen in 2024’s India-ASEAN summit, enhances economic integration and regional influence. 

Q5. (d) How does the decline in India’s sex ratio impact its demographic dividend?
Ans: The decline in India’s sex ratio, reported at 900 females per 1,000 males in 2024, undermines its demographic dividend by reducing the female workforce. This limits economic growth, as women contribute only 17% to GDP. Skewed ratios, especially in Haryana, strain social structures, increasing gender-based violence. It reduces marriageable women, impacting population growth. Government initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, expanded in 2025, aim to balance ratios through education and awareness. A lower sex ratio risks an aging population with fewer caregivers, threatening India’s economic potential unless corrective measures are sustained. 

Q5. (e) (PYQ) Kalapani dispute has opened a new front on the India-Nepal international border. Explain.
Ans: The Kalapani dispute, involving a 35 sq km area near India’s border with Nepal, escalated in 2020 when Nepal revised its map, claiming Kalapani, Lipulekh, and Limpiyadhura. India asserts historical and administrative control, citing the 1816 Sugauli Treaty. Nepal’s claims, backed by 2024 protests, stem from differing interpretations of the Kali River’s origin. The dispute strains bilateral ties, impacting trade and border security. Diplomatic talks, like the 2025 foreign secretary meeting, aim for resolution, but nationalist sentiments complicate progress. A joint survey and historical evidence review could resolve this geopolitical tension. 

Q6. (a) Why do regional disparities in infrastructure development persist in India? How does the PM Gati Shakti initiative address this?
Ans:
Introduction: Regional disparities in infrastructure development persist in India due to historical, economic, and policy factors, which the PM Gati Shakti initiative aims to address. Body:

  • Historical Factors: Colonial focus on port cities neglected hinterlands, leaving Northeast underdeveloped.

  • Economic Disparities: States like Gujarat attract more investment than Bihar, widening gaps.

  • Policy Gaps: Inefficient fund allocation, as in pre-2024 rural road projects, delayed progress.

  • PM Gati Shakti:

    • Integrated Planning: 2024’s multi-modal connectivity linked 100 projects, boosting Northeast logistics.

    • Digital Platform: Real-time monitoring reduced delays in Uttar Pradesh’s 2025 highway projects.

    • Inclusivity: Targets underdeveloped regions, like Jharkhand’s rail expansion.
      Conclusion: Gati Shakti’s holistic approach bridges disparities, but sustained funding and local capacity building are vital for equitable growth. 

Q6. (b) Critically examine the role of India’s space program in disaster management.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s space program, led by ISRO, significantly enhances disaster management through satellite technology.
Body:

  • Monitoring: Satellites like RISAT-2 tracked Cyclone Dana (2024), enabling timely evacuations.

  • Communication: GSAT-6 ensured connectivity during 2025 Uttarakhand floods.

  • Mapping: Cartosat-3 aided flood mapping in Assam (2024), guiding relief.

  • Challenges: High costs and data access delays limit rural reach.

  • Initiatives: 2024’s Disaster Management Satellite Plan expanded coverage.
    Conclusion: ISRO’s innovations strengthen disaster response, but affordability and training are key.

Q6. (c) Discuss the socio-economic challenges of India’s aging population with reference to 2024-2025 trends.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s aging population, projected at 12% by 2030, poses socio-economic challenges, evident in 2024-2025 trends.
Body:

  • Healthcare Burden: Rising elderly ailments strain hospitals, as seen in 2024’s Delhi shortages.

  • Economic Strain: Fewer workers support pensions, impacting GDP growth.

  • Social Issues: Elderly isolation rose in urban areas, per 2025 surveys.

  • Solutions: 2024’s Ayushman Bharat expansion and senior care homes address needs.
    Conclusion: Proactive policies can turn aging into an opportunity for inclusive growth. 

Q7. (a) Analyze the growth of IT hubs in southern India and their impact on regional development.
Ans:
Introduction: Southern India’s IT hubs, like Bengaluru and Hyderabad, drive regional development through innovation and employment.
Body:

  • Characteristics:

    • Global Connectivity: Bengaluru’s 2024 IT exports reached $90 billion.

    • Skilled Workforce: Hyderabad’s tech parks employ 8 lakh professionals.

    • Infrastructure: Chennai’s IT corridors attract FDI.

  • Impact:

    • Economic Growth: Contributes 40% to India’s IT GDP.

    • Urbanization: Spurs housing and transport, but strains resources.

    • Challenges: Traffic congestion and water scarcity, as in Bengaluru (2025).
      Conclusion: IT hubs fuel prosperity, but sustainable urban planning is critical. 

Q7. (b) Discuss the emergence of eco-tourism in India’s north-eastern states.
Ans:
Introduction: Eco-tourism in India’s north-eastern states promotes sustainable development and cultural preservation.
Body:

  • Biodiversity: Meghalaya’s living root bridges attract 5 lakh tourists (2024).

  • Economic Benefits: Sikkim’s eco-tourism generated 10,000 jobs in 2025.

  • Challenges: Over-tourism risks ecosystems, as in Arunachal’s 2024 protests.

  • Initiatives: Assam’s 2024 eco-tourism policy balances conservation and growth.
    Conclusion: Eco-tourism boosts Northeast’s economy, but regulation is key.

Q7. (c) Evaluate the role of smart cities in addressing India’s urban housing crisis.
Ans:
Introduction: Smart cities aim to address India’s urban housing crisis through technology and planning.
Body:

  • Housing Solutions: Pune’s 2024 smart homes added 50,000 units.

  • Technology: IoT-based planning in Bhubaneswar optimized land use.

  • Challenges: High costs exclude low-income groups, as in 2025’s Surat projects.

  • Initiatives: AMRUT 2.0 (2024) promotes affordable housing.
    Conclusion: Smart cities show promise, but inclusivity is essential. 

Q8. (a) How do physiographic regions of India influence its agricultural regionalization? Illustrate with a map.
Ans:
Introduction: India’s physiographic regions shape its agricultural regionalization by influencing crop patterns and productivity.
Body:

  • Himalayas: Support horticulture in Himachal, as in 2024’s apple yields.

  • Indo-Gangetic Plains: Alluvial soils enable rice-wheat systems in Punjab.

  • Deccan Plateau: Black soils suit cotton in Maharashtra.

  • Coastal Plains: Laterite soils in Kerala support coconut plantations.

  • Indicators: Agro-climatic zones guide crop zoning, per 2025 ICAR data.
    Conclusion: Physiography drives agricultural diversity, aided by scientific zoning. 
    Diagram Suggestion: Map of India’s physiographic regions with crop patterns.

Q8. (b) Discuss the geopolitical significance of India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Indo-Pacific region. 
Ans:
Introduction: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands hold geopolitical significance in the Indo-Pacific for maritime security and trade.
Body:

  • Strategic Location: Controls Malacca Strait, vital for 30% global trade.

  • Military Presence: 2024’s INS Baaz upgrade strengthens surveillance.

  • Trade Hub: Port Blair’s 2025 transshipment port boosts connectivity.

  • Challenges: Environmental risks from infrastructure, as in 2024’s coral protests.
    Conclusion: The islands enhance India’s regional influence, but sustainability is key. 

Q8. (c) Evaluate the effectiveness of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana in ensuring food security.
Ans:
Introduction: The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) ensures food security for India’s poor through subsidized grains.
Body:

  • Reach: Covers 80 crore people, with 2024’s wheat distribution aiding 10 crore.

  • Impact: Reduced hunger in Bihar, per 2025 surveys.

  • Challenges: Leakages and storage issues, as in 2024’s Punjab losses.

  • Improvements: 2025’s digital tracking minimized pilferage.
    Conclusion: PMGKAY is effective, but systemic reforms enhance its impact. 

The document Mock Test Paper - 3 (Geography Optional Paper- II): Answers | Geography Optional for UPSC is a part of the UPSC Course Geography Optional for UPSC.
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FAQs on Mock Test Paper - 3 (Geography Optional Paper- II): Answers - Geography Optional for UPSC

1. What is the significance of Geography Optional Paper-II in the UPSC exam?
Ans. Geography Optional Paper-II is significant for UPSC candidates as it covers various aspects of human geography, including population, migration, urbanization, and economic geography. It helps candidates build a comprehensive understanding of geographical concepts, which is essential for both the examination and future administrative roles.
2. How should candidates prepare for Geography Optional Paper-II effectively?
Ans. Candidates should prepare for Geography Optional Paper-II by thoroughly studying the syllabus, referring to standard textbooks, and practicing previous years' question papers. Additionally, making detailed notes, understanding maps, and participating in group discussions can enhance their grasp of the subject.
3. What types of questions are typically asked in Geography Optional Paper-II?
Ans. The questions in Geography Optional Paper-II typically include descriptive and analytical types, covering topics like population distribution, urban planning, and environmental issues. Candidates may also encounter map-based questions and case studies that require critical thinking and application of geographical concepts.
4. Are there any recommended books for preparing for Geography Optional Paper-II?
Ans. Yes, some recommended books for Geography Optional Paper-II include "Human Geography" by Majid Husain, "Geography of India" by Khullar, and "Economic Geography" by S.P. Chatterjee. These books provide a solid foundation and cover essential topics needed for the examination.
5. What is the scoring potential of Geography Optional Paper-II in the UPSC exam?
Ans. Geography Optional Paper-II has a good scoring potential in the UPSC exam due to its structured nature and the ability to apply concepts in real-world scenarios. Candidates who have a strong grasp of the topics and can articulate their answers well often achieve high marks in this paper.
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